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WorksheetsRichland BIOL1406: Final Exam Review
Total questions: 135
Worksheet time: 4hrs 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
During proofreading, which of the following enzymes reads the DNA?
a)
primase
b)
topoisomerase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
helicase
2.
The ends of the linear chromosomes are maintained by
a)
helicase
b)
primase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
telomerase
3.
If the sequence of the 5'-3' strand is AATGCTAC, then the complementary sequence has the following sequence:
a)
3'-AATGCTAC-5'
b)
3'-CATCGTAA-5'
c)
3'-TTACGATG-5'
d)
3'-GTAGCATT-5'
4.
In eukaryotes, what is the DNA wrapped around?
a)
single-stranded binding proteins
b)
sliding clamp
c)
polymerase
d)
histones
5.
The experiments by Hershey and Chase helped confirm that DNA was the hereditary material on the basis of the finding that:
a)
radioactive phage were found in the pellet
b)
radioactive cells were found in the supernatant
c)
radioactive sulfur was found inside the cell
d)
radioactive phosphorus was found in the cell
6.
The initial mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA is ________.
a)
mismatch repair
b)
DNA polymerase proofreading
c)
nucleotide excision repair
d)
thymine dimers
7.
DNA double helix does not have which of the following?
a)
antiparallel configuration
b)
complementary base pairing
c)
major and minor grooves
d)
uracil
8.
Which of the following components is not involved during the formation of the replication fork?
a)
single-stranded binding proteins
b)
helicase
c)
origin of replication
d)
ligase
9.
Which of the following does the enzyme primase synthesize?
a)
DNA primer
b)
RNA primer
c)
Okazaki fragments
d)
phosphodiester linkage
10.
Meselson and Stahl's experiments proved that DNA replicates by which mode?
a)
conservative
b)
semi-conservative
c)
dispersive
d)
none of the above
11.
In which direction does DNA replication take place?
a)
5'-3'
b)
3'-5'
c)
5'
d)
3'
12.
Which is one of the seven characteristics that Mendel observed in pea plants?
a)
flower size
b)
seed texture
c)
leaf shape
d)
stem color
13.
In a mating between two individuals that are heterozygous for a recessive lethal allele that is expressed in utero, what genotypic ratio (homozygous dominant:heterozygous:homozygous recessive) would you expect to observe in the offspring?
a)
1:2:1
b)
3:1:1
c)
1:2:0
d)
0:2:1
14.
Mendel performed hybridizations by transferring pollen from the _______ of the male plant to the female ova.
a)
anther
b)
pistil
c)
stigma
d)
seed
15.
The ABO blood groups in humans are expressed as the IA, IB, and i alleles. The IA allele encodes the A blood group antigen, IB encodes B, and i encodes O. Both A and B are dominant to O. If a heterozygous blood type A parent (IAi) and a heterozygous blood type B parent (IBi) mate, one quarter of their offspring will have AB blood type (IAIB) in which both antigens are expressed equally. Therefore, ABO blood groups are an example of:
a)
multiple alleles and incomplete dominance
b)
codominance and incomplete dominance
c)
incomplete dominance only
d)
multiple alleles and codominance
16.
Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
a)
100 percent yellow-green seeds
b)
100 percent yellow seeds
c)
50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
d)
25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds
17.
If black and white true-breeding mice are mated and the result is all gray offspring, what inheritance pattern would this be indicative of?
a)
dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
incomplete dominance
18.
The observable traits expressed by an organism are described as its ________.
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
alleles
d)
zygote
19.
Consider a cross to investigate the pea pod texture trait, involving constricted or inflated pods. Mendel found that the traits behave according to a dominant/recessive pattern in which inflated pods were dominant. If you performed this cross and obtained 650 inflatedpod plants in the F2 generation, approximately how many constricted-pod plants would you expect to have?
a)
600
b)
165
c)
217
d)
468
20.
The forked line and probability methods make use of what probability rule?
a)
test cross
b)
product rule
c)
monohybrid rule
d)
sum rule
21.
