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STAAR Simulation Review 2021

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which group of lists best summarizes the subatomic particles and their electrical charge?

a)

proton, negative; neutron, positive; electron, no charge

b)

proton, positive; neutron, no charge; electron, negative

c)

proton, positive; neutron, negative; electron, no charge

d)

proton, no charge; neutron, positive; electron, negative

2.

Which letter represents the protons?

a)

Q

b)

R

c)

S

d)

T

3.

Which letter represents the neutrons?

a)

Q

b)

R

c)

S

d)

T

4.

Which letter represents the nucleus?

a)

Q

b)

R

c)

S

d)

T

5.

What is the name of the element represented in the model?

a)

Beryllum

b)

Boron

c)

Oxygen

d)

Flourine

6.

An atom of an element contains 20 protons. What is the identity of the element?

a)

Argon

b)

Calcium

c)

Neon

d)

Potassium

7.

The atomic number equals the amount of

a)

valence electrons

b)

protons

c)

nuetrons

d)

atoms

8.

Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?

a)

electrons & protons

b)

protons & neutrons

c)

valance electrons & neutrons

d)

atomic number & protons

9.

What part of an atom determines it's identity

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

valance electrons

d)

nucleus

10.

Where is the most mass in a atom located?

a)

electron cloud

b)

protons

c)

valance electrons

d)

nucleous

11.

Where are electrons located?

a)

the nucleus

b)

by the protons

c)

in the electron cloud

d)

by the nuetrons

12.

How many elements are in C6H12O6?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

13.

How many atoms are there TOTAL in:

H2SO4

a)

7

b)

3

c)

2

d)

8

14.

Elements in the same group

a)

have the same number of energy shells

b)

have the same number of protons

c)

have the same number of valance electrons

d)

have the same number of neutrons

15.

Valence electrons determine a element's

a)

identity

b)

number of energy shells

c)

number of protons

d)

level of reactivity

16.

The most highly reactive groups

a)

1 & 18

b)

5 & 6

c)

1 & 17

d)

16 & 18

17.

Group that is fully stable/ nonreactive

a)

1

b)

18

c)

7

d)

8

18.

How many valance electrons does Iodine Have?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

7

d)

10

19.

A element is fully stable when...

a)

it has a full shell of valance electrons (8)

b)

when it has at least 1 valance electron

c)

when it has more than 8 electrons

d)

when it does not have any valance electrons

20.

Elements in the same period share...

a)

same number of valance electrons

b)

same number of protons

c)

same number of neutrons

d)

same number of energy shells

21.

How many Total atoms are in the following chemical formula?

2H2O2

a)

4

b)

6

c)

10

d)

8

22.

How many Total atoms are in the following chemical formula?

H(NO2)3

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

2

23.

Which of the following is an example that includes evidence of a chemical reaction?

a)

Sugar that is burned gives off an odor and turns brown and then black

b)

A solid block of ice is heated and it completely melts into a liquid.

c)

A sample of zinc is placed in water and it settles to the bottom

d)

A tomato is placed into a blender and chopped up into smaller pieces.

24.

Which one is NOT a sign that a chemical reaction has occurred?

a)

dissolving

b)

energy change

c)

unexpected color change

d)

precipitate

25.

You know you a chemical reaction has occurred if

a)

there is a precipitate.

b)

there is a color change.

c)

there is a temperature change.

d)

All of these answers are evidence.

26.

Which elements have the most similar chemical properties?

a)

K and Na

b)

K and Ca

c)

K and Cl

d)

K and S

27.

Are groups or periods considered a "family"?

a)

Groups

b)

Periods

28.

What is potential energy?

a)

energy of something to become better

b)

energy of position or stored energy

c)

energy of motion

d)

energy from electricity

29.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

energy of motion

b)

energy of position or stored energy

c)

ability to do work or cause change

d)

energy of the past

30.

What does the law of conservation of energy state?

a)

Matter cannot be created or destroyed

b)

Energy cannot transform

c)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

d)

The bigger the object, the more energy

31.

Where will the rollercoaster have the greatest POTENTIAL energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

32.

Where will the roller coaster have the greatest KINETIC energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

33.

