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WorksheetsIB Biology - Unit 3 Genetics Revision
Total questions: 138
Worksheet time: 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
State what a heritable factor that consists of a length of DNA and influences a specific characteristic is
a)
Chromosome
b)
Centromere
c)
Gene
d)
Chromatid
2.
State the name of the specific position a gene occupies on one type of chromosome
a)
Centromere
b)
Allele
c)
Centrosome
d)
Locus
3.
State what the various specific forms of a gene are called
a)
Chromatids
b)
Centromeres
c)
Homologous
d)
Alleles
4.
Suggest how alleles differ from each other
a)
They are found on different homologous chromosomes
b)
They have different numbers of DNA bases
c)
They are found at different gene loci
d)
They have one or a few different DNA bases
5.
State how new alleles are formed
a)
Mutations
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Mitosis
d)
Meiosis
6.
State the name for positions in a gene where more than one base may be present
a)
Single base polymorphism
b)
Single nucleotide polymorphism
c)
Multiple nucleotide polymorphism
d)
Multiple base polymorphism
7.
State the name of the type of mutation where one base is replaced by another
a)
Base switch
b)
Base substitution
c)
Base replacement
d)
Base transfer
8.
Describe the causes of sickle cell anemia
a)
Malaria transmitted by mosquitoes
b)
Base deletion that changes the polypeptide sequence in haemoglobin
c)
Base insertion that changes the polypeptide sequence in haemoglobin
d)
Base substitution that changes the polypeptide sequence in haemoglobin
9.
Suggest why the sickle cell allele has remained in certain populations
a)
Having one sickle cell allele does not result in anemia symptoms
b)
Having one sickle cell allele increases oxygen transport
c)
Having one sickle cell allele protects against malaria
d)
People with the sickle cell allele are more likely to reproduce
10.
State the protein affected in sickle-cell anemia
a)
Fibrinogen
b)
Haemoglobin
c)
Immunoglobulin
d)
Amylase
11.
State the name for the whole genetic information of an organism
a)
Proteome
b)
Genome
c)
DNA
d)
Chromosome
12.
State what the genome of a plant consists of
a)
DNA in chromosomes in the nucleus only
b)
DNA on chromosomes plus DNA in mitochondria
c)
DNA on chromosomes plus DNA in chloroplasts
d)
DNA on chromosomes plus DNA in mitochondria and chloroplasts
13.
State what the genome of an animal consists of
a)
DNA in chromosomes in the nucleus only
b)
DNA on chromosomes plus DNA in mitochondria and rough endoplasmic reticulum
c)
DNA on chromosomes plus DNA in mitochondria and lysosomes
d)
DNA on chromosomes plus DNA in mitochondria
14.
State what the genome of a prokaryote consists of
a)
DNA in the circular chromosome plus any DNA in mitochondria
b)
DNA in the circular chromosome plus any plasmids that are present
c)
DNA in the linear chromosome plus any plasmids that are present
d)
DNA in the circular chromosome plus any DNA in mitochondria and any plasmids that are present
15.
State the name of the international collaboration that aimed to sequence the entire base sequence of human genes
a)
Human Genome Programme
b)
Human Genome Project
c)
Human Gene Project
d)
Human Gene Programme
16.
Identify which of these was not an outcome of The Human Genome Project
a)
Finding evidence for evolutionary relationships
b)
Improvements in base sequencing techniques
c)
Cloning adult cells by somatic-cell nuclear transfer
d)
Finding mutations and genes that cause diseases
17.
State the shape and number of chromosomes in a prokaryote
a)
Multiple chromosomes consisting of linear DNA molecules
b)
Multiple chromosomes consisting of circular DNA molecules
c)
One chromosome consisting of a linear DNA molecule
d)
One chromosome consisting of a circular DNA molecule
18.
State the name of the small extra DNA molecules that are commonly found in prokaryotes
a)
Centrosomes
b)
Plasmids
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Chromatin
19.
Identify which statement is not true about plasmids
a)
They are not always replicated at the same time as the chromosome
b)
They are commonly found in prokaryotes
c)
They can be passed between cells
d)
They contain genes essential for life processes
20.
State the name of the technique used by John Cairns to measure the length of DNA molecules
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
c)
Autoradiography
d)
X-ray diffraction
21.
Identify which of the following steps is not present in autoradiography
a)
Cell walls are digested using lysozyme enzyme
b)
Left overnight for tritium to decay and react with the film
c)
Cells grown in a culture containing a radioactive isotope of hydrogen
d)
Film of photographic emulsion is applied
22.