Assuming no gene linkage, in a dihybrid cross of AABB x aabb with AaBb F1 heterozygotes, what is the ratio of the F1 gametes (AB, aB, Ab, ab) that will give rise to the F2 offspring?
a)
1:1:1:1
b)
1:3:3:1
c)
1:2:2:1
d)
4:3:2:1
22.
A recessive trait will be observed in individuals that are ________ for that trait.
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous or heterozygous
c)
homozygous
d)
diploid
23.
What processing step enhances the stability of pre-tRNAs and pre-rRNAs?
a)
methylation
b)
nucleotide modification
c)
cleavage
d)
splicing
24.
The AUC and AUA codons in mRNA both specify isoleucine. What feature of the genetic code explains this?
a)
complementarity
b)
nonsense codons
c)
universality
d)
degeneracy
25.
In any given species, there are at least how many types of aminoacyl tRNA synthetases?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
100
d)
200
26.
The RNA components of ribosomes are synthesized in the ________.
a)
cytoplasm
b)
nucleus
c)
nucleolus
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
27.
Which pre-mRNA processing step is important for initiating translation?
a)
poly-A tail
b)
RNA editing
c)
splicing
d)
7-methylguanosine cap
28.
Which feature of promoters can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a)
GC box
b)
TATA box
c)
octamer box
d)
-10 and -35 sequences
29.
The -10 and -35 regions of prokaryotic promoters are called consensus sequences because ________.
a)
they are identical in all bacterial species
b)
they are similar in all bacterial species
c)
they exist in all organisms
d)
they have the same function in all organisms
30.
How many nucleotides are in 12 mRNA codons?
a)
12
b)
24
c)
36
d)
48
31.
What transcripts will be most affected by low levels of α-amanitin?
a)
18S and 28S rRNAs
b)
pre-mRNAs
c)
5S rRNAs and tRNAs
d)
other small nuclear RNAs
32.
Which subunit of the E. coli polymerase confers specificity to transcription?
a)
α
b)
β
c)
β'
d)
σ
33.
GTP or ATP is produced during the conversion of ________.
a)
isocitrate into α-ketoglutarate
b)
succinyl CoA into succinate
c)
fumarate into malate
d)
malate into oxaloacetate
34.
During the second half of glycolysis, what occurs?
a)
ATP is used up.
b)
Fructose is split in two.
c)
ATP is made.
d)
Glucose becomes fructose.
35.
Beta-oxidation is ________.
a)
the breakdown of sugars
b)
the assembly of sugars
c)
the breakdown of fatty acids
d)
the removal of amino groups from amino acids
36.
The effect of high levels of ADP is to ________.
a)
increase the activity of the enzyme
b)
decrease the activity of the enzyme
c)
have no effect on the activity of the enzyme
d)
slow down the pathway
37.
A reducing chemical reaction ________.
a)
reduces the compound to a simpler form
b)
adds an electron to the substrate
c)
removes a hydrogen atom from the substrate
d)
is a catabolic reaction
38.
Which of the following fermentation methods can occur in animal skeletal muscles?
a)
lactic acid fermentation
b)
alcohol fermentation
c)
mixed acid fermentation
d)
propionic fermentation
39.
Chemiosmosis involves ________.
a)
the movement of electrons across the cell membrane
b)
the movement of hydrogen atoms across a mitochondrial membrane
c)
the movement of hydrogen ions across a mitochondrial membrane
d)
the movement of glucose through the cell membrane
40.
A major connection for sugars in glycolysis is ________.
a)
glucose-6-phosphate
b)
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
c)
dihydroxyacetone phosphate
d)
phosphoenolpyruvate
41.
What is removed from pyruvate during its conversion into an acetyl group?
a)
oxygen
b)
ATP
c)
B vitamin
d)
carbon dioxide
42.
What do the electrons added to NAD+ do?
a)
They become part of a fermentation pathway.
b)
They go to another pathway for ATP production.
c)
They energize the entry of the acetyl group into the citric acid cycle.
d)
They are converted to NADP.
43.
How many NADH molecules are produced on each turn of the citric acid cycle?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
44.
The control of which enzyme exerts the most control on glycolysis?
a)
hexokinase
b)
phoshpofructokinase
c)
glucose-6-phosphatase
d)
aldolase
45.
