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OCR A Level Biology

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these structures contains RNA but not DNA?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondrion

c)

chloroplast

d)

ribosome

2.

Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

to aid endocytosis

b)

to make proteins from amino acids

c)

to synthesise ATP

d)

to make secretory products

3.

What is the name given to the structures which penetrate the walls of adjacent plant cells?

a)

middle lamellae

b)

plasmodesmata

c)

pits

d)

channels

4.

Cells in culture will absorb amino acids from the surrounding culture medium. If radioactively labelled glycine is provided in the culture medium, in which organelle will radioactivity be found first?

a)

ribosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

lysosomes

d)

Golgi apparatus

5.

What resolution can be achieved with a light microscope?

a)

20μm

b)

2μm

c)

0.2μm

d)

0.02μm

6.

Intestinal epithelial cells have observable “brush borders” seen on the cells. What are they?

a)

microvilli

b)

cilia

c)

flagella

d)

villi

7.

What are centrioles involved in?

a)

lysosome formation

b)

intracellular digestion

c)

ribosome formation

d)

cell division

8.

The (a)   is responsible for the destruction of damaged cells?

9.

Which of the following is concerned with the synthesis and transport of lipids and steroids in the cell?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi

d)

Lysosome

10.

When mitochondria are extracted from cells, they are usually kept in a 0.25 mol dm-3 sucrose solution.

What is the purpose of the sucrose solution?

a)

it prevents the mitochondria from changing structure

b)

it acts as a source of food for respiration

c)

it is used as a solvent

d)

it maintains a constant pH by acting as a buffer

11.

Some organelles are bounded by a single membrane whilst others have two membranes. Which of the options, AD, is correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.

Which of the following would be found in an animal cell undergoing mitosis but not in a plant cell undergoing mitosis?

a)

chromosome

b)

centriole

c)

splindle

d)

chromatid

13.

Which of the following is absent from prokaryotic cells?

a)

plasmids

b)

cells wall

c)

rough er

d)

ribosomes

14.

Which one of these organelles always contains DNA?

a)

ribosome

b)

golgi

c)

mitochondrion

d)

lysosome

15.

Which process produces mRNA from DNA

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Transcribtion

d)

DNA replication

16.

What base does RNA have instead of Thymine?

(a)  

17.

In which organelle does translation occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Ribosome

d)

SER

18.

What are the 3 bases on a tRNA molecule that bind to the mRNA called?

a)

base triplet

b)

anticodon

c)

codon

d)

intron

19.

In eukaryotic cells, pre-mRNA is spliced to remove (a)   .

20.

Which enzyme forms mRNA?

a)

RNA transcriptase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA transcriptase

d)

RNA polymerase

21.

What does the 't' of tRNA stand for?

a)

translation

b)

transfer

c)

transplant

d)

tryinghard

22.

Which of these statements are TRUE about tRNA (select ALL that apply)

a)

It carries a specific amino acid

b)

It is single stranded

c)

It has hydrogen bonding

d)

It is less stable than mRNA

23.

What is the cellular proteome?

a)

Range of proteins produced by a cell

b)

The main protein produced by a cell

c)

All of the proteins coded for in a cell

d)

All of the proteins produced by an organism

24.

Which of these are features of the genetic code (select ALL that apply)

a)

The code is degenerate

b)

The code is overlapping

c)

The code is universal

d)

There are stop codons

25.

Which definition of the magnification of a drawing of a leaf is correct?

a)

the actual size of an object multiplied by the magnification of the microscope

b)

he difference in size between an actual object and a drawing of the object

c)

the increase in size of an object when observed using a microscope

d)

the size of the drawing of a specimen in comparison to the actual size

26.

Which labelled features identify these cells as eukaryotic?

a)

W, X and Y

b)

W and X only

c)

W only

d)

X only

27.

Plant cells are fixed, stained and viewed using a student microscope. The light source was natural light. What would be clearly visible at ×400 magnification?

a)

cristae of mitochondria

b)

grana of chloroplasts

c)

nucleoli

d)

ribosomes

28.

Some secretory cells synthesise and release glycoproteins. What is the correct order of the sequence of events as they occur in the secretory cell?

1 exocytosis

2 product accumulates in secretory vesicle

3 mRNA binds to ribosomes

4 synthesis of glycoprotein

a)

3, 4, 1, 2

b)

3, 4, 2, 1

c)

4, 3, 1, 2

d)

4, 3, 2, 1

29.