State the shape and number of chromosomes in a eukaryote
a)
Linear DNA molecules not associated with histone proteins
b)
Circular DNA molecules associated with histone proteins
c)
Circular DNA molecules not associated with histone proteins
d)
Linear DNA molecules associated with histone proteins
23.
Identify the correct statement about homologous chromosomes
a)
Carry the same sequence of genes and alleles
b)
Carry the same sequence of genes but not necessarily the same alleles
c)
Carry a different sequence of genes
d)
Carry the same sequence of alleles but not necessarily the same genes
24.
State what is the same all parts of homologous chromosomes
a)
Deletions
b)
Base pair sequence
c)
Sequence of genes
d)
Alleles
25.
Identify the correct statement about chromosomes in eukaryotes
a)
Individuals from one species will have different numbers of chromosomes
b)
They are of equal length
c)
They have the centromere in the same position
d)
There are different chromosomes that carry different genes
26.
State the organism that you would expect to have the largest genome size
a)
Fruit fly
b)
Human
c)
Woodland plant
d)
E. coli bacteria
27.
Suggest why genome size does not always correlate with complexity of the organism
a)
The amount of functional DNA and gene duplication varies
b)
DNA in prokaryotes is not in the nucleus it can be longer
c)
There can be many smaller chromosomes or fewer larger chromosomes
d)
Plant cells are larger so will have more DNA than animal cells
28.
State what is true of haploid nuclei
a)
Contain only autosomes
b)
Have pairs of homologous chromosomes
c)
Have one chromosome of each pair
d)
Are found in somatic cells
29.
State what is true of diploid nuclei
a)
Contain only autosomes
b)
Are found in gametes
c)
Have pairs of homologous chromosomes
d)
Have one chromosome of each pair
30.
State the diploid number in humans
a)
46
b)
23
c)
48
d)
64
31.
If a chimpanzee skin cell has 24 pairs of chromosomes, state how many chromosomes will be present in a chimpanzee egg cell
a)
48 chromosomes
b)
24 chromosomes
c)
12 pairs of chromosomes
d)
12 chromosomes
32.
A labrador dog has 78 chromosomes. Suggest how many chromosomes a Chihuahua has
a)
80
b)
76
c)
78
d)
39
33.
State what a fundamental characteristic feature of members of the same species is
a)
Reproduce together
b)
Always have the same alleles
c)
Chromosome number
d)
Live in the same area
34.
Humans have 46 chromosomes and chimpanzees have 48. Suggest what has happened during our evolution from a common ancestor
a)
2 pairs of chromosomes fused together in humans
b)
1 pair of chromosomes split into 2 in humans
c)
The common ancestor reproduced with a similar but different species to produce humans
d)
1 pair of chromosomes fused together in humans
35.
State the name of chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes
a)
Somatosomes
b)
Centrosomes
c)
Normosomes
d)
Autosomes
36.
Identify the sex chromosomes
a)
Y and Z
b)
W and X
c)
A and B
d)
X and Y
37.
Identify the genotype of a male
a)
YY
b)
XX
c)
XXY
d)
XY
38.
Describe how karyograms are arranged
a)
In homologous pairs of decreasing length and with the sex chromosomes at the end
b)
In homologous pairs of increasing length and with the sex chromosomes at the end
c)
In homologous pairs of decreasing length and with the sex chromosomes at the start
d)
In homologous pairs of increasing length and with the sex chromosomes at the start
39.
Describe what a karyogram is
a)
An image of the alleles and genes present in an organism
b)
A list of the characteristics of an organism as determined by their genes
c)
An image of the stained chromosomes of an organism
d)
A list of the alleles present in an organism
40.
State what karyograms can be used for
a)
Determining gender and phenotypic characteristics such as eye colour
b)
Determining gender and diagnosing certain genetic disorders
c)
Determining phenotypic characteristics and genetic disorders
d)
Only to determine gender
41.
State a genetic disorder that can be diagnosed using a karyogram
a)
Huntington's Disease
b)
Cystic Fibrosis
c)
Down Syndrome
d)
Haemophilia
42.
Outline the process of meiosis
a)
One haploid nucleus divides to produce two diploid nuclei
b)
One diploid nucleus divides to produce two haploid nuclei
c)
One haploid nucleus divides to produce four diploid nuclei
d)
One diploid nucleus divides to produce four haploid nuclei
43.