What compound receives electrons from NADH?
a)
FMN
b)
ubiquinone
c)
cytochrome C1
d)
oxygen
46.
The energy currency used by cells is ________.
a)
ATP
b)
ADP
c)
AMP
d)
adenosine
47.
Which statement correctly describes carbon fixation?
a)
the conversion of CO2 into an organic compound
b)
the use of RuBisCO to form 3-PGA
c)
the production of carbohydrate molecules from G3P
d)
the formation of RuBP from G3P molecules
48.
From which component of the light-dependent reactions does NADPH form most directly?
a)
photosystem II
b)
photosystem I
c)
cytochrome complex
d)
ATP synthase
49.
Which event in the formation of ATP comes before the others?
a)
hydrogen ions are pumped across a membrane from a compartment with low concentration into one with high concentration
b)
hydrogen ions flow through ATP synthase
c)
a water molecule is split releasing hydrogen ions, oxygen, and electrons
d)
the electron transport chain moves hydrogen ions into the thylakoid lumen
50.
Which statement about thylakoids in eukaryotes is not correct?
a)
Thylakoids are assembled into stacks.
b)
Thylakoids exist as a maze of folded membranes.
c)
The space surrounding thylakoids is called stroma.
d)
Thylakoids contain chlorophyll.
51.
In which compartment of the plant cell do the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis take place?
a)
thylakoid
b)
stroma
c)
outer membrane
d)
mesophyll
52.
Which of the following components is not used by both plants and cyanobacteria to carry out photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
chlorophyll
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
53.
Which molecule must enter the Calvin cycle continually for the light-independent reactions to take place?
a)
RuBisCO
b)
RuBP
c)
3-PGA
d)
CO2
54.
Which of the following structures is not a component of a photosystem?
a)
ATP synthase
b)
antenna molecule
c)
reaction center
d)
primary electron acceptor
55.
What two main products result from photosynthesis?
a)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
b)
chlorophyll and oxygen
c)
sugars/carbohydrates and oxygen
d)
sugars/carbohydrates and carbon dioxide
56.
Where in eukaryotic cells does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
thylakoid lumen
c)
chloroplast stroma
d)
granum
57.
Which order of molecular conversions is correct for the Calvin cycle?
a)
RuBP + G3P → 3-PGA → sugar
b)
RuBisCO → CO2 → RuBP → G3P
c)
RuBP + CO2 → [RuBisCO] 3-PGA → G3P
d)
CO2 → 3-PGA → RuBP → G3P
58.
The thylakoid membrane has a large surface area, providing space for a large number of electron transporting molecules and two types of protein complexes called?
a)
photosystems.
b)
transport proteins
c)
proteins
d)
photo proteins
59.
In which photosystem does the electron transport begin?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
60.
This light energy hits photosystem 2, causes a water molecule to split – releasing what?
a)
neutron, hydrogen ion, oxygen
b)
oxygen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen
c)
electron, neutron, proton
d)
electron, hydrogen ion, oxygen
61.
What is the name of the enzyme that fixes carbon in photosynthesis?
a)
Rubisco
b)
NADPH reductase
c)
Carbon Fixase
d)
Calvinase
62.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the Calvin Cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
63.
What happens to NADPH and ATP after they are used in the Calvin Cycle?
a)
they recycle back to the light reactions
b)
they are used to make G3P
64.
Stacks of disk shapes that contain chlorophyll within the chloroplast are
a)
stroma
b)
mitochondria
c)
grana or granum
d)
thylakoid
65.
Listed below are the three parts of the Calvin Cycle except:
a)
RuBP regeneration
b)
Carbon dioxide fixation
c)
Reduction
d)
Glycolysis
66.
Chlorophyll absorbs ________ light.
a)
red - blue
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
light greens
67.
Which transport mechanism can bring whole cells into a cell?
a)
pinocytosis
b)
phagocytosis
c)
facilitated transport
d)
primary active transport
68.
In what important way does receptor-mediated endocytosis differ from phagocytosis?
a)
It transports only small amounts of fluid.
b)
It does not involve the pinching off of membrane.
c)
It brings in only a specifically targeted substance.
d)
It brings substances into the cell, while phagocytosis removes substances.
69.
