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Worksheets

AP Bio Unit 3&4 Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Plants use the following reactants for the light reaction

a)

Water and CO2

b)

Water and NADPH

c)

Water and NADP+

d)

NADPH and ATP

2.

Photosynthesis goal is to

a)

convert light energy into glucose energy

b)

use light energy to make oxygen gas

c)

convert sugar energy into ATP

d)

convert sugar energy into oxygen gas

3.

Rubisco is important in which step of photosynthesis

a)

energizing the electrons in chlorophyll

b)

carbon fixation when CO2 is connected to RUBP during calvin cycle

c)

regeneration phase as RUBP is made during calvin cycle

d)

reduction of the carbon chain during the calvin cycle

4.

If the proton (H+) pump in the thylakoid was not working which molecule could not be made during the light reaction?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

Water

d)

Oxygen gas

5.

The NADP+ is

a)

oxidized during the light reaction

b)

reduced during the light reaction

c)

oxidized during the Calvin cycle

d)

reduced during the Calvin cycle

6.

Which of the following would have the least affect on photosynthetic rate?

a)

increase the temp from 20 C to 30 C

b)

increasing the CO2 from 400 ppm to 600ppm

c)

increasing the light intesity from 40 Watts to 60 Watts

d)

increasing the amount of O2 from 20% to 30% in the air

7.

Plants obtain CO2 into the chloroplast by

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

endocytosis

8.

Photosystems are made of

a)

chloroplasts

b)

chromosomes

c)

chlorophyll

d)

cytoplasm

9.

ATP is made during the light reaction using all of the following EXCEPT

a)

proton pump

b)

hydrogen ion gradient

c)

electron energy from photosystem II

d)

NADPH donating electrons

10.

What is FALSE about the calvin cycle

a)

uses the light reactions products

b)

produces a three carbon sugar (G3P)

c)

produces carbon dioxide

d)

produces NADP+

11.

During noncyclic photophosphorylation all of the following occur EXCEPT

a)

ATP is made using electron energy that will leave on NADPH

b)

results in oxygen gas being produced

c)

water is split (photolysis)

d)

electrons from photosystem 1 return back to photosystem 1

12.

Photorespiration involves

a)

the production of oxygen gas during the break down of sugar

b)

the breakdown of sugar when CO2 levels are low.

c)

the production of massive amounts of ATP in the thylakoid

d)

water being pulled out of the plant

13.

Why does photorespiration occur?

a)

stomata are closed and CO2 levels are too low.

b)

stomata are closed and O2 levels are too low.

c)

stomata are open and too much water is leaving the plant

d)

stomata are open and the plant receives too much CO2

14.

What does a C4 plant do?

a)

stores CO2 in a separate cell from its photosynthetic cell during the day

b)

stores CO2 in a vacuole during the night.

c)

can't store CO2 so it sufferes photorespiration

d)

can't store CO2 so it speeds up cellular respiration in order to make more CO2

15.

Plants that store CO2 at night as an acid in a vacuole are called

a)

C3 plants

b)

C4 plants

c)

CAM plants

16.

Which plant LACKS CO2 storage method

a)

C3

b)

C4

c)

CAM

17.

What happens to the oxygen levels if a plant were left in the dark over night?

a)

go up due to photosynthesis

b)

go down due to cell respiration

c)

stay the same since stomata are closed

18.

Which plant would have the most oxygen produced in 1 hour?

a)

plant given red light only

b)

plant given blue light only

c)

plant given white light

d)

plant given green light only

19.

An increase in CO2 in the air would most likely

a)

increase photosynthesis

b)

increase cell respiration

c)

increase photorespiration

d)

increase transpiration

20.

The calvin cycle requires what substances from the light reaction?

a)

CO2 and Water

b)

light and CO2

c)

ATP and NADPH

d)

glucose and O2

21.

Why does the light reaction perform cyclic photophosphorylation? (where ATP is made with electrons that return to where they started)

a)

because the stomata are closed and CO2 levels are low

b)

because the Calvin cycle runs out of ATP

c)

because the Calvin cycle runs out of NADPH

d)

because there is no water to donate electrons to those that are leaving for the Calvin cycle

22.
What is the function of ATP in living things?
a)
provides energy for cells
b)
stores genetic information
c)
provides structure in the nucleus
23.
Which structures shown in the Figure make up the ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A, B and C
c)
A, B, C, and D
d)
C and D
24.
Which of the following can be compared to a battery in need of recharging?  (empty wallet)
a)
ADP
b)
ATP
c)
Ribose
d)
Adenosine
25.
Which bond of the ATP molecule is broken in order to release energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
26.
Which structures shown in the Figure make up the ATP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A, B and C
c)
A, B, C, and D
d)
C and D
27.
Which of the following results in the storage of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP cycle?
a)
The breaking of the bond between the 5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate group
b)
The addition of a phosphate group
c)
The removal of a phosphate group
d)
The addition of glucose 
28.
Where is the energy stored in ATP molecules
a)
In the Ribose Sugar
b)
In the Adenine group
c)
In the Phosphate bonds
d)
In the Bank
29.

