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CA #3- Semester Review

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 3hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Lactose is found in milk products. It is converted by the body into a usable form in a series of chemical reactions. The diagram shows the series of reactions that convert lactose into a usable form. If Enzyme 2 is denatured, the levels of which substance will increase?

a)

Lactose

b)

Galactose

c)

Galactose -1-phosphate

d)

Glucose - 6 - phosphate

2.

Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme's function?

a)

Enzymes are specific to a substrate.

b)

Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.

c)

Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules.

d)

Enyzmes can be found in all life-forms.

3.

Plants such as the Venus flytrap and the sundew attract and consume insects. These plants are able to produce substances which break down the insect into compounds that are useable by the plant. One element obtained from these compounds is nitrogen. The plants obtain much of their nitrogen from amino acids in the insects. Which of these chemical compounds are the source of the amino acids?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

4.

Which of the following biological molecules is correctly paired with on of the functions it primarily serves in living cells?

a)

lipid - catalyze chemical reaction

b)

carbohydrate - components of cytoskeleton

c)

proteins - long term energy storage

d)

nucleic acids - store genetic information

5.

Starch is a complex carbohydrate which provides large amounts of energy as it is digested in the body. As starch is digested, it is broken apart into -

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

amino acids

d)

sugars

6.

A scientist removed the cell membranes from bacteria cells in a culture. She analyzed the cell membranes for specific molecules. Which of these was probably the most common type of molecule present in the bacteria cell membranes?

a)

lipid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

amino acid

d)

carbohydrate

7.

Which of the following is the main reason that humans need to include carbohydrates in their diet?

a)

Carbohydrates are broken down in the cells for energy.

b)

Carbohydrates combine to form many different proteins.

c)

Carbohydrates act as catalysts to speed up chemical reactions.

d)

Carbohydrates are the building blocks for cell growth and repair.

8.

According to the graph, addition of the enzyme amylase causes the reaction to -

a)

slow down

b)

speed up

c)

give off heat

d)

take in heat

9.

Fats, oils, waxes, cholesterol, and hormones are good examples of what group of Biomolecules?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

10.

Which of the following are parts to the cell theory?

a)

All living things are made of cells

b)

Cells are the smallest unit of life

c)

Cells can only come from other cells

d)

There are many different types of cells

11.

Match the following

a)

Main Component

1.

Phospholipid

b)

Serve as channels and pumps

2.

Proteins

c)

Serve as cell to cell communication

3.

Carbohydrates

d)

Serve to strengthen the membrane

4.

Cholesterol

12.

What is the only organelle that both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Lysosomes

13.

Match the following

a)

Helps process proteins and transports them

1.

Rough E.R.

b)

Digests material in cell

2.

Lysosome

c)

Packages material for cell

3.

Golgi Bodies

d)

Produces steroids and detoxifies alcohol

4.

Smooth E.R.

e)

Provides support to the cytoplasm

5.

Cytoskeleton

14.

Match the following

a)

Produces ATP

1.

Mitochondria

b)

Creates chemical energy from light

2.

Chloroplast

c)

Stores water for photosynthesis

3.

Large Central Vacuole

d)

Provides rigid support for some cells

4.

Cell Wall

e)

Forms from endocytosis

5.

Vesicle

15.