What problem is faced by organisms that live in fresh water?
a)
Their bodies tend to take in too much water.
b)
They have no way of controlling their tonicity.
c)
Only salt water poses problems for animals that live in it.
d)
Their bodies tend to lose too much water to their environment.
70.
Which characteristic of a phospholipid contributes to the fluidity of the membrane?
a)
its head
b)
cholesterol
c)
a saturated fatty acid tail
d)
double bonds in the fatty acid tail
71.
How does the sodium-potassium pump make the interior of the cell negatively charged?
a)
by expelling anions
b)
by pulling in anions
c)
by expelling more sodium cations than potassium cations are taken in
d)
by taking in and expelling an equal number of cations
72.
The principal force driving movement in diffusion is the __________.
a)
temperature
b)
particle size
c)
concentration gradient
d)
membrane surface area
73.
What is the combination of an electrical gradient and a concentration gradient called?
a)
potential gradient
b)
electrical potential
c)
concentration potential
d)
electrochemical gradient
74.
Water moves via osmosis _________.
a)
throughout the cytoplasm
b)
from an area with a high concentration of other solutes to a lower one
c)
from an area with a high concentration of water to one of lower concentration
d)
from an area with a low concentration of water to one of higher concentration
75.
Which plasma membrane component can be either found on its surface or embedded in the membrane structure?
a)
protein
b)
cholesterol
c)
carbohydrate
d)
phospholipid
76.
What happens to the membrane of a vesicle after exocytosis?
a)
It leaves the cell.
b)
It is disassembled by the cell.
c)
It fuses with and becomes part of the plasma membrane.
d)
It is used again in another exocytosis event.
77.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates attached to the exterior of cell membranes?
a)
identification of the cell
b)
flexibility of the membrane
c)
strengthening the membrane
d)
channels through membrane
78.
Active transport must function continuously because __________.
a)
plasma membranes wear out
b)
not all membranes are amphiphilic
c)
facilitated transport opposes active transport
d)
diffusion is constantly moving solutes in opposite directions
79.
Which of the following do not play a role in intracellular movement?
a)
microfilaments and intermediate filaments
b)
microfilaments and microtubules
c)
intermediate filaments and microtubules
d)
only intermediate filaments
80.
Which of the following is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondrion
c)
vacuole
d)
ribosomes
81.
The ________ is the basic unit of life.
a)
organism
b)
cell
c)
tissue
d)
organ
82.
Which of the following have the ability to disassemble and reform quickly?
a)
microfilaments and intermediate filaments
b)
microfilaments and microtubules
c)
intermediate filaments and microtubules
d)
only intermediate filaments
83.
In plant cells, the function of the lysosomes is carried out by __________.
a)
vacuoles
b)
peroxisomes
c)
ribosomes
d)
nuclei
84.
Which of the following sequences correctly lists in order the steps involved in the incorporation of a proteinaceous molecule within a cell?
a)
synthesis of the protein on the ribosome; modification in the Golgi apparatus; packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum; tagging in the vesicle
b)
synthesis of the protein on the lysosome; tagging in the Golgi; packaging in the vesicle; distribution in the endoplasmic reticulum
c)
synthesis of the protein on the ribosome; modification in the endoplasmic reticulum; tagging in the Golgi; distribution via the vesicle
d)
synthesis of the protein on the lysosome; packaging in the vesicle; distribution via the Golgi; tagging in the endoplasmic reticulum
85.
Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system (which one doesn't work directly with the others)?
a)
mitochondrion
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
lysosome
86.
When viewing a specimen through a light microscope, scientists use ________ to distinguish the individual components of cells.
a)
a beam of electrons
b)
radioactive isotopes
c)
special stains
d)
high temperatures
87.
Prokaryotes depend on ________ to obtain some materials and to get rid of wastes.
a)
ribosomes
b)
flagella
c)
cell divison
d)
diffusion
88.
Which of the following is most likely to have the greatest concentration of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
a)
a cell that secretes enzymes
b)
a cell that destroys pathogens
c)
a cell that makes steroid hormones
d)
a cell that engages in photosynthesis
89.
What factor limits cell size?
a)
protein synthesis
b)
surcae area to volume ratio
c)
amount of cytoplasm
d)
intermediate filaments
90.