Where is the energy stored in an ATP molecule?

a)

Chemical Bonds

b)

Ionic Bonds

c)

Atomic Bonds

d)

James Bond

30.

What is ATP used for?

a)

It is recharged to be used later.

b)

As a backbone for DNA.

c)

Special cell actions that require large amounts of energy.

d)

Any cellular process requiring energy.

31.

What substance helps in removing a phosphate?

a)

Adenosine

b)

Water

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Phosphates

32.
Produces water as a by-product
a)
Dehydration synthesis
b)
Hydolysis
33.
Water is used to break bonds between polymers
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
34.
What do we call the process whereby water is taken ADP and a phosphate group when ATP is made?
a)
dehydration synthesis.
b)
hydrolysis synthesis.
c)
the ATP-ADP cycle.
d)
photosynthesis.
35.
What do we call the process whereby water is released when ATP is made?
a)
dehydration synthesis.
b)
hydrolysis synthesis.
c)
the ATP-ADP cycle.
d)
photosynthesis.
36.
A catalyst works by
a)
changing the order of the reaction
b)
increasing the temperature
c)
lowering the activation energy
d)
making the activated complex
37.
Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. What is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?
a)
It is a competitive inhibitor.
b)
It is an allosteric regulator.
c)
It is able to bind to succinate.
d)
It blocks the binding of fumarate.
38.
The place, other than the active site, where activators and inhibitors bind to an enzyme is called the ________ site.
a)
competitive
b)
allosteric
c)
alterior
d)
rate
39.
Where is the most easily accessible energy stored in an ATP molecule?
a)
between the 1st and 2nd phosphate groups
b)
between the adenine and ribose groups
c)
between the 2nd and 3rd phosphate groups
d)
between the ribose and the 1st phosphate groups
40.
What type of reaction is occurring in this graph?
a)
endergonic
b)
exergonic
c)
unable to determine
41.
Enzymes are usually....
a)
Proteins
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
None of the Above
42.

What is being represented by the letter B in the image?

a)

Substrate

b)

Enzyme

c)

reactants

d)

Product

43.

The break down of larger molecules into small one.

a)

metabolism

b)

catabolism

c)

anabolism

d)

oxidation

44.

In general, enzymes do NOT:

a)

bind permanently to their substrates

b)

have names ending in -ase

c)

have their function changed with extremely high temperatures

d)

react with a specific substrate

45.

Which of the following do not affect enzymes ability to function?

a)

pH

b)

substrate concentration

c)

temperature

d)

water

46.

The active site of an enzyme can:

a)

bind allosteric regulators.

b)

bind competitive inhibitors.

c)

bind non-competitive inhibitors.

d)

change the Gibbs Free Energy of the reaction.

47.
Which type of reaction increases entropy?
a)
Endergonic
b)
Nonspontaneous
c)
Synthesis
d)
Exergonic
48.
Which of the following is true for anabolic reactions?
a)
They are spontaneous and breakdown molecules.
b)
They are nonspontaneous and breakdown molecules.
c)
They are spontaneous and build molecules.
d)
They are nonspontaneous and build molecules.
49.

The location where the enzyme and substrate bind is the...

a)

allosteric site

b)

inhibition site

c)

reaction site

d)

active site

50.

This image shows...

a)

Competitive Inhibition

b)

Uncompetitive Inhibition

c)

Noncompetitive Inhibition

d)

Normal enzyme function

51.

This image shows...

a)

Competitive Inhibition

b)

Uncompetitive Inhibition

c)

Noncompetitive Inhibition

d)

Normal enzyme function

52.

Which enzyme functions best in acidic environments?

a)

neither enzyme

b)

Enzyme A

c)

Enzyme B

d)

Both enzymes

53.

What is true of glycolysis?

a)

produces a net of 2 ATP

b)

occurs in the mitochondria

c)

produces ATP through oxidative phosphorylation

d)

produces 34ish ATP

e)

all of the above are true

54.

What serves as the final acceptor of the electrons moving down the ETC during cellular respiration?

a)

sulfur

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

oxygen

55.