Which statement describes how the molecular structure of starch is suited to its function?

a)

Amylose has a branched structure and amylopectin is coiled to give a compact molecule for transport.

b)

In the breakdown of amylose and amylopectin, many condensation reactions release stored energy.

c)

In the formation of amylose and amylopectin, many hydrolysis reactions allow the release of stored energy.

d)

The amylose-amylopectin complex is insoluble and does not affect the water potential of the cell.

30.

Cows and whales are mammals that produce milk to feed their babies. Newborn whales grow faster than newborn cows. The milk of both cows and whales contains saturated fatty acids with different chain lengths. The table shows the percentage of saturated fatty acids of different lengths in cow and whale milk.


Which statement about the ratio of short fatty acids (4–16 carbons) to long fatty acids (18 or more carbons) in the milk of cows and whales is correct?

a)

The ratio in cow milk is higher because young cows need more energy than young whales.

b)

The ratio in cow milk is lower because young cows need less energy than young whales.

c)

The ratio in whale milk is higher because young whales need less energy than young cows

d)

The ratio in whale milk is lower because young whales need more energy than young cows.

31.

Bacterial cells divide by a process called binary fission. Which macromolecules must be synthesised for binary fission?

1 cell membrane proteins and RNA

2 DNA and peptidoglycan

3 enzymes and cellulose

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

3 only

32.

A student carried out experiments to investigate the effect of enzyme concentration on the rate of hydrolysis (break down) of protein in milk.


When the enzyme and milk were mixed, the protein was hydrolysed and the mixture changed from cloudy to clear. The student investigated five different enzyme concentrations and recorded the time taken to reach the end-point for each.


What is an appropriate control for this investigation?

a)

Carrying out a further experiment where the enzyme solution is replaced with water.

b)

Carrying out each experiment in a thermostatically regulated water-bath at 35 °C.

c)

Performing three repeat experiments for each of the five enzyme concentrations.

d)

Using the same volume of enzyme solution for each of the five experiments.

33.

What determines the specificity of an enzyme?


1 the bonding between R groups of the polypeptide

2 the optimum pH of the enzyme

3 the peptide bonds between amino acids of the polypeptide

4 the shape of the substrate molecule

a)

1, 2, 3 and 4

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

2, 3 and 4 only

34.

The graph shows the effect of temperature on the rate at which the enzyme in a biological washing powder digests and removes fruit juice stains.

Which statements explain the shape of the graph at temperatures higher than X?

a)

Bonds are broken between the R groups of the amino acids in the polypeptide chains of the enzyme.

b)

There are more collisions between the enzyme and its substrate.

c)

The tertiary structure of the enzyme is altered.

d)

The shapes of the active site and the substrate are no longer complementary.

35.

Which statement about the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis is correct?

a)

They attach to the spindle fibres to contain them within the nucleus

b)

They condense to prevent further translation of genes.

c)

They reach the poles of the cell and become longer and thinner.

d)

They replicate to produce sufficient DNA to form two new nuclei.

36.

What is the smallest unit of a DNA molecule that can be altered by a mutation and cause a change to the coding of a polypeptide?

a)

base

b)

codon

c)

gene

d)

nucleotide

37.

The diagrams represent transverse sections of three plant organs.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?

1 Water can pass through cellulose cell walls.

2 Water can pass through lignified cell walls.

3 Water cannot pass through suberin in cell walls.

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

2 and 3 only

39.

The contraction of the heart is coordinated through electrical impulses passing through the cardiac muscle. Which is the correct order of part of the sequence of these impulses?


A right and left atria → sinoatrial node → atrioventricular node → ventricular walls


B sinoatrial node → right and left atria → atrioventricular node → Purkyne tissue


C sinoatrial node → right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → atrioventricular node


D sinoatrial node → right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → ventricular walls

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.

The graph shows oxygen dissociation curves of adult oxyhaemoglobin in different carbon dioxide concentrations, 1 and 2.

Which conditions could change the shape of curve 1 to the shape of curve 2?

a)

high carbon dioxide concentration causing a decrease in pH

b)

high carbon dioxide concentration causing an increase in pH

c)

low carbon dioxide concentration causing a decrease in pH

d)

low carbon dioxide concentration causing an increase in pH

41.

Which characteristic of the human gaseous exchange surface and the lungs, maintains the necessary concentration gradients for carbon dioxide and oxygen?

a)

good ventilation of the lungs

b)

large surface area of the alveoli

c)

low resistance to air flow

d)

the walls of the alveoli are thin

42.