Identify the statement that is true about meiosis
a)
Meiosis halves the chromosome number to allow a sexual life cycle with fusion of gametes
b)
Meiosis maintains chromosome number to allow a sexual life cycle with fusion of gametes
c)
Meiosis produces new somatic cells for growth and repair
d)
Meiosis produces genetically identical haploid gametes
44.
State a characteristic of the pairs of sister chromatids present in meiosis
a)
They result from replication of DNA before meiosis
b)
They are only present in meiosis II
c)
They split apart in metaphase I
d)
They are only present in meiosis I
45.
State the name of the DNA structures produced in interphase before meiosis
a)
Bivalents
b)
Non-sister chromatids
c)
Sister chromatids
d)
Homologous chromosomes
46.
State the stage of meiosis where crossing over occurs
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Prophase I
47.
State the name of the process by which homologous chromosomes pair up
a)
Crossing Over
b)
Random Orientation
c)
Chiasma
d)
Synapsis
48.
State the name of the structure formed when homologous chromosomes pair up
a)
Sister chromatid
b)
Synapsis
c)
Chiasmata
d)
Bivalent
49.
Describe the result of crossing over between non-sister chromatids
a)
Promotes variation by allowing different homologous pairs to separate independently and randomly
b)
Separates sister chromatids
c)
Separates homologous chromosomes to reduce the chromosome number
d)
Promotes variation by exchanging alleles to produce new combinations
50.
Describe the nature of how homologous pairs of chromosomes line up in metaphase I
a)
The orientation of one pair is dependent on other pairs
b)
Orientation of each homologous pair is random and independent of other pairs
c)
Orientation is determined in interphase
d)
All maternal chromosomes line up on one side of the cell equator
51.
Identify what happens during anaphase I of meiosis
a)
Chromosomes uncoil
b)
Sister chromatids separate
c)
Homologous chromosomes line up at the cell equator
d)
Homologous chromosomes separate
52.
State in which division of meiosis chromosome number is halved
a)
Meiosis II
b)
Meiosis I
53.
State the name of the points where non-sister chromatids cross over
a)
Chiasma
b)
Bivalents
c)
Centromeres
d)
Synapsis
54.
Identify the stage in meiosis where homologous chromosomes line up at the cell equator
a)
Prophase I
b)
Telophase I
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Metaphase I
55.
Identify the stage in meiosis where chromosomes condense for the second time and are visible as 2 chromatids
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Telophase II
d)
Anaphase II
56.
Identify the stage in meiosis where 2 haploid nuclei form
a)
Telophase II
b)
Anaphase I
c)
Telophase I
d)
Anaphase II
57.
Identify the stage in meiosis where 4 haploid nuclei form
a)
Anaphase II
b)
Telophase II
c)
Telophase I
d)
Anaphase I
58.
Identify the stage of meiosis when homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles
a)
Prophase I
b)
Anaphase I
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Prophase II
59.
Identify the stage of meiosis when centromeres divide and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles
a)
Metaphase II
b)
Telophase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Anaphase II
60.
State a potential source of chromosomes used for prenatal karyotype diagnosis
a)
Fetal hair root cells
b)
Cells from chorionic villi
c)
Mother's lymphocytes
d)
Mother's cheek cells
61.
Name the method used to obtain fetal cells for karyotype analysis that involves inserted a needle through the abdomen wall
a)
Fetal cell extraction
b)
Amniocentesis
c)
Ultrasound
d)
Chorionic villus sampling
62.
The risk of miscarriage with amniocentesis is 1%. For chorionic villus sampling it is 2%. Suggest why individuals may still choose chorionic villus sampling
a)
It is less intrusive
b)
It can be done earlier in pregnancy
c)
It does not require a trained professional
d)
It does not require specialist equipment
63.
Identify the process(es) that promote genetic variation
a)
Crossing over, random orientation and fusion of gametes from different parents
b)
Crossing over and random orientation
c)
Crossing over only
d)
Random orientation and fusion of gametes from different parents
64.
State what causes the presence of 3 copies of chromosome 21 in Down Syndrome
a)
Crossing over
b)
Allele change
c)
Gene mutation
d)
Nondisjunction
65.
State the chromosome number in a human gamete with nondisjunction
a)
45
b)
47
c)
23
d)
24
66.
Name the process by which chromosome fail to separate correctly
a)
Synapsis
b)
Random orientation
c)
Disjunction
d)
Nondisjunction
67.
Name the scientist that discovered the principles of inheritance after crossing large numbers of peas
a)
Mendel
b)
Mendeleev
c)
Morgan
d)
Franklin
68.