True or False: Cells want a low surface area to volume ratio
a)
True
b)
False
91.
True or False: Prokaryotic cells do not have genetic material
a)
True
b)
False
92.
Which type of microscopy produces a 3D image of the surface fo a specimen?
a)
Light Microscopy
b)
Scanning Electron Microscopy
c)
Transmission Microscopy
93.
Which type of microscopy allows you to study the internal structure of a specimen?
a)
Light Microscopy
b)
Scanning Electron Microscopy
c)
Transmission Microscopy
94.
Which eukaryotic cell cycle event is missing in binary fission?
a)
cell growth
b)
DNA duplication
c)
karyokinesis
d)
cytokinesis
95.
Attachment of the mitotic spindle fibers to the kinetochores is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
prometaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
96.
An organism’s traits are determined by the specific combination of inherited _____.
a)
cells
b)
genes
c)
proteins
d)
chromatids
97.
The fusing of Golgi vesicles at the metaphase plate of dividing plant cells forms what structure?
a)
cell plate
b)
actin ring
c)
cleavage furrow
d)
mitotic spindle
98.
The mitotic spindles arise from which cell structure?
a)
centromere
b)
centrosome
c)
kinetochore
d)
cleavage furrow
99.
At which of the cell cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence?
a)
G1 checkpoint
b)
G2 checkpoint
c)
M checkpoint
d)
G0 checkpoint
100.
The chromosomes become visible under a light microscope during which stage of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
prometaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
101.
Which molecule is a Cdk inhibitor that is controlled by p53?
a)
cyclin
b)
anti-kinase
c)
Rb
d)
p21
102.
The first level of DNA organization in a eukaryotic cell is maintained by which molecule?
a)
cohesin
b)
condensin
c)
chromatin
d)
histone
103.
If the M checkpoint is not cleared, what stage of mitosis will be blocked?
a)
prophase
b)
prometaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
104.
Which protein is a positive regulator that phosphorylates other proteins when activated?
a)
p53
b)
retinoblastoma protein (Rb)
c)
cyclin
d)
cyclin-dependent kinase
105.
What is the main prerequisite for clearance at the G2 checkpoint?
a)
cell has reached a sufficient size
b)
an adequate stockpile of nucleotides
c)
accurate and complete DNA replication
d)
proper attachment of mitotic spindle fibers to kinetochores
106.
Unpacking of chromosomes and the formation of a new nuclear envelope is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
a)
prometaphase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
107.
Separation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
a)
prometaphase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
108.
Which negative regulatory molecule can trigger cell suicide (apoptosis) if vital cell cycle events do not occur?
a)
p53
b)
p21
c)
retinoblastoma protein (Rb)
d)
cyclin-dependent kinase
109.
Identical copies of chromatin held together by cohesin at the centromere are called _____. Answer
a)
histones
b)
nucleosomes
c)
chromatin
d)
sister chromatids
110.
Many of the negative regulator proteins of the cell cycle were discovered in what type of cells?
a)
gametes
b)
cells in G0
c)
cancer cells
d)
stem cells
111.
Chromosomes are duplicated during what stage of the cell cycle?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
prophase
d)
prometaphase
112.
A diploid cell has_______ the number of chromosomes as a haploid cell.
a)
one-fourth
b)
half
c)
twice
d)
four times
113.
FtsZ proteins direct the formation of a _______ that will eventually form the new cell walls of the daughter cells.
a)
contractile ring
b)
cell plate
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
septum
114.
Which of the following is the best way to judge the relative activation energies between two given chemical reactions?
a)
Compare the ΔG values between the two reactions
b)
Compare their reaction rates
c)
Compare their ideal environmental conditions
d)
Compare the spontaneity between the two reactions 11.32% 539 users answered this question before you. 47% correct 47% Correct 49% Incorrect 3% Don't Know
115.
Which of the following molecules is likely to have the most potential energy?
a)
sucrose
b)
ATP
c)
glucose
d)
ADP
116.