Which of the following represents Osmosis

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
What organelle of the cell produces energy?
a)
Mitochondria 
b)
Golgi Body 
c)
Vesicle 
d)
Vacuole 
17.
What kind of transport does not require energy?
a)
Active 
b)
Vacuole 
c)
Passive 
d)
Na/K Pump 
18.
What is something that prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have in common?
a)
They have a nucleus. 
b)
They are multi-cellular. 
c)
They have DNA. 
d)
They have organelles that are membrane-bound.
19.
What is facilitated diffusion?
a)
Transport that uses proteins to help move molecules across the membrane. 
b)
Movements of substances through a membrane. 
c)
When molecules spread from High to Low concentration on their own. 
d)
When pressure pushes something through a membrane. 
20.
All of the following statements are true about prokaryotic cells EXCEPT 
a)
No nucleus 
b)
They are simple and small 
c)
Have a cell wall 
d)
Have organelles 
21.
What is an isotonic solution?
a)
When solutions are in equilibrium 
b)
When the solution has more solute 
c)
When the solution has less solute 
d)
Has a greater pressure 
22.
Which means of particle transport is shown in this diagram?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
protein pump
23.
In this situation, where the solute is illustrated by red dots, predict if will WATER move into or out of the cell, and how that will affect the cell.
a)
Water will move into the cell and the cell will expand.
b)
Water will move into the cell and the cell will shrink.
c)
Water will move out of the cell and the cell will expand.
d)
Water will move out of the cell and the cell will shrink.
24.
Which illustration of transport across the membrane requires energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
25.
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which of the following has occurred?
a)
The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b)
The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c)
The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d)
The water in the gums has moved out due to the high concentration of salt in the solution. 
26.
What type of cell has a nucleus? 
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic 
27.

Which type of cell is this?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

28.
Which of the following correctly describes viruses?
a)
non-living because they grow and develop
b)
living because they can use energy
c)
non-living because they cannot reproduce on their own
d)
living because they can maintain homeostasis
29.

What is a STEM CELL?

a)

Cells found in the stems of plants.

b)

Cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.

c)

Cells that control your genes to be expressed.

d)

Cells that provide nutrients to your blood.

30.

What does cell differentiation mean?

a)

Process by which a cell absorbs nutrients.

b)

Process by which a less specialized cell becomes a more specialized cell.

c)

Process by which a specialized cell becomes a less specialized cell.

d)

Process by which cells enter the cell cycle.

31.

Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by...

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Sugars

32.

True or False: Environmental factors, such as temperature, can affect gene expression.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Everything in your body is controlled by....

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

DNA

c)

Cancer

d)

Mitosis

34.

What organelle performs photosynthesis (converting light energy into chemical energy, or glucose)?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

35.

How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related? (2 correct answers)

a)

The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration.

b)

The products of photosynthesis are the products of cellular respiration.

c)

The products of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.

d)

The reactants of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.

36.

​ (a)   equation: H2O (​ (b)   ) + CO2 (​ (c)   ) --> O2 (​ (d)   ) + C6H12O6 (​ (e)   )

Choose from the below words
water
carbon dioxide)
photosynthesis
oxygen
glucose
cellular respiration
37.

​ (a)   equation: O2 (​ (b)   ) + C6H12O6 (​ (c)   ) --> H2O (​​ (d)   ) + CO2 (​​ (e)   )

Choose from the below words
water
photosynthesis
oxygen
glucose
cellular respiration
carbon dioxide
38.

Match the following chemical formulas to their name:

a)

carbon dioxide

1.

CO2

b)

oxygen

2.

O2

c)

glucose

3.

C6H12O6

d)

water

4.

H2O

39.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
40.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to
a)
make glucose
b)
break glucose
c)
capture the energy in sunlight
d)
change carbon dioxide
41.
Cellular respiration happens in which 2 places?
a)
cytoplasm and mitochondria
b)
chlorplast and mitochondria
c)
chloroplast and stomata
d)
chloroplast and cytoplasm
42.

This is the equation is for? 6Co2 + 6H2O ----> C6 H12 O6 6O2

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

43.

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase

44.

Match the image to the correct answer

a)

1.

Prophase

b)

2.

Metaphase

c)

3.

Anaphase

d)

4.

Telophase

e)

5.

Cytokinesis

45.

Label the parts of the Cell Cycle

a)

G1

b)

S phase

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
46.

Mitosis is the division of the​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
nucleus
cytoplasm
47.

Click where DNA replication takes place

A
B
C
D
48.

Cytokinesis is the division of the ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
cytoplasm
nucleus
49.

How many phases does Mitosis have?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

4

d)

5

50.

Match each phase with its correct description

a)

Cell grows rapidly while carrying out normal functions.

1.

G1 Phase

b)

Cells must replicate their DNA before cell division to ensure that identical genetic information is passed to  the next generation.

2.