State the benefit of taking multiple replicates when experimenting
a)
Improves precision
b)
Improves accuracy
c)
Ensures validity
d)
Improves reliability
69.
State the correct characteristics of gametes
a)
Haploid, one allele of each gene, formed by meiosis
b)
Haploid, one allele from each gene, formed by mitosis
c)
Diploid, one allele of each gene, formed by meiosis
d)
Haploid, two alleles of each gene, formed by meiosis
70.
State the correct outcome after the fusion of two gametes
a)
Haploid zygote with 2 alleles for each gene
b)
Diploid zygote with 2 alleles for each gene
c)
Haploid zygote with 1 allele for each gene
d)
Diploid zygote with 1 allele for each gene
71.
State the term used for the combination of alleles inherited for a particular gene
a)
Genus
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Genome
72.
State the term used to describe the observable traits in an individual
a)
Genotype
b)
Monohybrid Cross
c)
Heterozygous
d)
Phenotype
73.
State the name of the genetic cross that examines the possible outcomes for one gene
a)
Punnett Grid
b)
Genotype
c)
Dihybrid Cross
d)
Monohybrid Cross
74.
State the name of the grid used to predict outcomes from genetic crosses
a)
Genotype
b)
Punnett Grid
c)
Dihybrid Cross
d)
Monohybrid Cross
75.
State the name for an allele that is expressed if only one copy is present
a)
Recessive
b)
Codominant
c)
Sex-linked
d)
Dominant
76.
State the name for an allele that is only expressed if two copies are present
a)
Dominant
b)
Codominant
c)
Recessive
d)
Sex-linked
77.
State the name for alleles that both have an effect on phenotype if present together
a)
Codominant
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Homozygous
d)
Corecessive
78.
State the name for a genotype where both alleles present are identical
a)
Homologous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Homozygous
d)
Homogenous
79.
State the name for a genotype where the two alleles are different
a)
Homozygous
b)
Homologous
c)
Homogenous
d)
Heterozygous
80.
State the possible blood group phenotypes
a)
A, B, AB, O
b)
A, B, O
c)
A, B
d)
AB, O
81.
State the possible genotypes of an individual who is blood type A
a)
IᴬIᴬ only
b)
Iᴬi only
c)
IᴬIᴬ or IᴬIᴮ
d)
IᴬIᴬ or Iᴬi
82.
State the possible genotypes of an individual who is blood type O
a)
ii only
b)
ii, Iᴬi, or Iᴮi
c)
Iᴬi, or Iᴮi
d)
Not possible
83.
A man with blood group O and a woman with blood group AB have children. State the possible blood group(s) of the children
a)
Groups A or B only
b)
Group O only
c)
Group AB only
d)
Groups O, A, B or AB
84.
A child has blood type A. The father has blood type B. State the possible blood type(s) of the mother
a)
Group A or AB
b)
Group A only
c)
Group AB only
d)
Groups O, A, B or AB
85.
State what the ABO blood groups are an example of
a)
Sex-linked and multiple alleles
b)
Codominance and 2 alleles
c)
Sex-linked and 2 alleles
d)
Codominance and multiple alleles
86.
State the statistical test used to assess whether predicted outcomes from genetic crosses match with observed data
a)
Standard deviation
b)
Spearman's Rank
c)
Chi-squared test
d)
Pearson correlation coefficient
87.
State the phenotypic ratio expected if 2 heterozygous parents are crossed
a)
1:0
b)
3:1
c)
1:1
d)
2:1
88.
State the phenotypic ratio expected if 1 heterozygous parent is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual
a)
1:0
b)
3:1
c)
1:1
d)
2:1
89.
State the phenotypic ratio expected if a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive parent are crossed
a)
1:1
b)
1:0
c)
2:1
d)
3:1
90.
State the offspring expected if a homozygous individual for the codominant red flower allele is crossed with a homozygous white flower individual
a)
Offspring plants are not viable and have no flowers
b)
All offspring plants have pink flowers
c)
Each offspring plant has a mixture or red and white flowers
d)
50% of offspring have red flowers and 50% have white
91.
State the cause of most genetic diseases
a)
Recessive alleles of sex-linked genes
b)
Dominant alleles of sex-linked genes
c)
Dominant alleles of autosomal genes
d)
Recessive alleles of autosomal genes
92.
Identify which genetic disease is autosomal recessive
a)
Huntington's Disease
b)
Sickle-cell Anemia
c)
Haemophilia
d)
Cystic Fibrosis
93.