Which of the following colors would most likely be used for energy during photosynthesis?

a)

green

b)

red

c)

yellow

d)

all colors are absorbed equally

56.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
57.
What does ATP synthase do?
a)
Create ATP in chemiosmosis.
b)
Break down ATP in chemiosmosis.
c)
Break down NADPH. 
d)
Create NADPH.
58.
Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly.  What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
they die
b)
they denature
c)
they change their amino acid sequence
d)
they work better
59.
reduced electron carrier molecule formed in glycolysis
a)
NAD+
b)
NADH
c)
acetyl CoA
d)
FAD
60.
Which statement is TRUE about glycolysis?
a)
Carbon dioxide is produced
b)
Lactic acid is produced
c)
Glucose is oxidized into pyruvate
d)
Glycolysis requires oxygen
61.
the loss of hydrogen or electrons is known as 
a)
dehydration
b)
hydrogenation
c)
reduction
d)
oxidation
62.
The first step in getting energy in the cell by breaking down glucose is known as
a)
the Krebs cycle
b)
electron transport
c)
fermentation
d)
glycolysis
63.
Glycolysis results in the net gain of:
a)
2 ATP
b)
4 ATP
c)
4 NADH
d)
2 Acetyl CoA
64.
Which is not part of the net products of Glycolysis?
a)
2 ATP
b)
2 NADH
c)
2 Pyruvate
d)
2 CO2
65.

In the final step of glycolysis ATP is made through the process of:

a)

Substrate Level ATP Synthesis

b)

Oxidative ATP Synthesis

c)

Photo-Phosphorylation Synthesis

d)

RedOx Reactions

66.
Fermentation involves
a)
aerobic respiration
b)
anaerobic respiration 
67.
What is a disadvantage of fermentation as a process? 
a)
It produces too much ATP
b)
It only produces 2 ATP
c)
It occurs in the absence of oxygen
d)
It is only for quick bursts of energy
68.
What cells in the body may undergo lactic acid fermentation during exercise? 
a)
Muscle cells
b)
Fat cells
c)
Liver cells
d)
Skin cells
69.

What is the correct order for aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis --> ETC --> Citric Acid Cycle

b)

ETC --> glycolysis --> Citric Acid Cycle

c)

glycolysis --> Citric Acid Cycle --> ETC

d)

Citric Acid Cycle --> glycolysis --> ETC

70.

Where does the Citric Acid Cycle take place?

a)

in the matrix

b)

in the cristae

c)

in the cytoplasm

d)

in the cytosol

71.

How many ATP are produced in cellular respiration?

a)

2 ATP

b)

4 ATP

c)

12 ATP

d)

36 ATP

72.

The number of ATP molecules produced out of Citric Acid Cycle is:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

0

73.
How many FADH2 molecules are produced by 1 molecule of glucose?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
74.

Prior to entering the Citric Acid Cycle, each pyruvate molecule loses electrons, hydrogen ions, and a carbon, forming an energy-rich molecule of

a)

Acetyl-CoA

b)

Citrate

c)

Oxaloacetate

d)

Malate

75.

The Citric Acid Cycle is also known as:

a)

The Pyruvic Cycle

b)

The Respirational Cycle

c)

The Kreb's Cycle

d)

The Berk Cycle

76.
Where does the electron transport chain happen?
a)
Matrix
b)

Cristae/Intermembrane

c)
Outer membrane
d)
Cytoplasm
77.

Which of the following is produced during the Electron Transport Chain?

a)
CO2
b)
O2
c)
C6H1206
d)
H2O
78.

How many ATPs are contributed by NADH in the ETC?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

79.

What form of transport do the protein complexes use to move H+ into the intermembrane space?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Simple Diffusion

d)

Endocytosis

80.
This is the part of cellular respiration that makes the most ATP.
a)
glycolysis
b)
kreb's cycle
c)
ETC
d)
fermentation
81.

IF oxygen isn't present what stage/process in cellular respiration could still produce ATP without oxygen?

a)

Calvin Cycle

b)

Kreb Cycle

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Electron Transport Chain

82.

What is the purpose of Chemiosmosis?

a)

To use the movement of H+ to help phosphorylate ADP --> ATP using ATP Synthase

b)

To create a chemical gradient

c)

To use the movement of electrons down the transport chain to create a H+ gradient.

d)

To break down Acetyl CoA into C02 to produce ATP and NADH

83.

When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets will rush to the site of damage and adhere to the vessel beginning the formation of a blood clot. These platelets will then release a chemical into the bloodstream, which recruits even more platelets to rush to the site of damage. As more platelets accumulate, more of the signaling chemical is released into the blood. This process will end when the blood has been sufficiently clotted and active bleeding is no longer occurring. What type of feedback loop is blood clotting an example of?

a)

Negative Feedback Loop

b)

Positive Feedback Loop

84.

