wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Jan HLS revision

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
I am single stranded.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
2.
I am found ONLY in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
3.
I am a nucleic acid.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
4.
I am arranged as a double helix or "twisted ladder."
a)
Both DNA and RNA
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
5.
I have the sugar ribose.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
6.
I have the sugar deoxyribose.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
7.
I include the bases guanine, cytosine, and adenine.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
8.
In eukaryotic cells, I travel out of the nucleus to a ribosome.
a)
Both DNA and RNA
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
9.
I have the base thymine.
a)
Both DNA and RNA
b)
RNA
c)
DNA
10.
I have the base uracil.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
11.
In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of Thymine, then how much Guanine would be present?
a)
30%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
10%
12.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
13.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
14.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
15.
Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
16.
If a strand reads:
3' A A A T T T C 5'
The matching strand would read...
a)
5' T T T A A A G 3'
b)
3' T T T A A A G 5'
c)
5' A A A T T T C 3'
d)
3' U U U A A A G 5'
17.
What are the gaps between the newly synthesized DNA on the lagging strand called?
a)
Okazaki fragments
b)
Polymer gaps
c)
Helicase fragments
d)
Acidic gaps
18.
This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.
a)
anti-parallel
b)
deoxyribosic
c)
helical
d)
radioactive
19.
3' and 5' refer to...
a)
How effectively the helicase works
b)
What direction the nucleotides are pointing
c)
Where the RNA primer attaches
d)
Okazaki's famous experiment
20.
Polymerase is able to replicate the new DNA ______ along the leading strand.
a)
continuously
b)
only in short fragments
c)
very slowly
d)
prokaryotically
21.
The enzyme that splits open the DNA creates what's called a fork - where the DNA separates into the lagging strand and the ______ strand.
a)
leading
b)
leveraging
c)
Okazaki
d)
ligase
22.
What is the shape of DNA?
a)
Double helix
b)
Triple helix
c)
Flat, bilayer
d)
Three-pronged rigid ladder
23.
DNA replication turns one strand of DNA into two new strands of DNA. What percent of each new strand is the old strand?
a)
Half of each new DNA is the old DNA
b)
The old strand of DNA was digested, so none
c)
The new DNA is entirely made up of the old DNA
d)
About every sixth base comes from the old DNA
24.
Sometimes, DNA is called "semi-conservative." Why might this be?
a)
The old strand is "conserved" and used to make the new strands
b)
Uracil is "conserved" in that it is only used to make the new strands
c)
ATP is "conserved" via the usage of facilitated diffusion
d)
Ligase is "conserved" in that it is denatured by the process
25.
order of replication
a)
3, 4, 2, 1
b)
3, 1, 4, 2
c)
2, 1, 4, 3
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
26.
Place the following in sequential order
1. Recoil
2. Straightens the double helix
3. Breaks Hydrogen bonds
4. Adds Free nucleotides
a)
1, 2, 3, 4
b)
3, 4, 2, 1
c)
3, 2, 4, 1
d)
2, 3, 4, 1
27.
What will the first four bases of the new DNA strand look like if copying the template strand?
a)
TGGT
b)
ACCA
c)
GTTG
d)
CAAC
28.
The central dogma of biology states that information flows in one direction from 
a)
nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes to proteins to DNA
c)
genes to nuclei to ribosomes
d)
DNA to RNA to proteins
29.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
30.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
31.
Which of the following events occurs directly after RNA polymerase recognizes a gene?
a)
The polymerase strings amino acids into a polypeptide
b)
Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed DNA bases
c)
A complementary RNA strand detaches itself from the DNA
d)
The DNA strand begins to unwind, separating the two strands
32.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
33.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
34.
Which of the following is the site of transcription?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
35.
Which of the following is the site of translation?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
36.
Which of the following is created in the nucleus and carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
rRNA
37.
A tRNA that carries the amino acid methionine pairs with which type of codon?
a)
serine codon
b)
tRNA codon
c)
start codon
d)
anticodon
38.
What would happen if we did not have start codons?
a)
Polypeptide chains would continue to grow
b)
Amino acids would bind to tRNA
c)
Protein synthesis wouldn't occur
d)
mRNA would form a double strand
39.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

40.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

41.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

42.

Which of the following is the tRNA that will be used to decode to this DNA strand: AACTGA

a)

AAC and TGA

b)

TTG and ACT

c)

UUG and ACU

d)

AAC and UGA

43.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
44.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
45.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
46.
A mutation that does NOT show up through protein function is called
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
47.
Where do mutations occur?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA 
c)
RNA
d)
mRNA and tRNA
48.

