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Bio Midterm

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which element would need to be removed from the molecule in Figure 6-2 to make it unsaturated?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Phosphorus

2.

Consider the energy diagram for a chemical reaction in Figure 6-3. Overall, is energy released or absorbed?

a)

Absorbed, because the energy level increases during the reaction.

b)

Absorbed, because the energy level of the products is greater than that of the reactants.

c)

Released, because the reaction is initiated by the addition of heat.

d)

Released because the energy level of the reactants is greater than that of the products.

3.

Which is the best description of activation energy?

a)

Heat added to initiate a reaction.

b)

Heat released as the reaction proceeds.

c)

Heat stored within the reactant molecules.

d)

Heat stored within the product molecules

4.

A spontaneous chemical reaction occurs more rapidly when the reactants are held at 35 C rather than 25 C. Why would this be the case?

a)

The activation energy would be lower

b)

The activation energy would be higher

c)

The net energy release would be lower

d)

The net energy release would be greater

5.

How does an enzyme influence a biological reaction?

a)

It increases the net energy difference between reactants and products

b)

It decreases the activation energy necessary to initiate the chemical change

c)

It increases the kinetic energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to collide

d)

It decreases the kinetic energy of reactants, enabling them to undergo chemical change more easily

6.

A student set up four test tubes containing starch solution in which to perform starch digestion. Supplies included amylase (enzyme that digests starch) and an incubator. In which tube listed would starch digestion proceed most quickly?

a)

Tube 1: No amylase, room temperature (25 C)

b)

Tube 2: No amylase, body temperature (37 C)

c)

Tube 3: Amylase present, room temperature (25 C)

d)

Tube 4: Amylase present, body temperature (37 C)

7.

When added to water, how does an acid affect the pH and H+ concentration?

a)

Both pH and H+ decrease

b)

Both pH and H+ increase

c)

The pH decreases while the H+ increases

d)

The pH increases while the H+ decreases

8.

Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates or lipids?

a)

C

b)

B

c)

N

d)

O

9.

In humans and other multicellular organisms, which substance plays a central role as an energy source?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Water

10.

Glycogen, used to store energy in the liver and muscle tissue, is an example of which type of molecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Saturated fatty acid

d)

Steroid

11.

Amino acids are the building blocks of which macromolecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

DNA

c)

Lipid

d)

Protein

12.

An organism's genetic information is stored in which type of macromolecule?

a)

DNA

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Protein

13.

What would happen to the structure in Figure 7-4 if part D is completely removed?

a)

It would become more rigid

b)

It would disintegrate

c)

It would have holes in it

d)

It would collapse in on itself

14.

Where are you least likely to find water in the structure shown in Figure 7-4?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

15.

Which of the following pictures in Figure 7-5 most likely approximate the motion phospholipids make in a plasma membrane?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.

Which statement is a fundamental principle of the cell theory?

a)

All cells have a plasma membrane.

b)

Eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells.

c)

Living organisms are composed of cells.

d)

The genetic material in cells is DNA

17.

Which statement is true about bacterial cells?

a)

The cells are very large

b)

The cells have no nucleus

c)

They are eukaryotes

d)

They have organelles

18.

Which is present only in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Chromosomes

c)

DNA

d)

Nucleus

19.

Which substance on the plasma membrane helps identify chemical signals from outside the cell?

a)

Carbohydrate chain

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Membrane protein

d)

Transport protein

20.

Which organelle converts sugar into energy?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

21.

A scientist at the polar ice cap was studying an in ice sample from hundreds of meters below the surface. While examining the ice, the scientist found some cells from many years ago. Using an electron microscope, the scientist identified these cell structures: a cytoskeleton, mitochondrion, nucleus, cell wall, and ribosomes. What kind of organism did the scientist find?

a)

Animal

b)

Bacteria

c)

Plant

d)

He did not have enough information

22.

Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars. These organelles are found only in plants. Which organelles are found only in animals?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosomes

23.

At what point in the process of diffusion is dynamic equilibrium reached?

a)

When the movement of the molecules stops being random

b)

When the molecules are mixed and stop moving

c)

When the rate of change in the solution slows by one half

d)

When there is continuous movement but no change

24.

What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport?

a)

Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient

b)

Active transport uses proteins in the process

c)

Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane

d)

Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy

25.

A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell?

a)

It will swell

b)

It will shrink

c)

It will stay the same

d)

It will wilt

26.

Algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell?

a)

They will begin to swell.

b)

It will shrink

c)

It will stay the same

d)

It will willt

27.

What types of materials are expelled from cells during exocytosis?

a)

Large molecules such as hormones

b)

Positive and negative ions

c)

Small molecules such as carbon dioxide

d)

Water and glyceral

28.

Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Na+/K+ ATPase pump

29.

Which of the diagrams in Figure 8-1 show how energy is produced in a cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

30.

Which of the processes shown in Figure 8-2 do not use a cell's energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

31.

What is the main purpose of the cycle shown in Figure 8-3?

a)

Sugar production

b)

Destruction of CO2

c)

Production of ADP

d)

Production of NADP

32.

In which types of organisms does the process show in Figure 8-4 take place?

a)

Plants only

b)

Animals only

c)

Neither plants nor animals

d)

Both plants and animals

33.

During photosynthesis light energy is converted to the energy in chemical bonds. What also happens according to the predictions of the second law of thermodynamics.

a)

Chemical energy is converted to light energy

b)

Matter is lost in the process

c)

Heat is released in the process

d)

The light and chemical energy are equal

34.

An organism that uses hydrogen sulfide as a source of energy is categorized as which of the following.

a)

Photoautotroph

b)

Chemoautotroph

c)

Heteroautotroph

d)

Thermoautotroph

35.

Which of the following metabolic pathways is anabolic?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Breakdown of actin in muscles

d)

Alcohol fermentation

36.

Which of the following is a substrate used in cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Rubisco

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Muscle contraction

37.

In which of the following processes is chemical energy converted to mechanical energy?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

A rock rolling down a hill

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Muscle contraction

38.

What results from the removal of a phosphate group from ATP?

a)

The production of mechanical energy

b)

The release of energy

c)

The creation of energy

d)

The absorption of energy by chlorophyll

39.

The energy acquired in the light-dependent reactions is used in the light-independent reactions to build glucose molecules. How is this energy transferred from light-dependent to light independent reactions?

a)

In the bonds of ATP and NADPH molecules

b)

In the bonds of 5-carbon ribulose molecules

c)

In the bonds of 3-carbon phosphoglycerate molecules

d)

In the bonds of carbon dioxide molecules

40.

Infer why chloroplasts are found mostly in the leaves of plants.

a)

The large surface area of leaves allows for maximum light absorption

b)

The waxy coating on the surface of leaves helps prevent evaporation

c)

Chlorophyll interferes with the xylem and phloem in the stems and trunks of plants

d)

The large surface area of leaves allows for contact with oxygen

41.

Which of the following is an accurate description of how structure enhances function in the thylakoid?

a)

Thylakoid membranes have a large surface area that provides the space needed to hold large numbers of electron-transporting molecules

b)

Thylakoid membranes serve as an impermeable surface that prevents the flow of electrons into the stroma

c)

Thylakoid membranes can open and close depending on humidity to prevent evaporation from the cell

d)

Thylakoid membranes act as an oxygen barrier allowing the aerobic steps of photosynthesis to proceed

42.

If yellow, red, and orange pigments exist in the leaves of trees, why are leaves green except for in the autumn?

a)

Chlorophyll is the most abundant of all the pigments.

b)

Chlorophyll molecules are the largest of the all pigment molecules

c)

Chlorophyll reproduces faster than the other pigments

d)

Green is the color of the spectrum most easily seen by humans

43.