Where will the roller coaster be increasing in kinetic & decreasing in potential?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

34.

Where will the rollercoaster be increasing in potential & decreasing in kinetic?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

35.

You and your dad are moving the couch from one side to another. Your dad pushes with a force of 35 N to the right and you push with a force of 25 N right. What is the net force on the couch?

a)

70 N to the right

b)

60 N to the right

c)

60 N to the left

d)

70 N to the left

36.

If two forces act on an object in the same direction, the net force is the _____________

a)

sum of the two forces

b)

difference of the two forces

37.

If the two arrows for the forces are in opposite directions the net force will be _____

a)

sum of the forces

b)

difference of the forces

38.

A balanced force will

a)

cause a change in motion

b)

not cause a change in motion

39.

An unbalanced force will

a)

cause a change in motion

b)

will not cause a change in motion

40.

Are the forces balanced or unbalanced?

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

41.

What is the net force?

a)

3 N to the left

b)

0 N

c)

17 N to the right

d)

3N to the right

42.

The total amount of forces acting on an object is called...

a)

balanced force

b)

unbalanced force

c)

total forces

d)

net force

43.

True or False: Balanced forces are ONLY in objects that are not moving.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

If the car in the diagram rolls faster and faster as it moves down the ramp, you can be sure that

a)

the forces on the car are unbalanced

b)

the forces on the car are balanced

c)

the ramp is very steep

d)

only gravity is acting on the car

45.

Why does person B have a harder time going down the hill?

a)

Person A has less friction than Person B

b)

Person B has more friction than Person A

c)

Person B has less friction than Person A

d)

Person B is out of shape

46.

If the force acting on the car is & 14 N & acceleration is 7 m/s2, what is the mass of the car?

a)

7 kg

b)

2 kg

c)

14 kg

d)

21 kg

47.

If there is more mass then....

a)

there is more acceleration

b)

there is less acceleration

48.

For every action there is

a)

always balanced force

b)

an unequal & similar reaction

c)

an equal & opposite reaction

49.

What feature is formed at B?

a)

river

b)

sinkhole

c)

mountain

d)

fault line

50.

Countour lines that are farther apart

a)

means the land is steeper

b)

means the land is a mountain

c)

means the land is flatter

d)

means the land is rich in soil

51.

Contour lines that are closer together

a)

means the land is flatter

b)

means there is a sink hole

c)

means the land is rich in soil

d)

means the land is steeper

52.

What is the difference in elevation between Point X and Point Y?

a)

340 m

b)

240 m

c)

120 m

d)

360 m

53.

This is the process of moving of surfaces materials by gravity, water, wind or glaciers.

a)

weathering

b)

deposition

c)

erosion

54.

Through this process sediments are dropped in new locations.

a)

erosion

b)

weathering

c)

deposition

55.

The natural chemical or physical processes that actually breaks down rock on Earth's surface.

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

56.

What kind of boundary is shown here?

a)

convergent

b)

transform

c)

divergent

d)

subduction

57.

What boundary is shown here?

a)

transform

b)

convergent

c)

divergent

d)

insurgent

58.

What type of boundary is shown here?

a)

convergent

b)

divegent

c)

subduction

d)

transform

59.

What is subduction?

a)

when one plate slides past another

b)

when one plate goes under another plate

c)

when the plates stack on top of each other

d)

when plates move away from each other

60.

Which of the following is formed at a convergent boundary?

a)

mountain

b)

earthquake

c)

mid-ocean ridge

d)

fault line

61.

Which of the following is formed as a result of subduction?

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

fault line

c)

volcano

d)

mountain

62.

Which of the following are formed at a divergent boundary?

a)

new crust

b)

mountain

c)

mid-ocean ridge

d)

volcano

63.

Which of the following is forrmed at a transform boundary?

a)

fault line

b)

mountain

c)

volcano

d)

mid-ocean ridge

64.

Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 4?

a)

winter

b)

summer

c)

spring

d)

fall

65.

At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?

a)

Northern Hemisphere

b)

Southern Hemisphere

66.