Identify which genetic disease is autosomal dominant
a)
Haemophilia
b)
Huntington's Disease
c)
Sickle-cell Anemia
d)
Cystic Fibrosis
94.
Identify which genetic disease is sex-linked
a)
Cystic Fibrosis
b)
Sickle-cell Anemia
c)
Huntington's Disease
d)
Haemophilia
95.
Identify which genetic disease is codominant
a)
Huntington's Disease
b)
Sickle-cell Anemia
c)
Cystic Fibrosis
d)
Haemophilia
96.
State the name for sex-specific patterns of inheritance due to a gene found on a sex chromosome (allosome)
a)
Sex-linkage
b)
Gender-linkage
c)
XX-linkage
d)
XY-linkage
97.
Suggest why males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked condition
a)
The X chromosome is stronger than the Y chromosome
b)
Males do not have a second X chromosome to mask the effect of one faulty allele
c)
The Y chromosome contains more genes so there is a greater chance of harmful mutations
d)
Males have more sex chromosomes
98.
Identify the genotype of a male with red-green colorblindness
a)
XᵇY
b)
XᴮY
c)
XYᵇ
d)
XᵇXᵇ
99.
Identify the genotype of female who is carrier for haemophilia
a)
XᴴXʰ
b)
XᴴXᴴ
c)
XʰY
d)
XʰXʰ
100.
Identify the genotype of an individual who is sickle-cell trait
a)
HbˢHbˢ
b)
Ss
c)
HbᴬHbˢ
d)
HbᴬHbᴬ
101.
State the name of the charts used to deduce the pattern of inheritance in families
a)
Gene Charts
b)
Genetic Charts
c)
Pedigree Charts
d)
Allele Charts
102.
State how an affected male would be shown on a pedigree chart
a)
Shaded circle
b)
Unshaded circle
c)
Unshaded square
d)
Shaded square
103.
State how an unaffected female would be shown on a pedigree chart
a)
Unshaded circle
b)
Shaded square
c)
Unshaded square
d)
Shaded circle
104.
Suggest how an X-linked recessive condition could be identified from a pedigree chart
a)
100% of daughters from an affected father have the condition
b)
Two affected parents can produce unaffected offspring
c)
Two unaffected parents can produce affected offspring
d)
100% of sons of an affected female have the condition
105.
Suggest how an X-linked dominant condition could be identified from a pedigree chart
a)
100% of daughters from an affected father have the condition
b)
100% of sons of an affected female have the condition
c)
Two affected parents can produce unaffected offspring
d)
Two unaffected parents can produce affected offspring
106.
Suggest how an autosomal recessive condition could be identified from a pedigree chart
a)
100% of daughters from an affected father have the condition
b)
Two unaffected parents can produce affected offspring
c)
100% of sons of an affected female have the condition
d)
Two affected parents can produce unaffected offspring
107.
Suggest how an autosomal dominant condition could be identified from a pedigree chart
a)
100% of sons of an affected female have the condition
b)
Two unaffected parents can produce affected offspring
c)
Two affected parents can produce unaffected offspring
d)
100% of daughters from an affected father have the condition
108.
Identify which of the following statements is not true about radiation and mutagenic chemicals
a)
Only cause harmful mutations
b)
Increase mutation rate
c)
Include tobacco smoke, UV rays and X-rays
d)
Can cause genetic disease and cancer
109.
Identify which statement about mutations is not true
a)
They only occur in gamete-producing cells
b)
Only mutations in gamete producing cells are passed onto offspring
c)
They can be caused by radiation and mutagenic chemicals
d)
They are random changes in the base sequence of DNA
110.
State the name of the process used to separate proteins or fragments of DNA according to size
a)
Autoradiography
b)
DNA profiling
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Gel electrophoresis
111.
Identify the properties used to separate fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis
a)
Size and proportion of carbon present
b)
Size and charge
c)
Shape and charge
d)
Size and shape
112.
State the process used to amplify small amounts of DNA
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Autoradiography
c)
DNA profiling
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
113.
State the technique used to compare different DNA
a)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
b)
Autoradiography
c)
DNA profiling
d)
Gel electrophoresis
114.
Suggest which of the following is not a reason why DNA may be amplified using the polymerase chain reaction
a)
For DNA found in fossils
b)
For DNA found in red blood cells at a crime scene
c)
For DNA found in semen at a crime scene
d)
For DNA for paternity testing
115.
Identify what PCR is used for
a)
Amplify small amounts of DNA
b)
Separate DNA and proteins by size and charge
c)
Compare DNA samples
d)
Genetically modify DNA
116.