A nonsense mutation produced _________.

a)

A truncated polypeptide chain

b)

A slightly altered polypeptide chain

c)

A shift in the reading frame

d)

The regulatory sequence being altered.

49.
A base pair substitution can result in all of the following except __________.
a)
Missense mutation
b)
Frameshift Mutation
c)
Silent Mutation
d)
Nonsense mutation
50.
What kind of mutation is the result of an insertion?
a)
Silent Mutation
b)
Missense mutation
c)
Nonsense mutation
d)
Frameshift mutation
51.

Name the mutation that happens when an extra base has been added to the sequence of bases.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Insertion

52.

Deletion

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

53.

Substitution

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

54.

Insertion

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

55.

Frameshift mutation

a)

Addition of one or more nucleic acids

b)

Removal of one or more nucleic acids

c)

Replacement of one or more nucleic acids

d)

When codons shift ---nucleic acids are separated from their original triplet

e)

Copying or doubling of a sequence

56.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

57.

What type of mutation causing sickle cell anaemia?

a)

Nonsense substitution

b)

Missense substitution

c)

Silent substitution

d)

Deletion

e)

Insertion

58.

What makes up around 55% of the blood?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

White Blood Cells

d)

Platelets

59.

What carries oxygen around the body?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

Platelets

d)

White Blood Cells

60.

What causes the blood to be the distinct red colour?

a)

Haemoglobin

b)

Glucose

c)

Hormones

d)

Oxygen

61.

Which of the following is NOT a type of blood vessel?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

d)

Ventricle

62.

What is the function (job) of the white blood cells?

a)

To transport oxygen around the body.

b)

To carry dissolved sugars.

c)

To clot and cover wounds like cuts and grazes.

d)

To release antibodies to help destroy infections.

63.

What is the function (job) of the plasma?

a)

To release antibodies to fight infections.

b)

To transport oxygen around the body.

c)

To carry dissolved nutrients and sugars.

d)

To transport oxygen around the body.

64.

What is the function (job) of the red blood cells?

a)

To transport oxygen around the body and to the muscles.

b)

To release antibodies to fight infections.

c)

To carry dissolved nutrients and sugars.

d)

To clot and form scabs if there is a wound on the body.

65.

Which blood vessels take blood TO the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

66.

Which blood vessels take blood AWAY from the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

67.

Which is the smallest of the 3 blood vessels?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

68.

The thickest and strongest blood vessel is the

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

d)

both veins and capillaries

69.

The blood vessel that has the largest diameter is

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

70.

The blood vessel that has valves at intervals...

a)

capillary

b)

artery

c)

vein

d)

none of the above

71.

Valves in veins

a)

support them

b)

protect them

c)

prevent the backward movement inside them

d)

provide them elesticity

72.

What is the function of capillaries?

a)

Transports deoxygenated blood

b)

Transport oxygenated blood

c)

Site for exchange of materials

73.

What is the function of coronary artery?

a)

Transports oxygenated blood from aorta to heart muscles

b)

Transports oxygenated blood from aorta to liver

c)

Transports oxygenated blood from aorta to kidneys

74.

How many percent of blood plasma that leaks from capillaries are carried back into the blood system through the lymph vessels?

a)

2%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

15%

75.

What are the two opposing pressures that were created due to the volume of fluid which leaves the capillary out into the tissue fluid?

a)

osmotic and gravity

b)

osmotic and hydrostatic blood pressure

c)

hydrostatic blood pressure and gravity

d)

osmotic and filtration pressures

76.

Where are tissue fluids located in the body?

a)

between cels in tissues only

b)

between tissues and muscles

c)

between bones and muscles

d)

between capillaries only

77.

What contains more white blood cells and lymphocytes?

a)

blood plasma

b)

tissue fluid

c)

blood

d)

lymph

78.

Which of the following is a correct explanation about tissue fluid production?

a)

If the forces moving the fluid out of the capillaries are greater than the forces moving the fluid into the capillaries.

b)

If the forces moving the fluid out of the capillaries are lesser than the forces moving the fluid into the capillaries.

c)

If the forces moving the fluid into of the capillaries are greater than the forces moving fluid out the capillaries

d)

If the forces moving fluid into of the capillaries are lesser than the forces moving fluid out the capillaries

79.

The substance that surrounds most cells is called:

a)

Intracellular fluid

b)

Plasma

c)

Lymph

d)

Tissue Fluid

80.

Tissue fluid supplies respiring cells with:

a)

Oxygen & Glucose

b)

Carbon Dioxide & Glucose

c)

Lactic Acid & Oxygen

d)

Water & Carbon dioxide

81.