A student carried out four tests for biological molecules on a solution. The observations are shown in the table.

Which molecules may be present in this solution?

a)

glucose, starch, protein

b)

lipid, protein, glucose

c)

protein, starch, sucrose

d)

starch, protein, lipid

43.

Which description is correct?

a)

A collagen molecule has a high proportion of the amino acid glycine, which has a very small side chain

b)

A group of three collagen fibres forms a strong, insoluble coiled structure termed a triple helix

c)

Each of the collagen polypeptides in a collagen molecule has a regular spiral arrangement of many alpha helices.

d)

Peptide bonds are present between amino acids of the same polypeptide and between the different polypeptides forming the collagen molecule.

44.

The graphs show the rate of reaction of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.


Which graph shows the effect of increasing the concentration of the substrate at two different concentrations of a competitive inhibitor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

The diagram shows the transport of ions across the cell surface membrane.


Inside the cell there is a low concentration of sodium ions (Na+ ) and a high concentration of potassium ions (K+ ). Outside the cell there is a low concentration of K+ and a high concentration of Na+ .

The carrier molecule is a pump which exchanges Na+ for K+ .

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

46.

The diagram shows transverse sections of two plant structures.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

Two species of animal are found in the same area of forest and grassland. In the spring and summer they eat the same plant food.

However, in the autumn and winter one eats nuts in the forest and the other eats roots on the grassland. Both species are preyed upon by the same predator. Numbers of root-eating animals are reduced most by this, but they recover faster since they reproduce faster.

What can be concluded about these two species of animals?


1 They are part of the same community.

2 They are at different trophic levels.

3 They occupy different habitats.

4 They have different niches.

a)

1, 2 and 4

b)

2, 3 and 4

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

1 and 4 only

48.

Name this structure

a)

double helix

b)

nucelotide

c)

twisted ladder

d)

hydrogen bond

49.

If one strand of DNA says GCT, the other strand says:

a)

GCT

b)

CTA

c)

CGA

d)

TCG

50.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
51.

What is the function of deoxyribonucleic acid?

a)

store genetic information

b)

store energy (long-term)

c)

store energy (short-term)

d)

build skin, hair, nails, muscles

52.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
53.

What are the parts of a nucleotide?

a)

phosphate, sugar, base

b)

A, T, G, C

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

two base pairs connected

54.

The 'backbone' or 'ribbon' of the DNA strand is made of:

a)

phosphate and sugar

b)

phosphate only

c)

phosphate and base

d)

sugar and base

55.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
a)
Glycerol
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Nucleotides
56.
RNA contains the sugar...
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Glucose
c)
Ribose
d)
Lipids
57.

How many hydrogen bonds form between the bases A and T in the DNA double helix?

(a)  

58.

How many hydrogen bonds form between the bases C and G in the DNA double helix?

(a)  

59.

What type of bond holds together the sugar-phosphate backbone of nucleic acids?

a)

phosphodiester bonds

b)

glycosidic bonds

c)

hydrogen bonds

d)

peptide

60.

The two polynucleotide strands of DNA run in opposite directions; they are said to be (a)  

61.

What is the charge on a phosphate group?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

62.

Which elements make up nucleotides?

a)

C, H, O and N

b)

C, H, N, S

c)

C, H, N, O, P

d)

C, H, O, P

63.

How many carbon atoms make up the sugar part of a nucleotide?

(a)  

64.

Adenine is a....

a)

purine

b)

pyrimidine

65.

How many phosphate groups make up a molecule of ATP?

(a)  

66.

Thinking about bond making and bond breaking, does the hydrolysis of ATP release more energy than is required, or does it require more energy than is released?

a)

Hydrolysis of ATP releases more energy forming new bonds than is required to break bonds

b)

Hydrolysis of ATP requires more energy to break bonds than is released in forming new bonds

67.

What does ADP stand for?

(check your spelling)

(a)  

68.

Which enzyme catalyses the formation of ATP from ADP?

a)

ATP synthase

b)

ATP hydrolase

69.

The following statements are about the structure of DNA.

Which is / are true?

Statement 1:Purine bases pair with pyrimidine bases.

Statement 2:Phosphodiester bonds link adjacent nucleotides.

Statement 3:There are always equal amounts of adenine and guanine.

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

Only 1 and 2

c)

Only 2 and 3

d)

Only 1

70.