Label each of the following systems as high or low entropy: i. the instant that a perfume bottle is sprayed compared with 30 seconds later when it has settled, ii. an old 1950s car compared with a brand new computerized car with more parts, and iii. a living cell compared with a dead cell.
a)
i. low, ii. high, iii. Low
b)
i. low, ii. high, iii. High
c)
i. high, ii. low, iii. High
d)
i. high, ii. low, iii. Low
117.
Which of the following is not true about enzymes:
a)
They increase activation energy of reactions
b)
They are usually made of amino acids
c)
They lower the activation energy of chemical reactions
d)
Each one is specific to the particular substrate(s) to which it binds
118.
The energy released by the hydrolysis of ATP is
a)
primarily stored between the alpha and beta phosphates
b)
equal to −57 kcal/mol
c)
harnessed as heat energy by the cell to perform work
d)
providing energy to coupled reactions
119.
DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to synthesize complementary strands, and releasing the parent and daughter DNA so now there are two copies of the original strand. Which of the following accurately describes this process?
a)
This is an anabolic process
b)
This is a catabolic process
c)
This is both anabolic and catabolic
d)
This is a metabolic process but is neither anabolic nor catabolic
120.
Which of the following comparisons or contrasts between endergonic and exergonic reactions is false?
a)
Endergonic reactions have a positive ΔG and exergonic reactions have a negative ΔG
b)
Endergonic reactions consume energy and exergonic reactions release energy
c)
Both endergonic and exergonic reactions require a small amount of energy to overcome an activation barrier
d)
Endergonic reactions take place slowly and exergonic reactions take place quickly
121.
Energy is stored long-term in the bonds of _____ and used short-term to perform work from a(n) _____ molecule.
a)
ATP : glucose
b)
an anabolic molecule : catabolic molecule
c)
glucose : ATP
d)
a catabolic molecule : anabolic molecule
122.
Which statement is true according to the image?
a)
A: endergonic; B: exergonic
b)
A: exothermic; B: endothermic
c)
A: exergonic; B: endergonic
d)
A: endothermic; B: exothermic
123.
Which statement is true according to the image?
a)
The red curve shows the same reaction as the black curve when catalyzed by an enzyme
b)
The black curve shows the same reaction as the red curve when catalyzed by an enzyme
c)
More activation energy is required in the reaction represented by the red curve
d)
The two curves above are not related
124.
A diploid, multicellular life-cycle stage that gives rise to haploid cells by meiosis is called a ________.
a)
sporophyte
b)
gametophyte
c)
spore
d)
gamete
125.
Which type of life cycle has both a haploid and diploid multicellular stage?
a)
asexual
b)
diploid-dominant
c)
haploid-dominant
d)
alternation of generations
126.
The part of meiosis that is similar to mitosis is ________.
a)
meiosis I
b)
anaphase I
c)
meiosis II
d)
interkinesis
127.
At which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids separated from each other?
a)
prophase I
b)
prophase II
c)
anaphase I
d)
anaphase II
128.
Fungi typically display which type of life cycle?
a)
diploid-dominant
b)
haploid-dominant
c)
alternation of generations
d)
asexual
129.
If a muscle cell of a typical organism has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in a gamete of that same organism?
a)
8
b)
16
c)
32
d)
64
130.
At metaphase I, homologous chromosomes are connected only at what structures?
a)
chiasmata
b)
recombination nodules
c)
microtubules
d)
kinetochores
131.
What is a likely evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
a)
Sexual reproduction involves fewer steps.
b)
There is a lower chance of using up the resources in a given environment.
c)
Sexual reproduction results in variation in the offspring.
d)
Sexual reproduction is more costeffective.
132.
What structure is most important in forming the tetrads?
a)
centromere
b)
synaptonemal complex
c)
chiasma
d)
kinetochore
133.
Meiosis produces ________ daughter cells.
a)
two haploid
b)
two diploid
c)
four haploid
d)
four diploid
134.
Which of the following is not true in regard to crossover?
a)
Spindle microtubules guide the transfer of DNA across the synaptonemal complex.
b)
Non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material.
c)
Chiasmata are formed.
d)
Recombination nodules mark the crossover point.
135.
What phase of mitotic interphase is missing from meiotic interkinesis?
a)
G0 phase
b)
G1 phase
c)
S phase
d)
G3 phase
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