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Science Post Test 2020-2021 Review Game

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All the nonliving parts of an ecosystem are referred to as

a)

the community.

b)

biotic factors.

c)

abiotic factors.

d)

biomes.

2.

Which of the following would be a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Soil

c)

Temperature

d)

Rainfall

3.

Which biome is characterized by a layer of permafrost?

a)

Taiga

b)

Grassland

c)

Deciduous Forest

d)

Tundra

4.

Which biome occurs where a freshwater river meets an ocean?

a)

Intertidal Zone

b)

Coral Reef

c)

Estuary

d)

Wetland

5.

What biome gets no sunlight and has bacteria at the bottom of the food web (producers)?

a)

Intertidal Zone

b)

Wetlands

c)

Coral Reef

d)

Deep Ocean

6.

Which two biomes are the most similar with regard to rainfall?

a)

Tundra & Taiga

b)

Tundra & Desert

c)

Rainforest & Grassland

d)

Deciduous Forest & Grassland

7.

Which terrestrial biome do we find near the equator?

a)

Grassland

b)

Tropical Rainforest

c)

Desert

d)

Deciduous Forest

8.

Which of the following best describes ecological succession?

a)

Canadian geese migrating south to another ecosystem for the winter.

b)

Destruction of an ecosystem.

c)

The predictable changes an ecosystem goes through as it recovers from a natural disaster.

d)

When Simba takes over for Mufasa at the end of The Lion King.

9.

Volcanoes formed the Hawaiian Islands when lava solidified into rock as it cooled. Over time, the rock islands have turned into lush tropical rainforests. This is an example of what type of succession?

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

c)

Royal Succession

d)

Magical Succession

10.

A pond in Ohio slowly fills with detritus (decaying matter) over time and transforms into a wetland. Then, the wetland fills with sediment and dries out, forming a grassland. After centuries pass, the grassland grows into an oak and maple forest. What is the climax community in this situation?

a)

Pond

b)

Wetland

c)

Grassland

d)

Oak and Maple Forest

11.

Which relationship below is an example of a predator-prey relationship?

a)

A rabbit eats grasses.

b)

A coyote eats a hen.

c)

A fish eats fish food.

d)

A giraffe eats the leaves from tall trees.

12.

The graph shows the population growth of a dragon population in North Dakota. What type of growth is the dragon population experiencing?

a)

J-Curve

b)

S-Curve

c)

Random growth

d)

No growth; it it actually shrinking.

13.

What is the carrying capacity of the dragon population in North Dakota?

a)

0

b)

200

c)

1000

d)

There isn't a carrying capacity.

14.

Lake trout are found in the Great Lakes because they can only live in cold environments. This example shows how the number of populations an ecosystem can support is limited by

a)

temperature.

b)

food.

c)

air.

d)

water.

15.

Temperature is an example of what type of limiting factor?

a)

Density dependent limiting factor

b)

Density independent limiting factor

c)

Both a density dependent and a density independent limiting factor.

d)

neither a density dependent or a density independent limiting factor.

16.

At point B on the graph, why does the prey population size decrease?

a)

The predator population decreased.

b)

It was winter, so the prey died off.

c)

The predators ate a lot of the prey.

d)

It was just a normal yearly change in the population size.

17.

A population of gray foxes lives in a forest ecosystem. These foxes prey mostly on a large population of mice. If a fatal disease infects the mouse population, which of these is most likely to happen to the fox population through time?

a)

It will increase in size.

b)

It will suffer from a similar disease.

c)

It will develop resistance to the disease.

d)

It will decrease in size.

18.

Which of the following would most likely happen if we introduced a new predator into an ecosystem?

a)

The prey population would increase to support both predators.

b)

The new predator would be eaten by other animals in the ecosystem.

c)

The new predator would compete with the current predators for food.

d)

The new predator would immediately develop a symbiotic relationship with a native predator.

19.

Predators are an example of what type of limiting factor?

a)

Density dependent

b)

Density independent

c)

Both density dependent and density independent

d)

Neither density dependent or density independent

20.

What is an environmental factor that prevents a population from increasing?

a)

Carrying Capacity

b)

Immigration

c)

Limiting Factor

d)

Population Density

21.

Which chart correctly shows three of the organisms according to their roles of cycling matter in the marine food web above?

a)
b)
c)
d)
22.