S Phase

c)

  • FINISHES GROWING

  • Errors in DNA replication are checked- if something is wrong, cell needs to fix its errors before it divides!

3.

G2 Phase

51.

What are the THREE MAIN events in cell division

a)

INTERPHASE

b)

CYTOKINESIS

c)

PHOTOSYNTHESIS

d)

MITOSIS

52.

What type of cells do we have the most of?

(a)  

53.

Put the Cell Cycle phases in order

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
54.

Label the picture

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

f)

Cytokinesis

1
2
3
4
5
6
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
55.

What happens during G2 phase

a)

Cell grows rapidly

b)

DNA replication

c)

Checks for errors in DNA

d)

Cell divides

56.

What happens during G1 phase

a)

Cell grows rapidly

b)

DNA replication

c)

Checks for errors in DNA

d)

Cell divides

57.

(a)   is the uncontrolled growth of cells, often resulting in a tumor or mass of abnormal cells

58.

What is the result of the cell cycle?

a)

Three cells

b)

Four daughter cells

c)

2 identical cells

d)

1 clone cell

59.

Match the following for mitosis and meiosis.

a)

PMAT happens once or twice

1.

Mitosis & Meiosis

b)

makes 4 genetically different cells

2.

Meiosis

c)

Sister Chromatids (already crossed over) pull apart

3.

Anaphase 2 of Meiosis

d)

Homologous Chromosomes pulled apart & Independent assortment

4.

Anaphase 1 of Meiosis

e)

makes 2 identical cells

5.

Mitosis

60.

2 diploid (2n) daughter cells form in what phase of Meiosis?

a)

Telophase 2

b)

Telophase/Cytokinesis 1

c)

Anaphase 2

d)

Cytokinesis 2

61.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

62.

how many chromosomes do human gametes have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

18

d)

36

63.

Crossing over usually occurs between:

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Alleles

d)

Non-Homologous Chromosomes

64.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)
segregation of sister chromatids
b)
condensation and segregation of alleles
c)
mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered
d)
crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged
65.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

66.

How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of humans?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

67.

IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PICTURES ARE THE CHROMOSOMES CONDENSING AND THE SPINDLES FORMING?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

Match the following

a)
1.

ANAPHASE

b)
2.

TELOPHASE

(PLANT)

c)
3.

METAPHASE

d)
4.

TELOPHASE

(ANIMAL)

e)
5.

PROPHASE

69.

Match the following

a)
1.

Bacteria

b)
2.

Mitosis

c)
3.

Meiosis

d)
4.

Crossing over

70.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive?

a)

Tt

b)

tt

c)

TT

d)

T

71.

What does heterozygous mean?

a)

An organism that has the same alleles for a trait (TT or tt)

b)

An organism that has different alleles for a trait (Tt)

c)

When neither allele is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both

d)

the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red

72.

Physical characteristic or trait

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

73.

If a heterozygous parent and a homozygous recessive parent mate, what percentage of their offspring will be dominant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

74.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
75.
What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
76.

B = brown fur b = white fur

In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

77.

What is genetic recombination?

a)

The combination of genes produced by crossing over and independent assortment.

b)

When genes located close to each other on the same chromosome tend to travel together during meiosis.

c)

A map that shows the sequence of genes on a chromosome.

d)

The occurrence of one or more extra sets of chromosomes.

78.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

79.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

80.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

81.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

82.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
83.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
84.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
85.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

86.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
87.
Which process is happening in this picture?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
88.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

89.

Siamese cats have a gene for albinism, which blocks the transcription of the melanin protein in hair that causes dark color. However, the melanin protein is still expressed in areas of the cat like ears, feet, tail, and face, which have a lower body temperature than the cat's core. How is this color pattern possible?

a)

Some cells in the Siamese cat just have a different gene for color than others.

b)

Cells in the cat's feet, tail, etc. must mutate the gene for melanin.

c)

The expression of the gene for albinism is controlled by temperature.

d)

The gene for albinism changes as the cat gets older.

90.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
91.

True or false, mutations create genetic variation?

a)

True

b)

False

92.

If mutations occur in somatic (body) cells, they can be passed to off spring

a)

True

b)

False

93.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

94.