Which of the following is an accurate summary of chemiosmosis?

a)

Oxygen atoms diffuse down their concentration gradient out of the stroma into the grana through ion channels in the membrane

b)

Hydrogen atoms diffuse down their concentration gradient out of the chloroplasts into the thylakoid membrane

c)

Hydrogen atoms move up their concentration gradient through active transport out of the thylakoid into the stroma through ion channels in the membrane

d)

Hydrogen atoms diffuse down their concentration gradient out of the thylakoid into the stroma through ion channels in the membrane.

44.

Which of the following is the second step of the Calvin Cycle?

a)

Molecular nitrogen is fixed into nitrate

b)

Two phosphate groups are joined to form glucose

c)

Chemical energy is transferred to 3-PGA molecules.

d)

Rubisco converts organic carbon dioxide into inorganic molecules

45.

Predict the photosynthetic pathway that might be used by a saguaro cactus.

a)

C4 Pathway

b)

C3 Pathway

c)

CAM

d)

Nitrogen fixation

46.

Which of the following are produced by reactions that take place in the thylakoids and are consumed by reactions in the stroma?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Carbon dioxide and ATP

c)

ATP and NADPH

d)

ATP and Oxygen

47.

When light strikes chlorophyll molecules, they lose electrons, which are ultimately replaced by which of the following?

a)

Splitting water into 2H+ and O2-

b)

Fixing carbon

c)

Oxidizing glucose

d)

Breaking down ATP

48.

The energy acquired in photosynthesis is used to make glucose. Where is the glucose made in plants?

a)

In the thylakoid

b)

In the thlakoid membrane

c)

In the stroma

d)

Outside the chloroplast

49.

The reactions of the Calvin cycle are not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Which of the following statements explains why not?

a)

The Calvin cycle depends on products of light reactions

b)

Carbon dioxide is not available at night

c)

It is too cold at night for reactions to take place.

d)

Most plants do not make the 4-carbon compounds that would be needed for the Calvin cycle to occur at night.

50.

What happens when an aerobic organism is placed in an anaerobic environment?

a)

Glycolysis stops, stopping the citric acid cycle

b)

The electron transport chain stops, stopping the citric acid cycle

c)

The citric acid cycle stops, stopping the electron transport chain

d)

The citric acid cycle stops, stopping glycolysis

51.

Where does the oxygen used in cellular respiration end up?

a)

Water

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

Glucose

52.

What is the role of oxygen in cellular respiration?

a)

It provides electrons for the electron transport chain

b)

It combines with carbon monoxide to form carbon dioxide

c)

It is needed for the production of light and heat

d)

It is the final electron acceptor for the electron transport chain

53.

In what organisms does alcoholic fermentation take place?

a)

Yeast and some bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Fruit flies

d)

Plants

54.

According to Figure 14-1, the correct chronological order of organisms as they developed are ______.

a)

Birds, dinosaurs, jawed fish, prokaryotes

b)

Dinosaurs, jawed fish, birds, prokaryotes

c)

Jawed fish, dinosaurs, prokaryotes, birds

d)

Prokaryotes, jawed fish dinosaurs, birds

55.

What was the source of the original atmosphere of early Earth?

a)

Light elements from space

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Meteorite impacts

d)

Outgassing from rocks

56.

What assumption must be made to calculate an age using radiometic dating?

a)

The rate of decay of the isotopes

b)

The amount of the isotopes measured in the material

c)

The age of the material being analyzed

d)

The amount of the isotopes present in the material when it formed

57.

What evidence is there that modern archaebacteria may be most like the hypothesized earliest cells on Earth?

a)

Both archaebacteria and early cells share morphological similarities, including a membrane-bound nucleus

b)

Photosynthesis allows both archaebacteria and the earliest cells to harness energy from the Sun.

c)

Archaebacteria thrive in extreme environments of intense heat or pressure, and microfossils suggest early life forms lived in volcanic environments

d)

Archaebacteria can only survive in warm, shallow water similar to the primordial seas in which cells evolved on early Earth.