What is the ultimate source of energy for the majority of ecosystems on Earth?

a)

plants

b)

Sun

c)

bacteria

d)

ocean

23.

Which statement best describes how energy passes through organisms in an energy pyramid?

a)

Energy flows through organisms from bottom to top and increases at each trophic level.

b)

Energy flows through organisms from bottom to top and decreases at each trophic level.

c)

Energy flows through organisms from top to bottom and increases at each trophic level.

d)

Energy flows through organisms from to to bottom and decreases as each trophic level.

24.

Which animal in the food web is classified as an omnivore?

a)

Deer

b)

Rabbit

c)

Black Bear

d)

Red Fox

25.

Decomposers are important in ecosystems because they

a)

produce their own food from the Sun's energy.

b)

stop the flow of energy through an ecosystem.

c)

can not be eaten by other organisms.

d)

break down and recycle wastes and dead materials.

26.

Which energy pyramid best represents the data in the table above?

a)
b)
c)
d)
27.

The letters in the diagram represent various species in a food web. Recall that in a food web diagram, the arrows indicate the direction energy flows through an ecosystem. Which letter represents a species that is most likely a carnivore?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

28.

1. Use the food chain to answer the question.

Food Chain

grass -> insect -> frog -> owl -> hawk

In which part of the food chain is the greatest amount of energy transferred?

a)

from grass to insect

b)

from insect to frog

c)

from frog to owl

d)

from owl to hawk

29.

Which of the following organisms is a secondary consumer in this food web?

a)

yellow-bellied marmot

b)

strawberry plant

c)

least chipmunk

d)

king bolete

30.

Which of these organisms is not an omnivore?

a)

Herring

b)

Shrimp

c)

Blue Whale

d)

Killer Whale

31.

1. Improvements in fishing techniques have led to an increase in the amount of herring harvested in recent decades. What would be a direct effect of increased harvests of herring?

a)

The blue whale population would decrease.

b)

The herring gull population would increase.

c)

The killer whale population would increase.

d)

The shrimp population would increase.

32.

How would the populations of other organisms in the energy pyramid be affected if the population of sea urchins suddenly decreased?

a)

Both the kelp and the sheephead populations would increase.

b)

Both the kelp and the sheephead populations would decrease.

c)

The kelp population would decrease, and the sheephead population would increase.

d)

The kelp population would increase, and the sheephead population would decrease.

33.

What is the lowest level of the energy pyramid that contains carnivores?

a)

Level 1

b)

Level 2

c)

Level 3

d)

Level 4

34.

What molecule in plant cells first captures the radiant (light) energy from the sun?

a)

Glucose

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Adenosine Triphosphate

35.

What gas is forming in the test tube shown above?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Nitrogen

36.

Through cellular respiration, plants get energy from glucose. The energy stored in glucose originally came from

a)

plants.

b)

animals.

c)

the sun.

d)

geothermal sources.

37.

The process of cellular respiration occurs in

a)

both plant and animal cells.

b)

only in plant cells.

c)

only in animal cells.

d)

neither in plant nor animal cells.

38.

Which statement best describes the process of cellular respiration?

a)

Oxygen and sugar are used in the process that provides energy to cells; water and carbon dioxide are its waste products.

b)

Water and sugar are used in the process that provides energy to cells; oxygen and carbon dioxide are its waste products.

c)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are used in the process that provides energy to cells; sugar and water are its waste products.

d)

Carbon dioxide and sugar are used in the process that provides energy to cells; water and oxygen are its waste products.

39.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration occur in the same organelle.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are performed by all organisms.

c)

Photosynthesis produces carbon dioxide, and cellular respiration use carbon dioxide.

d)

Photosynthesis stores energy for cells, and cellular respiration releases energy for cells.

40.

Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration involve all of the following except

a)

glucose.

b)

oxygen.

c)

water.

d)

chlorophyll.

41.

Which phenomena occur as a result of the gravitational attraction between the moon and Earth?

a)

Eclipses

b)

Ocean Tides

c)

Seasonal Changes

d)

Phases of the Moon

42.

The diagram above shows a polar projection of Earth and four positions of the Moon. The highest high tides and lowest low tides are called spring tides. Which positions of the Moon produce spring tides in Earth's oceans?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 4

c)

1 and 3

d)

3 and 4

43.

Which diagram below shows the relationship between the sun, the moon, and Earth when the moon is full (seen as a completely lighted circle)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

A student observed the shape of the Moon once every 7 days during the month of June. Which of the following drawings shows how the Moon's shape could have changed during the month of June?