Why do we experience seasons?

a)

distance from the sun

b)

the sun is less strong sometimes

c)

rotation of the earth

d)

tilt of the earth's axis

67.

Which season is taking place in the Southern Hemisphere in Position 1?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

fall

68.

One rotation of earth is equal to

a)

a day

b)

a year

69.

What causes day & night?

a)

rotation of the earth

b)

revolution of the earth

c)

the tilt of the earth's axis

d)

moon orbiting

70.

When it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere what season is the Southern Hemisphere experiencing?

a)

summer

b)

fall

c)

winter

d)

spring

71.

How long does it take for the earth to make one revolution around the sun?

a)

24 hours

b)

365.25 days

c)

28 days

d)

12 hours

72.

Which causes more heat?

a)

indirect sunlight

b)

direct sunlight

73.

What season is the northern hemisphere experiencing?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

fall

74.

How long is the moon cycle?

a)

365.25 days

b)

24 hours

c)

28 days

d)

1 week

75.

How long does each moon phase last?

a)

3.5 days

b)

28 days

c)

1 week

d)

1 day

76.

How much time is in between each "main" phase? ex) full moon to 3rd quarter

a)

3.5 days

b)

1 week

c)

28 days

d)

2 weeks

77.

If a new moon is on December 14, when will a 1st quarter moon be?

a)

December 17

b)

December 28

c)

December 21

d)

December 24

78.

What is the name of this phase?

a)

waxing gibbous

b)

waning crescent

c)

waning gibbous

d)

waxing crescent

79.

Increasing in light is (new moon to full moon)

a)

waxing

b)

waning

80.

Decreasing in light is.. (full moon to new moon)

a)

waxing

b)

waning

81.

What moon phase comes before and after?

a)

before - waxing gibbous

after - 3rd quarter

b)

before - waxing gibbous

after - waning gibbous

c)

before - waning gibbous

after - waxing gibbous

d)

before - 3rd quarter

after - 1st quarter

82.

What is the name of the moon phase in the diagram?

a)

new moon

b)

full moon

c)

1st quarter

d)

3rd quarter

83.

What moon phases is occurring in this image?

a)

new moon

b)

full moon

84.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

spiral

b)

oval

c)

irregular

d)

ellipitcal

85.

Birth place of a star is a

a)

black hole

b)

universe

c)

nebulae

d)

galaxy

86.

How does the sun get it's energy?

a)

from fire

b)

nuclear fusion

c)

from earth

d)

gravity

87.

True or False: Larger objects will have a greater gravitational pull.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

The universe has may different components. Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest.

a)

Nebulae, Stars, Planets, Galaxies

b)

Planets, Stars, Galaxies, Nebulae

c)

Planets, Stars, Nebulae, Galaxies

d)

Galaxies, Stars, Planets, Nebulae

89.

Which type of radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum emitted by stars can a human detect with the naked eye?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

X-Rays

c)

Radio waves

d)

Visible Light

90.

In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the LEFT?

a)

stars get hotter

b)

stars get colder

c)

stars get brighte

d)

stars get dimmer

91.

The stars at the top of an HR diagram are _____ than stars at the bottom of the HR diagram

a)

dimmer

b)

hotter

c)

colder

d)

brighter

92.

Spectral class is based on

a)

brightness

b)

size

c)

temperature

d)

dimness

93.

Most stars are

a)

white dwarfs

b)

main sequence stars

c)

giants

d)

super giants

94.

Which of the following is true?

a)

blue stars = colder; red stars = hotter

b)

color of stars do not matter

c)

blue stars = hotter; red stars = colder

d)

blue stars are dimmer; red stars are brighter

95.

What 2 things does an HR diagram compare?

a)

size & brightness

b)

color & size

c)

temperature & color

d)

temperature & brightness

96.

If the wavelength is measured at 10-8 meters, what type of wave is it?

a)

infrared

b)

radio

c)

gamma ray

d)

ultraviolet

97.

Which side of the periodic table are metals on?

a)

left

b)

right

98.

Which side of the periodic table are non-metals on?

a)

Left

b)

Right

99.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a metal?

a)

luster

b)

conoductors

c)

ductile

d)

mostly liquids

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