58.

Banded red rock formations dating from about 1.8 billion years ago were formed from oxygen reacting with free iron ions. Eventually these rocks were no longer being formed, and oxygen began to accumulate in the atmosphere. Integrate this information and your knowledge of conditions on early Earth. What logical conclusions can you draw?

a)

Oxygen could not accumulate in the atmosphere until most of the free iron ions were used up

b)

Oxygen had to have been present in the atmosphere before 1.8 billion years ago

c)

Oxygen can be released by banded iron formations

d)

Early life could not evolve before oxygen was present to sustain them

59.

Fossil evidence proves that cyanobacteria were thriving as long as 3.5 million years ago. Integrating this evidence and your own knowledge of cyanobacteria, identify the most significant effect these organisms had on the ecosystem of the planet as a whole.

a)

Cyanobacteria extract energy from inorganic compounds such as hydrogen sulfide, so they could survive in places like hydrothermal vents at the ocean floor

b)

Cyanobacteria were among the first cells adapted as predators, so they spurred coevolution among their prey in an early "arms race"

c)

Cyanobacteria were some of the first photosynthetic prokaryotes. They oxygen they produced formed the protective ozone layer

d)

Cyanobacteria were the first eukaryotic cells. They harbored smaller prokaryotes that evolved into mitochondria and chloroplasts.

60.

Which of these is evidence for the endosymbiote theory?

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts cannot live on their own outside a cell

b)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own circular DNA

c)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts are surrounded by a membrane

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts both transform energy from one form to another

61.

What implication does the endosymbiote theory have for phylogeny?

a)

The origin of eukaryotes is much earlier than previously believed

b)

The phylogenetic tree includes places where the branches separate and come back together

c)

Eukaryotes and prokaryotes had independent orgins , so there are really two phylogenetic trees

d)

It will be impossible to trace the phylogenetic relationships of eukaryotes

62.

Which is a reasonable description of the origin of a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell?

a)

An early eukaryote phagocytized a smaller cell, which did not die but provided the cell with energy

b)

An early eukaryote phagocytized a smaller cell, which did not die but used light to provide the cell with sugar

c)

An early eukaryote phagocytized a smaller cell, which did not die but provided the cell with energy. Later that same cell or its descendants became host to a photosynthetic prokaryote

d)

An early eukaryote had the ability to photosynthesize. It was parasitized by a smaller photosynthetic prokaryote that provided the cell with additional sugar

63.

How would the diaphragm change in Figure 34-1 to inhale?

a)

Flatten and lower

b)

Expand and go higher

c)

Flatten and go higher

d)

Expand and lower

64.

Examine the organ marked with an X an Figure 34-1. When air exits this organ, it will travels through all of the following structures except the-

a)

Trachea

b)

Esophagus

c)

Bronchus

d)

Bronchioles

65.

How is the blood located in the vein at C in Figure 34-2 different than the blood in all other veins of the body?

a)

It is rich with oxygen

b)

It is rich with carbon dioxide

c)

It doesn't reach the lung

d)

It doesn't reach the heart

66.

Examine Figure 34-3, which shows a nephron. which of the following processes occurs in Structure B?

a)

Filtration

b)

Dialysis

c)

Reabsorption

d)

Urination

67.

Which of the following organ systems is primarily responsible for maintaining the pH level off the blood?

a)

Cardiovascular system

b)

Lymphatic system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Excretory system

68.

Which type of respiration takes place only in the lungs?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Intercellular respiration

c)

Internal respiration

d)

External respiration

69.