Which of the following processes involves the formation of ester bonds?

1. synthesis of polynucleotides

2. synthesis of triglycerides

3. synthesis of polypeptides

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

Only 1 and 2

c)

Only 2 and 3

d)

Only 1

71.

Which of the diagrams of nucleotides contains uracil?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

72.

A study was carried out on butterflies in two different habitats in the north of England. The two habitats were farmland and mixed deciduous woodland.

· Surveys were completed in 1992 and then at four year intervals.

· Data were collected from butterfly transect sites in both habitats. Using this data, the total butterfly population in each habitat was estimated.

· In 2012, the general populations of butterflies in these two habitats reached historical lows as a result of the prolonged cold and wet weather.

· Between 1992 and 2012 the woodland had become overgrown due to lack of active management.

In particular the number of open spaces in the woodland had decreased.


The data in the graph shows the total butterfly populations per square kilometre in both habitats between the years 1992 to 2012.


Calculate the total percentage decrease in the number of butterflies on farmland between 1992 and 2012.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number.

(a)  

73.

The following statements compare the number of butterflies on the farmland and in the woodland between 1992 and 2012.


Which statement is incorrect?

a)

The number of butterflies in the farmland stays higher than in the woodland

b)

The number of butterflies in farmland has a greater decrease (than those on farmland)

c)

From 2004 to 2012 they both fall by a similar rate

d)

The woodland population decreases by 23% more than the farmland

74.

The following statements are suggestions for the difference in the rates of decline of butterfly numbers in woodland and farmland.


Both habitats experienced the same weather conditions.


Between 1992 and 2012 the woodland had become overgrown due to lack of active management.


In particular the number of open spaces in the woodland had decreased.


Which statement does not provide a valid suggestion based on the information you have been given (the information given at the start is repeated below)

a)

The woodland population dropped because of a new predator

b)

Farmland population decreased because there's more open spaces for breeding sites

c)

Farmland population decreased because of a lack of conservation of hedgerows and areas for wild plants to grow

d)

Woodland population decreased because of deforestation

75.

In 2012, the general populations of butterflies in both habitats reached historical lows as a result of the prolonged and cold weather.


A student made the following statement:

'These data (the graph) show that the change in butterfly numbers was caused by changes in weather conditions in England'


The following statements are comments on the validity of the student's statement.


Select the correct statements.

a)

The statement lacks validity because weather conditions only refer to 2012

b)

The statement lacks validity because numbers were falling before 2012

c)

The statement lacks validity because weather conditions and butterfly decline may not be linked

d)

All of the above

76.

Select two variables from the list below that scientists should control when carrying out butterfly surveys such as this

a)

Sample at the same time year/ same time of day

b)

Temperature

c)

Same sampling technique

d)

pH

77.

A different study was carried out on butterflies in two habitats in the North of England. The two habitats were farmland and mixed deciduous woodland.


Butterfly species in severe decline on farmland include gatekeeper, large skipper, small copper, wall brown, small tortoiseshell and white-letter hairstreak.

Butterfly species in severe decline in woodland include brown argus, common blue, gatekeeper, holly blue, marbled white, meadow brown, peacock, small copper, small heath, small tortoiseshell and wall brown.


Select from the list below to say which habitat you expect to have greater species richness and why

a)

Woodland because there is a greater number of species in decline than on farmland (so probably more species present originally)

b)

Woodland because there is likely to be little or no pesticide use compared to farmland

c)

Farmland because it has lost fewer butterfly species so probably a larger number of species remain

d)

Farmland because of hedgerow conservation meaning more niches for butterflies to occupy

78.

Female silver-washed fritillary butterflies, Argynnis paphia, are usually an orange-brown colour. However, a deep olive-green colour can be seen in some females, largely in the south of England.


What is the term given to this type of biodiversity?

(a)  

79.

Which of the following statements describe benefits to the species of genetic biodiversity?

a)

Colour variation is an adaptation to the environment

b)

Reduces variation for natural selection

c)

Some of the species will survive if a new disease is introduced

d)

Camouflage in different habitats

80.

What is the concentration of oxygen in water?

a)

1%

b)

20%

c)

0.01%

d)

80%

81.

How many pairs of gills does a fish have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

82.

What are the 'ridges' (which increase surface area) on gill filaments called?

a)

lumen

b)

lamellae

c)

alveoli

d)

leaves

83.

Which term is used to describe the opposite flow of blood and water across gills?