Which of the following is a type of mutation where a section of chromosome is flipped around?

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

95.

A frameshift mutation is which of the following?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Subtitution

96.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

97.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

98.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

99.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

100.

Part of a chromosome

is deleted

a)

Deletion Mutation-Gene

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal

d)

Crossing Over

101.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
102.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
103.
this image is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
104.
A breed of chicken shows codominance for feather color. One allele codes for black feathers, another codes for white feathers. The feathers of heterozygous chickens of this breed will be:
a)
all black
b)
all white
c)
all gray
d)
speckled black and white
105.
If this image were real, it would represent what type of inheritance?
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
polygenic inheritance
d)
compete dominance
106.

A roan cow shows codominance in fur color (brown and white). What is the phenotype ratio expected in offspring a female roan and a male roan mate together?

a)

All four would be brown and White

b)

Half would be orange, half would be white

c)

2 Brown: 2 Brown and White: 0 White

d)

1 Brown: 2 Brown and White: 1 White

107.
If two parents are heterozygous for type A blood, what is the probability that their offspring would have type O blood?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
108.
If a father is AA and a mother is AB, what is the probability for a child with AB blood? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
109.

What is the genotype of individual IV – 2?

a)

HH

b)

HY

c)

hh

d)

Yh

110.
Examine the pedigree. The allele for the presence of a widow’s peak is dominant. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that in the couple labeled 2:
a)
the male is heterozygous and the female is homozygous.
b)
the male is homozygous and the female is heterozygous.
c)
the male is homozygous and the female is homozygous.
d)
the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.
111.
If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual III-3 have?
a)
XbX
b)
XbXb
c)
XbYb
d)
XbY
112.

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease .


Study the pedigree what are the possible genotypes of #10? (more than one answer)

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAXa

113.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human female with the genetic disorder known as Turner syndrome. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the mutation is a result of

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

114.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human male. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the abnormality in this karyotype is:

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

115.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
116.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
117.

Vestigial structures

a)

structures that perform a similar function but are not similar in origin

b)

remnants of once-important structures that have slowly lost all or most of their function

c)

features found in different organisms that share structural similarities but may have very different functions

d)

preserved remains of an organism

118.
Which layer is the youngest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
119.
The changes of species over time
a)
Embryonic 
b)
Natural selection 
c)
Mimicry 
d)
Evolution 
120.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

121.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
122.

Match the following

a)

Analogous Structure

1.

Same function different structure

b)

Homologous Structure

2.

Same structure different function

c)

Comparative Embryology

3.

Comparing embryological development of different species

d)

Biochemical Evidence

4.

Comparing DNA and amino acid sequences of different species

e)

Vestigial Structures

5.

Structures in the body of an organism that no longer work.

123.

What number is the common ancestor of C and D

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

124.

What is is the study of how and why plants and animals live where they do?

a)

Evolution

b)

Adaptive Radiation

c)

Biogeography

d)

Biogeology

125.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
126.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
127.

What conclusions can be made based on this table shown?

a)

the American black bear and the giant panda are most closely related

b)

the giant panda and the red panda are most closely related

c)

the red panda and the racoon are the most closely related

d)

the giant panda and the racoon are most closely related

128.

A scientist compares DNA taken from four different living species. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Species X evolved from Species Y.

b)

Species A and Z share a recent common ancestor.

c)

Species A and Species Y are the same.

d)

Species Y and Species Z can interbreed.

129.

How can the pattern of change in the fossil record best be explained?

a)

The mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. A large, sudden change occurred in their environment. After the change the mollusks with the bigger shells were better adapted for the new environment.

b)

The mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. The mollusks hybridized with a smaller species of mollusk. A new species of mollusk with a bigger shell resulted.

c)

The mollusks were not well adapted to their environment. The length of the mollusks' shells changed gradually over time. The mollusks in the original population that had small shells died over a period of many years.

130.
The most recent ancestral form or species from which two different species evolved is known as ________________________.
a)
a common ancestor.
b)
an embryonic stage.
c)
development.
d)
evolution.

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