An allergic reaction has caused a patient's larynx to swell up. As the larynx swells, the patient's airway is cut off. A paramedic team is preparing to treat the problem. Paramedic A suggests making an incision into the patient's pharynx in order to insert a tube that would carry oxygen to the lungs. Paramedic B suggests making an incision in the trachea to insert the tube. Which paramedic's procedure should be followed?

a)

Paramedic A, because the pharynx is closer to the mouth than the trachea

b)

Paramedic A, because the pharynx leads directly to the lungs

c)

Paramedic B, because the trachea is positioned below the larynx

d)

Paramedic B, because the trachea is connected to the lungs by the pharynx

70.

Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?

a)

Remove wastes from the bloodstream

b)

Transport materials to fight infections

c)

Transport gases out of the body

d)

Produce digestive enzymes

71.

A patient has a large amount of glucose in her urine. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The patient is in good health

b)

The patient's kidney's are damaged

c)

The patient's circulatory system is failing

d)

The patient is eating too many carbohydrates

72.

Which of the following blood components do the kidney's filter?

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

73.

Which of the following would most likely occur first if the circulatory system suddenly stopped functioning?

a)

Blood clots would form in the arteries

b)

Cells would die from a lack of oxygen

c)

Skin cells would become infected with bacteria

d)

Body temperature would fall, causing hypothermia

74.

What is the main function of cilia in the respiratory system?

a)

Prevent food from passing the epiglottis

b)

Prevent the alveoli from drying out

c)

Prevent dust from entering the lungs

d)

Prevent the trachea from being burned

75.

As altitude increases, the amount of oxygen in the air decreases. If an athlete moves from Miami, which is at sealevel, to Denver, which is at an altitude of about 1500 m, what will happen to her breathing rate when she exercises?

a)

The athlete's lugs will have to work the same amount regardless of altitude

b)

The athlete will need to breathe at a faster rate to get enough oxygen into her blood

c)

The athlete's lung capacity will decrease when she get to Denver because of the oxygen there

d)

The athlete's cells will require less oxygen to produce ATP in Denver

76.

During which of the following processes inside the nephron do water and nitrogenous wastes exit the bloodstream?

a)

Absorption

b)

Reabsorption

c)

Filtration

d)

Urea formation

77.

During filtration and reabsorption, which of the following particles never leave the bloodstream?

a)

Salt

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

Red blood cells

78.

Which body systems do the lungs belong to?

a)

Respiratory system only

b)

Respiratory and circulatory systems

c)

Respiratory and immune systems

d)

Respiratory and excretory systems

79.

A scientist dissecting a mammal removes a large vessel from the mammal's hind leg and finds a valve inside the vessel. What type of vessel did the scientist most likely find?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

d)

Ureter

80.

A doctor finds that her patient's white blood cell count is higher than normal. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The patient is healthy

b)

The patient has an infection

c)

The patient's kidneys are functioning poorly

d)

The patient's blood pressure is too low

81.

Which of the following organ systems is primarily responsible for the process of internal respiration?

a)

Circulatory system

b)

Integumentary system

c)

Lymphatic system

d)

Excretory system

82.

Examine Figure 34-4. Which of the following correctly describes the contents of the pulmonary artery shown?

a)

Oxygen-poor blood

b)

Oxygen-rich blood

c)

Carbon dioxide-poor air

d)

Carbon dioxide-rich air

83.

In which structure shown in Figure 34-4 is gas from the atmosphere exchanged with gas from the bloodstream?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchiole

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Pulmonary artery

84.

A patient is complaining of shortness of breath. A doctor takes a biopsy of the patient's lung tissue and sees that the alveoli are breaking down. Which of the following diagnoses is the most reasonable?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Decreased red blood cell concentration

c)

Rh factor complications

d)

Increased whit blood cell count

85.

How is salt excreted from the body?

a)

Through urine alone

b)

Through urine and breath

c)

Through sweat and breath

d)

Through urine and sweat

86.

Von Willebrand disease is a medical condition in which a person's blood clots extremely slowly when a vessel has been damaged. Which of the following blood components is most likely malfunctioning in a person with Von Willebrand disorder?