(a)  

84.

Which layer of cells in a leaf carries out the most photosynthesis?

a)

spongy mesophyll

b)

epidermis

c)

waxy cuticle

d)

palisade mesophyll

85.

What is the name of the cells which control the opening of stomata?

(a)  

86.

Which of the following are features found in xerophytes?

a)

rolled leaves

b)

sunken stomata

c)

leaf hairs

d)

lots of stomata

87.

Which surface of a leaf generally has the most stomata?

a)

lower

b)

upper

88.

In which habitats can xerophytes be found?

a)

deserts

b)

tundra

c)

salt marshes

d)

sand dunes

89.

Which of the following are xerophytes?

a)

oak trees

b)

cacti

c)

geranium

d)

marram grass

90.

During child birth a woman's body over produces a hormone called oxytocin until the baby is born. What kind of feedback loop would this be?

a)

Negative Feedback Loop

b)

Positive Feedback Loop

c)

Neutral Feedback Loop

d)

Linear Feedback Loop

91.

When you are hot, your body sweats to cool you down. This means your temperature went above normal and your body sweats to counteract that change to bring you back to normal. What kind of feedback loop would this be?

a)

Negative Feedback Loop

b)

Positive Feedback Loop

c)

Neutral Feedback Loop

d)

Linear Feedback Loop

92.

The 4 parts of the communication pathway to maintain homeostasis listed in order are:

a)

target, sensors, control center, communication system

b)

communication system, sensors, target, control center

c)

sensors, control center, communication system, target

d)

target, control center, sensors, communication system

93.

These detect changes in the environment

a)

Control Center

b)

Sensors

c)

Communication System

d)

Target

94.

This takes the messages from the sensors and is known as the control center

a)

Brain

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Heart

95.

Messages from the brain are sent to either the nervous system (muscles) or the endocrine system (hormones), what are they referred to as?

a)

sensors

b)

target

c)

Communication System

d)

Control Center

96.

This responds to messages from the communication system and changes its level of activity to help you maintain homeostasis?

a)

sensors

b)

target organ or muscle

c)

communication system

d)

brain

97.

Osmoregulation means....

a)

maintain water levels

b)

maintain temperature

c)

maintain heart rate

d)

maintain breathing

98.

Thermoregulation means?

a)

Maintain temperature

b)

Maintain water levels

c)

Maintain heart rate

d)

Maintain breathing

99.

When you are hot you....

a)

sweat

b)

shiver

c)

get goosebumps

d)

hairs stand up on arm

100.

When you are cold you...

a)

shiver to create heat

b)

sweat

c)

blood vessels dilate

d)

increase heart rate

101.

Positive Feedback loops are...

a)

Counteract changes that move above or below set values.

b)

more common

c)

regulate body temp

d)

Purposeful pushes above normal set values.

102.

Negative Feedback loops are...

a)

Purposeful pushes above normal set values.

b)

Counteract a change to bring it back to normal set values

c)

Are rare

d)

Help with childbirth

103.

Why does a nerve cell look different from a circular red blood cell?

a)

There is no connection between shape and function

b)

Cells all look exactly the same

c)

Cells are shaped differently according to their function. A nerve cell needs long arms for communication.

d)

All cells have the same exact job

104.

Maintaining internal stable conditions is the definition of...

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Heterotroph

105.

After the excited electrons are captured by the primary electron acceptor, water is split in a process known as what?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

photolysis

c)

chemiosmosis

d)

electron transport chain

106.

As the excited electrons lose energy along the electron transport chain, they are fueling the process of:

a)

Light capturing event

b)

Chemiosmosis

c)

Photolysis

107.

What are the products of the light-dependent reaction?

a)

Glucose

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

Water and Oxygen

108.

Plants produce oxygen when they photosynthesize. Where does the oxygen come from?

a)

splitting water molecules

b)

ATP synthesis

c)

the electron transport chain

d)

chlorophyll

109.

The thylakoid membrane becomes damaged, causing the inside of the thylakoid to mix with the stroma.

Which of the following processes is likely to be most affected by this damage?

a)

The reduction of NADP+ to NADPH

b)

Sunlight absorption by the chloroplasts

c)

The movement of electrons from photosystem II (PSII) to photosystem I (PSI)

d)

ATP synthesis

110.

