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AP Biology Spring Midterm Review

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a)
Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
b)
Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
c)
Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d)
Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
2.
A bond with a partially negative end and a partially positive end is:
a)
ionic
b)
polar
c)
non-polar
d)
isometric
3.
What information do we look for on the periodic table if we  want to examine intermolecular forces?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
electronegativity
d)
ionization 
4.

What converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants and animals?

a)

bacteria

b)

rain

c)

fungi

d)

car exhaust

5.
Plants and animals need nitrogen to make __________.
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Lipids
d)
Minerals
6.

Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Nucleic Acids & Proteins

7.

Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

8.

Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

9.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

pentose sugar

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

phosphate

d)

amino acid

10.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein?

a)

Amine Group

b)

R Group

c)

Carboxyl Group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

11.

Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane.

a)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior

b)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular

c)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior

d)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular

12.

Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.

a)

Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis

b)

Rough ER functions in ribosome synthesis; Smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis

c)

Rough ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis; Smooth ER compartmentalizes cell

d)

Rough ER functions in lipid synthesis; Smooth ER functions in ribosome synthesis

13.

Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

14.

Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

15.

Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waster products. In plants, aids in turgor.

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

16.

Which of the following is the location for the light-dependent reactions?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

17.

Which of the following is the location for the Krebs cycle?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

18.

Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?

a)

Charged ion moving against concentration gradient

b)

Water moving into a hypertonic cell

c)

Charged ion moving with concentration gradient

d)

Water moving out of a hypotonic cell

19.

Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes

b)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

c)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

d)

Absence of membrane-bound organelles allows for enzymatic reactions.

20.

Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?

a)

slight increase in temperature

b)

extreme increase in temperature

c)

decrease in temperature

d)

extreme increase in temperature and pH changes

21.

Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

22.

Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?

a)

increase product

b)

increase substrate

c)

increase inhibitor

d)

increase enzyme

23.

Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

a)

increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles

b)

increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate

c)

increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available

d)

increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site

24.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

25.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

26.

Describe the impact of a mutation in any domain of the protein components of the transduction signaling pathway.

a)

receptor unable to bind to ligand

b)

no changes in transduction due to initial signal transduction from ligand

c)

alters response of the cell

d)

amplification of signaling pathway to bind more ligands

27.

Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

28.

Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

29.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

30.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

31.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

32.

This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

a)

crossing over

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

gene flow

33.

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

34.

Describe the cause of a cross resulting in greater than 50% parental phenotypes and less then 50% recombinant phenotypes

a)

Genes are linked on the same chromosome

b)

Genes are located on different arms of the same chromosome

c)

Gene are on different chromosomes

d)

Gene are found in different gametes

35.

Snowshoe hares are brown in summer and white in winter, describe this event.

a)

Hares undergo phenotypic plasticity & environment influences gene express

b)

Hares are white in winter due to the snow binding to hair follicles

c)

Hares are brown from exposed dirt in summer

d)

Hares remain hidden in the winter months inhibiting fur darken from sun

36.

Which of the following is a predicted ratio of a dihybrid cross?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:3:4

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1:1:1

37.

Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait?

a)

Males have only 1 Y chromosome

b)

Females have only 1 Y chromosome

c)

Males have only 1 X chromosome

d)

Females have only 1 X chromosomes

38.
Covalently bonded molecules are made of atoms that
a)
share electorns
b)
shoot their electrons out into space
c)
move their electrons to the nucleus of the atom
d)
give electrons to and accept electrons from each other
39.
Ionically bonded compounds are made of atoms that 
a)
share electrons
b)
shoot their electrons out into space
c)
move their electrons to the nucleus of the atom
d)
give electrons to and accept electrons from each other
40.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
41.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
42.

What is the function of the intermembrane space of the mitochondria?

a)

space where H+ ions accumulate quickly for ATP synthesis

b)

space where electrons accumulate for ATP synthesis

c)

to increase the surface area to volume ratio for ATP production

43.

True or False. The electron transport chain for both the mitochondria and the chloroplast occur on membranes.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following is part of the mitochondria

a)

outer membrane

b)

DNA

c)

matrix

d)

all of the above

45.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
46.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
47.
Food is moved into the cell by ________________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
48.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
49.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
50.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
51.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
52.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E 
53.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
54.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
55.
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up on the equator of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
56.
In which phase of mitosis does the nucleus disappear, centrioles move to the poles, and chromosomes condense into sister chromatids?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
57.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
58.
In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?
a)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia
b)
The father carries an allele for hemophilia
c)
The father is afflicted with hemophilia
d)
both parents carry an allele for hemophilia
59.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t).  The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y).
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants.  What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
a)
TtYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
60.

If 2n = 48 for a particular cell, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis would be

a)

96

b)

48

c)

24

d)

12

61.

Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cacti with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cacti have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether cacti have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cacti have no spines at all.

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Epistasis

c)

CoDominance

d)

Pleiotropy

62.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
aB, ab, AB, Ab
b)
aB, Ab, AB, AB
c)
AB, aB, AB, Ab
d)
aB, ab, aB, ab

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