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

87.

A person's blood vessels become partially clogged with fat deposits. What is the most likely effect of this?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Decreased red blood cell concentration

c)

Rh factor complications

d)

Increased white blood cell count

88.

What type of system is shown in Figure 35-1?

a)

Reverse feedback

b)

Positive feedback

c)

Negative feedback

d)

Anti feedback

89.

What is likely to have triggered hormone production show in Figure 35-1?

a)

The presence of the body chemical

b)

A decrease in the body chemical

c)

A total lack of the body chemical

d)

An increase in the body chemical

90.

Which best describes the difference between chemical and mechanical digestion?

a)

Chemical digestion requires the use of enzymes, mechanical digestion does not involve enzymes

b)

Chemical digestion occurs only in the small intestine, mechanical digestion occurs in all digestive organs

c)

Chemical digestion involves physically breaking down food, mechanical digestion breaks the bonds in food

d)

Chemical digestion occurs only when the body's pH is acidic, mechanical digestion requires alkaline surroundings

91.

Which digestion processes occur first?

a)

Chemical digestion occurs in the stomach

b)

Mechanical digestion in the esophagus

c)

Chemical and mechanical digestion in the mouth

d)

No digestion occurs at first, food is only moistened

92.

Which correctly describes the path food takes through the organs of the digestive system?

a)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus

b)

Mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, anus

c)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, anus

d)

Mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine anus

93.

A person is choking and coughing. Which of the following most likely occurred?

a)

Food has entered the person's lungs

b)

Food has entered the person's trachea

c)

Food has entered the person's esophagus

d)

Food has entered the person's epiglottis

94.

Vomiting is often accompanied by a burning sensation in the throat. What is the most likely cause of this?

a)

Acid from the stomach

b)

Amylase in the mouth

c)

Peristalsisin the small intestine

d)

The high temperature of digested food

95.

Which best describes the importance of mechanical digestion?

a)

It allows proteins and other organic compounds to be broken down into their component molecules

b)

It makes food particles more acidic so that chemical digestion can occur in the digestive organs

c)

It speeds the work of enzymes by allowing food to be transported to the stomach more quickly

d)

It increases the surface area of food, allowing chemical digestion to occur more efficiently

96.

Which of the following might result if food moves very quickly through the large intestine?

a)

The food would not be fully digested

b)

The feces would be eliminated as diarrhea

c)

The body could not eliminate any wastes

d)

The appendix might become inflamed

97.

A chemical is released by an organ into the bloodstream where it travels to the body's bones. Here it binds to receptors on the cell membranes of the targeted tissue. What type of chemical is it?

a)

Amino-acid hormone

b)

A carbohydrate

c)

A protein

d)

A steroid hormone

98.

Once progesterone reaches its targeted tissue, it is able to passively pass into a cell. What is progesterone?

a)

An amino-acid hormone

b)

A carbohydrate

c)

A protein

d)

A steroid hormone

99.

Which of the following organs are involved with chemical digestion?

a)

Esophagus, liver, small intestine, large intestine

b)

Mouth, pancreas, stomach small intestine

c)

Small intestine, gall bladder, kidneys, mouth

d)

Stomach, pancreas, pituitary, large intestine

100.

When do diabetics need to take insulin?

a)

When levels of calcium in the blood are at low levels

b)

When levels of calcium in the blood are at high levels

c)

When levels of glucose in the blood are at low levels

d)

When levels of glucose in the blood are at high levels

101.

How does the adrenal gland help us when we are afraid?

a)

It releases enzymes that hep to make our sense more acute so we can react more readily

b)

It releases enzymes that digest more carbohydrates providing us with extra energy

c)

It releases hormones that increase heart and breathing rates, and makes glucose available to our muscles

d)

It releases hormones that increase the strength of our bones by stimulating the absorption of calcium

102.