In which direction does blood flow through a capillary bed?

a)

Vein end -> Arteriole end

b)

Venule end -> Arteriole end

c)

Arteriole end -> Venule end

d)

Artery end -> Venule end

82.

Which pressure is highest at the arteriole end of the capillary bed?

a)

Oncotic pressure

b)

Oncostatic pressure

c)

Hydrostatic pressure

d)

Water potential

83.

At the arteriole end of the capillary, how does the hydrostatic pressure of the blood compare to the hydrostatic pressure of the tissue fluid:

a)

It is higher

b)

It is lower

c)

It is the same

84.

Why is the water potential of the blood at the venule end of the capillary lower than the water potential of the blood at the arteriole end of the capillary? 2 answers

a)

Plasma (water based/aqueous solution) left the blood at the arteriole end of the capillary

b)

Solute concentration of the blood has remained the same throughout the capillary

c)

Water has been produced by respiring cells

d)

Water has moved from the tissue fluid to the blood at the venule end of the capillary bed

85.

Why is the water potential of the blood at the venule end of the capillary lower than the water potential of the blood at the arteriole end of the capillary? 2 answers

a)

Plasma (water based/aqueous solution) left the blood at the arteriole end of the capillary

b)

Solute concentration of the blood has remained the same throughout the capillary

c)

Water has been produced by respiring cells

d)

Water has moved from the tissue fluid to the blood at the venule end of the capillary bed

86.

Where is the Aorta

a)

3

b)

4

c)

9

d)

10

87.

What is this called

a)

Bicuspid Valve

b)

Aortic Valve

c)

Tricuspid Valve

d)

Pulmonary Valve

88.

Where is the Pulmonary Artery

a)

10

b)

8

c)

9

d)

1

89.

Where is the Pulmonary Vein

a)

7

b)

9

c)

10

d)

8

90.

Where is the Pulmonary Valve

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

9

91.

Where is the Right Atrium

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

92.

Where is the Superior Vena Cava

a)

1

b)

5

c)

2

d)

4

93.

Where is the Inferior Vena Cava

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

3

94.

The Tricuspid Valve is on the right side of the heart

a)

True

b)

False

95.

The Bicuspid Valve is on the right side of the heart

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Where is the Right Ventricle

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

97.

Where is the Left Ventricle

a)

7

b)

4

c)

6

d)

5

98.
Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than that of the right ventricle?
a)
The left ventricle must force blood into all the capillaries of the lungs 
b)
the left ventricle doesn't skip leg day
c)
This is false, the walls of the right ventricle are thicker
d)
Blood from the left ventricle is pumped throught the entire body 
99.
Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
a)
Right Ventricle
b)
Left Ventricle
c)
Right Atrium
d)
Left Atrium
100.

State the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular diastole

101.

State the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular diastole

102.

State the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular diastole

103.

What happen to the valves in the heart during the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves open

b)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves close

c)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves open

d)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves close

104.

What happen to the valves in the heart during the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves open

b)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves close

c)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves open

d)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves close

105.

What happen to the valves in the heart during the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves open

b)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves close

c)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves open

d)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves close

106.

The first sound of heart, "lub" produced when

a)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves open

b)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves close

c)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves open

d)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves close

107.

The second sound of heart, "dup" produced when

a)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves open

b)

Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves close

c)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves open

d)

Atrioventricular valves close, semilunar valves close

108.

During Atrial diastole & Ventricular systole phase, pressure between atria and ventricles?

a)

Pressure in atria are greater than ventricles

b)

Equal pressure in atria and ventricles

c)

Pressure in ventricles are greater than atria

109.

During Atrial systole & Ventricular diastole phase, pressure between atria and ventricles?

a)

Pressure in atria are greater than ventricles

b)

Equal pressure in atria and ventricles

c)

Pressure in ventricles are greater than atria

110.

During Atrial & Ventricular diastole phase, pressure between atria and ventricles?

a)

Pressure in atria are greater than ventricles

b)

Equal pressure in atria and ventricles

c)

Pressure in ventricles are greater than atria

111.

During Atrial & Ventricular diastole phase, what happen between vena cava, right atrium & right ventricles?

a)

Pressure in vena cava is greater than in atrium and pressure in atrium is greater than ventricles, hence blood flow from vena cava into the right atrium and into the right ventricles by passive transport.

b)

Pressure in vena cava is lower than in atrium and pressure in atrium is lower than ventricles, hence blood flow from vena cava into the right atrium and into the right ventricles by passive transport.

c)

Pressure in vena cava is greater than in atrium and pressure in atrium is lower than ventricles, hence blood flow from vena cava into the right atrium and into the right ventricles by passive transport.

d)

Pressure in vena cava is greater than in atrium and pressure in atrium is greater than ventricles, hence blood flow from vena cava into the right atrium and into the right ventricles by active transport.