Suggest why DNA profiling for paternity testing is more complicated than for forensic investigations.
a)
There are ethical implications with taking DNA from a living person
b)
It is difficult to extract DNA from a child
c)
Every band in the child's profile must be matched to either the father or mother
d)
DNA from a child is smaller so more PCR must be completed
117.
State how genetic modification is carried out
a)
Gene transfer within a species
b)
Gene transfer between species
c)
Embryonic division
d)
Somatic cell nuclear transfer
118.
Identify the enzyme used to cut out a gene from an organism
a)
Restriction endonuclease
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
Reverse transcriptase
119.
Identify the enzyme used to make complementary DNA from mRNA
a)
Restriction endonuclease
b)
Reverse transcriptase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
DNA ligase
120.
Identify the enzyme used to join sections of complementary DNA together
a)
Reverse transcriptase
b)
DNA polymerase
c)
DNA ligase
d)
Restriction endonuclease
121.
State the name of the structure formed when DNA is cut using a restriction endonuclease
a)
Restricted end
b)
Blunt end
c)
Sticky end
d)
Complementary end
122.
State the part of a bacteria that is used as a vector
a)
Plasmid
b)
Pili
c)
Flagellum
d)
Nucleoid
123.
State the term used to describe a DNA molecule used to carry foreign genetic material into another cell
a)
Plasmid
b)
Sticky end
c)
Restriction endonuclease
d)
Vector
124.
Suggest which of these statements is not a reason why bacteria are often used for gene transfer
a)
There are no ethical concerns
b)
Bacteria contain RNA which is easier to modify
c)
The genetic code is universal
d)
They reproduce rapidly
125.
State the name used for a plasmid that has had foreign DNA inserted into it
a)
Recombinant
b)
Modified
c)
Complementary
d)
Foreign
126.
Identify which of these statements is an environmental benefit of GM crops
a)
Reduced need for insecticides
b)
Reduced biodiversity
c)
Crops can be produced that lack allergens
d)
Weather resistant crops can improve crop yields
127.
Identify which of these statements is a health benefit of GM crops
a)
GM crops can have longer shelf lives
b)
Reduced need for insecticides
c)
The nutritional value of crops can be increased by adding vitamins
d)
Improved crop yields
128.
Identify which of these statements is an agricultural benefit of GM crops
a)
Reduced need for insecticides
b)
Improved crop yields
c)
The nutritional value of crops can be increased by adding vitamins
d)
Crops can be produced that lack allergens
129.
Identify which of these statements is an environmental risk of GM crops
a)
Reduced biodiversity
b)
Farmers have restricted access to seeds
c)
Lower carbon footprint
d)
Unknown long term side effects to the body
130.
Identify which of these statements is a health risk of GM crops
a)
Reduced biodiversity
b)
Cross pollination could develop 'super-weeds'
c)
Lower carbon footprint
d)
Unknown long term side effects
131.
Identify which of these statements is an agricultural risk of GM crops
a)
Cross pollination could develop 'super-weeds'
b)
Unknown long term side effects
c)
Farmers have restricted access to seeds
d)
Reduced biodiversity
132.
Identify which of the following is a natural method of cloning
a)
Runners
b)
Cross pollination
c)
Somatic cell nuclear transfer
d)
Stem cuttings
133.
State the name for a genetically identical group of organisms that are derived from a single original parent cell
a)
Clones
b)
GMOs
c)
Species
d)
Gametes
134.
Identify which method produces clones artificially
a)
Budding
b)
Stem cuttings
c)
Runners
d)
Binary fission
135.
Identify the process used to clone plants by growing cuttings independently
a)
Root cuttings
b)
Stem cuttings
c)
Bud cuttings
d)
Leaf cuttings
136.
Name the method used to clone adult animal cells
a)
Somatic-cell nuclear transfer
b)
Binary fission
c)
Embryonic-cell nuclear transfer
d)
Gamete-cell nuclear transfer
137.
Identify which of the following is not a step in somatic-cell nuclear transfer
a)
Developing embryo placed into a surrogate mother
b)
Somatic cell nucleus fused with an enucleated egg cell
c)
Egg cell nucleus fused with a somatic cell
d)
Nucleus removed from a somatic cell
138.
Suggest why there has been little interest in cloning embryos
a)
The technology does not exist yet to allow it to occur
b)
It is too expensive
c)
Not possible to assess if the individual has the desired characteristics
d)
It is time consuming to complete
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