Which is most likely a result of damage to the liver?

a)

Decrease in nutrient absorption

b)

Decrease in bile production

c)

Increase in heartburn sensations

d)

Increase in pepsin levels

103.

Where does most digestion occur?

a)

Mouth

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

104.

A person experiences digestive discomfort within 2 hours of eating meat, beans, or eggs. Which of the following organs is most likely the source of this diffiulty?

a)

Large intestine

b)

Mouth

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

105.

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?

a)

You turn on cold water in the shower when the water temperature feels too hot

b)

When you put a stopper in the drain of a sink, the water will fill the sink

c)

After clothes are dry, a dryer goes through a cooling down phase

d)

When a commode is flushed, water fills the bowl until the float signals that it is full

106.

Evaluate the following symptoms: A person has a swelling on their neck and is losing weight despite an increase in eating habits. Which organ is most likely affected?

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Pancreas

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Thyroid gland

107.

Which is the most likely result of damage to the anterior pituitary gland?

a)

Bones do not grow properly

b)

Blood calcium levels are high

c)

The bloodstream contains excess water

d)

Daily injections of insulin are needed

108.

How might digestion be affected if the body's pH remained at a constant level of 7?

a)

Food would be digested at a faster rate

b)

Some enzymes would not work well

c)

Mechanical digestion would be slowed

d)

Blood glucose levels would rise

109.

Which of the following statements regarding the digestive system is correct?

a)

All organs contain glands that release enzymes for chemical digestion

b)

Wherever mechanical digestion occurs, chemical digestion also occurs

c)

Peristalsis occurs in each organ, enabling nutrients to be more easily absorbed

d)

The pH of each organ is the same so the food can easily move through the system

110.

The body regulates availability of sugar to its cells partly through two hormones secreted by the pancreas. Which is the correct description of the production of these two hormones during the time immediately following one meal to before the next meal 12 hours later?

a)

Insulin production decreases and then increases followed by increasing glucagon production

b)

Glucagon production increases then decreases, followed by insulin increases in production

c)

Insulin production increase then decreases, followed by insulin increases in production

d)

Glucagon production decreases and then increases followed by increasing insulin production

111.

What is responsible for breaking food molecules into smaller molecules?

a)

Acid

b)

Mechanical action

c)

Bile

d)

Enzymes

112.

A tissue is observed to contain nerve cells, muscle fibers, and oil glands, Where is this tissue found?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hair

d)

Nails

113.

Which of the following describes the role of keratin in the epidermis?

a)

Keratin allows the skin to fall off

b)

Keratin allows new skin to grow

c)

Keratin makes the skin waterproof

d)

Keratin protects the skin from UV light

114.

Which Correctly sequences the events that occur when a person gets a cut that bleeds?

a)

Bleed, clot, scab, white blood cells, cell division, new skin

b)

Bleed, scab, clot, white blood cells, cell division, new skin

c)

Bleed, clot, new skin, scab, cell division, white blood cells

d)

Bleed, scab, clot, cell division, white blood cells, new skin

115.

In which type of tissue would you expect to find the most mitochondria?

a)

Bicep

b)

Hair

c)

Arm bone

d)

Skin

116.

What would be the result if the heart were made of skeletal muscle?

a)

It would beat according to its own pacemaker

b)

It would not contain any striations when dissected

c)

You would have to think about controlling its beating

d)

It would not be strong enough to pump blood throughout the body

117.

What might occur if a scab does not form over a cut that has damaged blood vessels?

a)

Bacteria may enter the body

b)

Skin cells may not divide

c)

The cut may not bleed

d)

White blood cells will attack the skin

118.

A person running for a long period of time feels tired. She keeps running and feels her breathing quicken. Which explains what is most likely happening in the cells of her leg muscles?

a)

The fast-twitch muscles are taking over in the leg

b)

The excess ATP produced is used for breathing

c)

Oxygen is taken from the muscles to be used in the lungs

d)

The cells have switched from aerobic to anaerobic respiration

119.