112.

During Atrial diastole & Ventricular systole phase, which event is wrong?

a)

Blood flow into the atria through vena cava and pulmonary vein

b)

Semilunar valves are opened

c)

Blood flow out of heart through aorta and pulmonary artery

d)

Atrioventricular valves are closed and produced "dub" sound

113.

Which is the correct sequence of phases in cardiac cycle?

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole ; Atrial diastole, ventricular systole ; Atrial & ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole ; Atrial systole, ventricular diastole ; Atrial & ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole ; Atrial diastole, ventricular systole ; Atrial & ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole ; Atrial systole, ventricular diastole ; Atrial & ventricular diastole

114.
The place where the electrical current starts and is considered the heart's pacemaker:
a)
Sino-atrial node 
b)
right atrium
c)
atria-ventricular node 
d)
left ventricle
115.
The AV node is located at...
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
116.

The AV node is located between which two parts of the heart?

a)

right atria, left atria

b)

atria, ventricle

c)

left ventricle, left ventricle

d)

epicardium, pericardium

117.

Which of the following is most likely to occur if there is a blockage to the AV bundle nerve impulse?

a)

the AV Node will not produce electrical impulses

b)

the SA Node will not produce electrical impulses

c)

no effect

d)

the Purkinje fibers will not produce electrical impulses

118.

The last place electrical impulses move through the heart is located where?

a)

the AV Node

b)

the Purkinje fibers

c)

the SA Node

d)

the AV Bundle

119.

What role do enzymes play in phagocytosis?

a)

they destroy/digest pathogens

b)

they contain lysosomes

c)

they are destroyed by pathogens

120.
What is the first barrier against disease?
a)
White blood cells
b)
Red blood cells
c)
the skin
d)
leucocytes 
121.

What micro-organism is responsible for causing disease?

a)

Pathogen

b)

Antibodies

c)

B-cells

d)

Lymphocyte

122.

Name 3 parts of the body that keep pathogens out ("The First Line of Defense").

a)

White blood cells, tears, T-cells

b)

Saliva, inflammation, Lymphocytes

c)

Skin, tears, saliva

d)

Mucous membranes, fever, B-cells

123.

Once the pathogen is in the phagocyte it is called:

a)

Lysosome

b)

Phagosome

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Immune cell

124.

What is the name of the substance spread by the Lysosome once entering the pathogen?

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Lysosomish

c)

Phagosome

d)

Lysocytosis

125.

The name of the micro-cell that enters the pathogen once engulfed by the Phagocyte is called:

a)

Debris

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Lysosome

126.

Exocytosis happens when:

a)

The phagocyte gets engulfed by another.

b)

The Lysozyme is spread into the pathogen or dead cell.

c)

The bacteria debris is released from the cell.

d)

The bacteria gets engulfed by the phagocyte.

127.

What are the two types of Phagocytes?

a)

Phagocytosis - Exocytosis

b)

Monocyte - neutrophil

c)

Nucleus -membrane

d)

Octocyte - Nuetrophi

128.

Immune responses are classified as...

a)

monocyte & neutrophil

b)

Chemical and physical

c)

Pizza & Burger

d)

Specific and non-specific

129.
The body's first line of defense against pathogens is
a)
barriers.
b)
inflammatory response.
c)
immune system.
d)
lymphatic system.
130.
Which of the following can cause infections to open cuts?
a)
Baceteria
b)
Viruses
c)
Fungi
d)
All of them
131.
What is one way a pathogen can enter the body?
a)
Nose
b)
Mouth
c)
Broken Skin
d)
All of the Aove

Similar Resources on Wayground

Exam 1 A&P Review

129 questions

Exam 1 A&P Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Quiz CNDT 1_2

127 questions

Quiz CNDT 1_2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Genetics

130 questions

Genetics

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Test 1 Review BIO 112

132 questions

Test 1 Review BIO 112

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Unit 2 Review Quiz

133 questions

Unit 2 Review Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

Bioquímica 2º parcial

133 questions

Bioquímica 2º parcial

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

ORDINARIO PATOLOGÍA

128 questions

ORDINARIO PATOLOGÍA

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Crop Improvement-II rabi crops

130 questions

Crop Improvement-II rabi crops

quiz

Worksheet

•

University