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.

The diagram above shows a polar projection of Earth, the Sun, and four positions of the Moon. Which position of the Moon could cause a solar eclipse?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

46.

A new moon, as viewed from Earth, is shown above. Which statement best describes how a new moon occurs?

a)

Earth receives no sunlight.

b)

The moon receives no sunlight.

c)

Earth is between the moon and the sun.

d)

The moon is between Earth and the sun.

47.

The diagram above shows the relative positions of Earth and the Moon and rays of sunlight. Based on the diagram, which of the following best represents how the Moon would appear as seen from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Why is there a full moon approximately once a month?

a)

The Moon revolves around Earth once a month.

b)

The Moon rotates on its axis once a month.

c)

The Moon revolves around the Sun once a month.

d)

The Moon does not rotate on its axis.

49.

Which diagram most accurately represents the effect of the gravitational pull of the Moon on Earth's ocean tides?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

When magnesium (Mg) metal is burned in the presence of oxygen (O2), magnesium oxide (MgO) is produced. The properties of magnesium oxide are different than the individual properties of magnesium and oxygen because magnesium oxide is

a)

a solution.

b)

a mixture.

c)

a compound.

d)

an element.

51.

A diagram of the periodic table is shown above. In which region of the table would nonmetals be found?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

52.

In a comparison of metals to nonmetals, metals tend to have

a)

lower melting points and greater conductivity than nonmetals.

b)

lower conductivity and lower density than nonmetals.

c)

higher density and lower melting points than nonmetals.

d)

greater conductivity and higher melting points than nonmetals.

53.

Iodine would have chemical properties most like

a)

manganese (Mn).

b)

chlorine (Cl).

c)

tellurium (Te).

d)

xenon (Xe).

54.

Which element in this row would be the least likely to react with other elements?

a)

Boron

b)

Carbon

c)

Neon

d)

Oxygen

55.

A student uses red cabbage indicator to determine the pH of 4 household substances. Which household solution has the lowest pH?

a)
b)

Club Soda

c)

Lemon Juice

d)

Drain Cleaner

56.

A student uses red cabbage indicator to determine the pH of 4 household substances. Comparing his results to the color chart below, what logical conclusion can the student make regarding the substances he tested?

a)
b)

Lemon juice has a pH between 0 and 2.

c)

Drain cleaner has a pH between 10 and 12.

d)

Window cleaner and club soda are both neutral solutions.

57.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Blue litmus paper turns red when placed in a base.

b)

Red litmus paper turns blue when placed in a base.

c)

Red litmus paper stays red when placed in a base.

d)

Blue litmus paper stays blue when placed in an acid.

58.

Which of the following substances can be separated into several elements?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Zinc

c)

Air

d)

Aluminum

59.

A diagram of the hydrologic cycle is shown above. Which stage of the water cycle follows X in the diagram?

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

How does radiant heat from the Sun affect the water cycle?

a)

It causes evaporation.

b)

It causes cloud formation.

c)

It causes surface run-off.

d)

It causes precipitation.

61.

A stream of surface water reaches a porous portion of sediment and seeps into the ground. This water eventually joins a large reservoir of water located beneath the Earth's surface. This example describes the ____________ interacting with the ______________.

a)

hydrosphere; lithosphere

b)

lithosphere; atmosphere

c)

hydrosphere; biosphere

d)

biosphere; lithosphere

62.

Most precipitation forms in clouds high up in the atmosphere. Why is this the case?

a)

Water vapor is not able to condense at sea level.

b)

Clouds, made up of condensed water, are only able to form at high altitudes.

c)

As water vapor rises in the atmosphere, it cools and condenses.

d)

The formation of precipitation only takes place in the atmosphere's stratosphere.

63.

When precipitation falls on land surfaces, it begins to flow toward sea level. The water is more likely to flow toward sea level as groundwater if

a)

the surface is porous and there are lots of interconnected spaces underground.

b)

the surface is not porous and there are lots of interconnected spaces underground.

c)

the surface is porous and there are few interconnected spaces underground.

d)

the surface is not porous and there are few interconnected spaces underground.

64.