Which of the following describes functions of the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Integrates perception, movement, and intellect

b)

Transmits external stimuli and motor responses

c)

Regulates body temperature, thirst, and appetite

d)

Regulates respiration, blood pressure, and heat rate

120.

Which structure shown in Figure 22-1 is not found in animal cells?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

F

121.

Which picture shown in Figure 22-2 is the most likely outcome?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

122.

Which of the following tissues would limit the rate of transpiration the most?

a)

Cuticle

b)

Phloem

c)

Trichomes

d)

Xylem

123.

Which of the following hormones does not affect plant growth?

a)

Auxin

b)

Cytokinins

c)

Ethylene

d)

Gibberellins

124.

The stems of a plant growing out of the side of a cliff will grow upward because of-

a)

Gravitropism

b)

Photoperiodism

c)

Phototropism

d)

Thigmotropism

125.

Changes in the shapes of guard cells result in the opening and closing of stomata. Which of the following ideas would most likely explain how a guard cell can change its shape?

a)

Heat causes the guard cell to expand or contract

b)

Water moving into and out of the guard cell causes it to swell or shrink

c)

The cuticle around the guard cell thickens when auxin binds with the cell's hormone receptors

d)

Sugar crystals in the walls of the guard cells can move from a pentagonal shape to a hexagonal shape.

126.

Cellulose is a type of plant fiber that is indigestible to humans. Wood is mostly made of cellulose fibers. Infer what type of cell contains cellulose.

a)

Collenchyma cells

b)

Guard cells

c)

Parenchyma cells

d)

Sclerenchyma cells

127.

Based on your knowledge of stem structure in a plant, why will removing the bark of a tree kill the tree?

a)

Removing the bark removes phloem, preventing nutrient movement to the roots

b)

Removing the bark removes cambium and prevents further growth of the tree

c)

Removing the bark allows pathogens into the sensitive tissues beneath

d)

Removing the bark destroys the ability of the tree to draw water from the ground

128.

How could you increase the bushiness of a plant?

a)

Trim the plant's apical meristems

b)

Trim the plant's lateral meristems

c)

Trim the plant's intercalary meristems

d)

Trim the plant's cork cambium meristems

129.

A researcher notices that the cells of the stem have elongated in a plant she is observing. Which hormone(s) might cause this to occr?

a)

Auxin only

b)

Gibberellins only

c)

Auxin and gibberellins

d)

Cutokinins and gibberellins

130.

Which of the following plant hormones would not be found in a growing seedling?

a)

Auxin

b)

Cytokinins

c)

Ethylene

d)

Gibberellins

131.

A scientist does a chemical analysis of a wilted flower that just dropped from a plant. Which hormone would most likely be found in the flower?

a)

Auxin

b)

Cytokinins

c)

Ethylene

d)

Gibberellins

132.

Which function do stems and roots share?

a)

Transpiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Support of the plant body

d)

Intake of water and nutrients

133.

A nursery manager wants to increase the rate of growth for the nursery's seedlings. Which would be the best hormone to apply to the seedlings' tissue?

a)

Auxin

b)

Cytokinins

c)

Ethylene

d)

Gibberellins

134.

A potted plant is tipped on its side. Within a few days, the plant stem bends upward by around 90 degrees. Which hormone is most likely responsible for this change?

a)

Auxin

b)

Ethylene

c)

Cytokinins

d)

Gibberellins

135.

How does the spacing of the cells in the spongy mesophyll aid in a leaf's function?

a)

The loosely packed cells allow the leaf to be flexible so that the leaf can bend in the wind

b)

The tightly packed cells have a large surface area in which light energy can be collected

c)

The loosely packed cells allow ingredients used photosynthesis to move readily through the leaf

d)

The tightly packed cells form a barrier from the exterior environment and protect the leaf from diseases and predators