What role do electrons play in the formation of NADPH?

a)

Electrons from PS I cause the reduction of NADPH to NADP+

b)

Electrons from PSII cause the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH.

c)

Electrons from PS I cause the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH.

d)

Electrons are gained causing the oxidation of NADP+NADP+.

111.

A scientist suspects that a particular plant contains chloroplasts that lack photosystem II (PSII), even though it is able to live.

How could the scientist determine if PSII is missing from the plant's chloroplasts?

a)

Test for the presence of sugar

b)

Test for the presence of oxygen in light

c)

Test for thylakoid presence in the chloroplasts

112.
The Calvin Cycle occurs in the ___________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Thylakoid Membrane
c)
Enzyme ATP Synthase
d)
Chlorophyll
113.
In the Calvin Cycle, carbon from CO2 is added to one molecule of RuBP to create _________.
a)
RUDP
b)
An Unstable 6 Carbon Molecule
c)
PGA
d)
2 3-carbon molecules
114.
In the Calvin Cycle, ________ and ________ from the light dependent reactions convert PGA into G3P
a)
O2, ATP
b)
CO2, H2
c)
ADP, NADPH
d)
NADPH, ATP
115.
In order to efficiently create 1 glucose molecule, the Calvin Cycle must occur how many times?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
1
d)
12
116.
After reaching an excited state, electrons jump from the chlorophyll molecules to the __________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Electron transport chain
c)
Photosystem 2
d)
H+ ion reservoir 
117.
Adenosine Triphosphate is created after an H+ passes through ____________. 
a)
The Stroma
b)
ATP Synthase 
c)
The Calvin Cycle
d)
The electron transport chain
118.
The 5-Carbon molecules that the Calvin Cycle starts and ends with, is called _____________.
a)
PGA
b)
G3P
c)
RuBP
d)
RuDp
119.
The light dependent phase occurs in the __________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Thylakoid Membrane
c)
Chlorophyll
d)
Chloroplast Membrane
120.
The COused in the Calvin Cycle originates from ___________.
a)
The light phase
b)
The breakdown of the remaining G3P's
c)
Diffusion through the stoma
d)
Lumen of the Thylakoid
121.
Chlorophyll in Photosystem I regains its lost electrons from ________.
a)
H2O
b)
Electrons jumping off the ETC from Photosystem II
c)
Sunlight
d)
ADP returning from the Calvin Cycle
122.
The final step of the Light Dependent Phase involves the creations of _____________.
a)
NADPH
b)
Glucose
c)
ATP
d)
CO2
123.
True or False: The Calvin Cycle returns ADP and NADP to the light dependent phase.
a)
True
b)
False
124.
What supplies the electron that is lost in PS II?
a)
oxygen
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
rubisco
125.

Match the reaction center in PSI & PSII with its name.

a)

PSI is named P700

b)

PSI is named P680

c)

PSII is named P700

d)

PSII is named P680

126.

Where does photoactivation of electrons take place

a)

Photosystems I and II

b)

Photosystem I only

c)

Photosystem II only

d)

Electron Transfer Chain

127.
What is the purpose of splitting water in PS2 of the light dependent reaction?
a)
Provides e- for PS2 and H+ for the thylakoid space
b)
To produce Oxygen for animals
c)
There is no purpose
128.
According to this absorption spectrum, what color is not used by the chlorophyll pigments?
a)
green
b)
blue
c)
yellow
d)
red
129.

Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non-cyclic photophosphorylation in that _____________ is not made from the process.

a)

ATP

b)

G3P

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

130.
Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called ____.
a)
Lamellae
b)
Stroma
c)
Granum
d)
Glucose
131.
The gel-like material that surrounds the grana is called ____
a)
lamellae
b)
granum
c)
thylakoid
d)
stroma
132.

What is produced by the photolysis of two water molecules?

a)

O2 + 4H+ + 4e-

b)

O2 + 4H+ + 2e-

c)

1/2 O2 + 2H+ + 2e-

d)

1/2 O2 + 2H+ + 4e-

133.

5 carbon sugar that combines with CO2 in the Calvin Cycle

a)

3-PGA

b)

G3P

c)

RuBP

d)

Glucose

134.

Main products of the Calvin Cycle

a)

Oxygen, NADP+, ADP

b)

Glucose, CO2, ADP

c)

ADP, NADP+, Glucose

d)

ATP, NADPH, Oxygen

135.
The enzyme responsible for Carbon Fixation in C3 Photosynthesis is
a)
RuBisCo
b)
PEP Carboxylase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
Pyruvate DeHydrogenase