Which of the following statements demonstrates that the ocean is connected to all of Earth's water reservoirs through the processes of evaporation and precipitation?

a)

A water molecule trapped in a glacier melts and runs into a river or a stream.

b)

A water molecule is absorbed by a plant and used to perform photosynthesis.

c)

A water molecule from the South Atlantic Ocean can fall as rain into an inland lake.

d)

A water molecule is consumed by a person or animal and released as perspiration.

65.

An inventor claims to have designed a perpetual motion machine, a device that creates its own power. Which of the following laws best explains why a perpetual motion machine cannot work?

a)

Law of Conservation of Energy

b)

Law of Conservation of Matter

c)

Newton's Second Law

d)

Newton's Third Law

66.

The steps above describe the process of generating electricity by burning coal in a power plant. Which energy transformation occurs during this process?

a)

Nuclear energy of the steam is converted to thermal energy of the turbine.

b)

Mechanical energy from the turbine is converted to electrical energy in the generator.

c)

Electric energy from the generator is converted to chemical energy in the power lines.

d)

Chemical energy from the generator is converted to electric energy in the power lines.

67.

Jackie used a portable electric drill to remove screws from a broken wooden table. He noticed that the screws holding the table together were warm to the touch after being removed from the wood. What explains this phenomenon?

a)

Mechanical energy from the drill was converted into thermal energy due to friction.

b)

Electrical energy from the drill was converted into chemical energy due to resistance.

c)

Thermal energy from the drill was converted into mechanical energy due to inertia.

d)

The process of removing the screw concentrated the thermal energy that was already present in the wood.

68.

Which of the following are true statements about energy in systems?

a)

When energy is transferred or transformed, some matter must be changed into energy to keep the total amount of energy in the system the same.

b)

Energy can be transferred or transformed within the system or outside the system, but the energy cannot be destroyed.

c)

The total amount of energy in a system must be equal to the total amount of matter.

d)

Not an answer

69.

What is an energy change that takes place in a light bulb once it is plugged into the wall?

a)

Chemical energy changes to light energy.

b)

Chemical energy changes to heat energy.

c)

Electrical energy changes to light energy.

d)

Electrical energy changes to chemical energy.

70.

Ryan is testing two types of light bulbs to see how efficiently they use energy. Ryan turns both bulbs on and finds that after an hour, the incandescent bulb is too hot to touch, while the compact fluorescent bulb is warm, but not hot. What can Ryan infer from his findings?

a)

The fluorescent bulb is producing more light than the incandescent bulb.

b)

The fluorescent bulb is transferring more energy to its surroundings as heat.

c)

The incandescent bulb is producing more light than the fluorescent bulb.

d)

The incandescent bulb is transferring more energy to its surroundings as heat.

71.

The figure above represents a pendulum's motion with the lowest point of its swing labeled P. What happens to most of the pendulum's gravitational potential energy as it reaches the lowest point P?

a)

It is transformed into inertia.

b)

It is transformed into kinetic energy.

c)

It is transformed into thermal energy.

d)

It is transformed into chemical energy.

72.

A song is playing on a radio. Which statement describes the change in the flow of energy?

a)

Electrical energy is changed to light energy.

b)

Electrical energy is changed to sound energy.

c)

Sound energy is changed to light energy.

d)

Sound energy is changed to electrical energy.

73.

Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a)

Ozone in the troposphere is harmful, and ozone in the stratosphere is beneficial.

b)

Ozone in both the troposphere and the stratosphere is bad.

c)

Ozone in the stratosphere is harmful, and ozone in the troposphere is beneficial.

d)

Ozone in both the troposphere and the stratosphere is good.

74.

What two gases make up 99% of the Earth's atmosphere?

a)

carbon dioxide and nitrogen

b)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

c)

nitrogen and oxygen

d)

nitrogen and water vapor

75.

Earth's atmosphere is divided into layers based upon

a)

water content.

b)

relative humidity.

c)

gas content.

d)

temperature gradient.

76.

In the troposphere,

a)

temperature decreases as altitude increases.

b)

temperature stays the same as altitude increases.

c)

temperature increases as altitude increases.

d)

temperature alternately increases and decreases as altitude increases.

77.

Sunlight absorbed by Earth's surface is re-radiated as infrared radiation. Much of this radiation is then trapped in the atmosphere by gases that absorb it. This absorption by atmospheric gases adds additional heat to the atmosphere, which warms the Earth's surface. This process is called

a)

precipitation.

b)

the jet stream.

c)

the Coriolis effect.

d)

the greenhouse effect.