A researcher examining a root tip observes a plant cell with condensed sister chromatids, kinetochores with attached microtubules, and individual chromosomes that are aligned at the equatorial plate of the cell. Which of the following best describes what the next process will be in the cell?

a)

Homologous chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

b)

Paired chromatids will separate, and the new daughter chromosomes will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

c)

The nuclear envelope will break down, and the spindle will begin to form.

d)

The chromatin will decondense, and the daughter cell will enter interphase.

85.

Which of the following is not an example of a negative feedback loop?

a)

body maintaining a temperature of about 37°C

b)

release of ADH to increase H2O reabsorption when dehydrated

c)

a ripe apple releasing ethylene, which causes more ripening

d)

heart rate increasing when exercising to deliver more O2 to cells

86.

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate developing between two nuclei. What's going on?

a)

a plant cell is in the process of cytokinesis

b)

an animal cell is in the process of cytokinesis

c)

an animal cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle

d)

a bacterial cell is diving via binary fission

87.

If a cell undergoes mitosis without cytokinesis, what will the resulting cell look like?

a)

the cell will have more than one nucleus

b)

the cell will completely lack a nucleus

c)

the cell will be unusually small

d)

the cell will have damaged chromosomes

88.

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a)

condensation of chromatin to chromosomes

b)

replication of DNA

c)

separation of sister chromatids

d)

the formation of a spindle apparatus

89.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
90.
The process of childbirth is an example of:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
91.

Which of these shows the cell cycle phases in their correct order AND correctly paired with their functions?

a)

G1-growth, M-division, G2-DNA checkpoints, S-DNA replication

b)

G1-growth, S-DNA replication, G2-prepare to divide, M-division

c)

M-division, G1-growth, S-DNA replication, G2-prepare to divide

d)

S-Interphase, G2-growth, M-division, G1-DNA replication

92.

In what phase of mitosis is this cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

93.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)

is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment

d)

is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment

94.

Which part of the feedback loop is a body part that makes a change to bring the system back to homeostasis?

a)

Effector

b)

control center

c)

response

d)

receptor

95.

Identify the stimulus event.


Scenario: A person begins to exercise which causes their body temperature to increase. The temperature change is noticed and the person begins to sweat and their body temperature decreases.

a)

body temperature increases

b)

person begins to sweat

c)

temperature change is noticed

d)

person begins to exercise

96.

The "cause" for something to happen is called...

a)

response

b)

effector

c)

control center

d)

stimulus

97.

The body part that senses the change inside the organism ...

a)

receptor

b)

control center

c)

effector

d)

response

98.

Which type of feedback loop decreases the stimulus?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

99.

Which type of feedback loop strengthens/increases the stimulus?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

100.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
101.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
102.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
103.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
104.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
105.
In which phase of mitosis does the nucleus disappear, centrioles move to the poles, and chromosomes condense into sister chromatids?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
106.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell grow in size?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

107.

_____ is the uncontrolled growth of cells, often resulting in a tumor or mass of abnormal cells

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Radiation

108.

Apoptosis is

a)

programmed cell death

b)

mysterious cell death

c)

programmed cellular mutation

d)

mysterious cellular mutation

109.
Cells are anchorage dependent.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
110.
Cell growth is not inhibited by contact with other cells.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
111.
When examining actively dividing cells under a microscope, in which stage will most of the cells be in?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Interphase
112.
What is the process called when the cytoplasm divides?
a)
Cytoskeleton
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
113.
How does mitosis in plant cells differ from mitosis in animal cells?
a)
animal cells form a cell plate
b)
plant cells form a cell plate
c)
plant cells go through the process in reverse
d)
plant cells go through two rounds of mitosis while animal cells just do one
114.

How much DNA should a daughter cell at the end of cytokinesis have when compared to the original parent cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

The exact same amount

c)

Double the amount

115.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

116.

Mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle will most likely lead to what disease?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Diabetes

117.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

118.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
119.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Interphase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
120.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
121.
When a chromosome is NOT dividing, what form does it take?
a)
chromatid
b)
chromatin
c)
chromosome
d)
centromere
122.
The point of attachment between two sister chromatids is called
a)
kinetochore
b)
centromere
c)
chromosome
d)
spindle
123.

Cells from cancerous tumors usually have an unusual number of chromosomes, and unusual looking chromosomes. What could explain this?

a)

cancer cells are in G0

b)

cancer cells are arrested in the S phase

c)

cell cycle check points are not in place

d)

transformation introduces new chromosomes to cells

124.

What are the "strings" called that are attached to the chromosomes?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Chromatin

c)

Spindle Fibers

125.

When cancer spreads, we call it...

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Metastasis

c)

Transposons

d)

snRNPs

126.
A human has 46 chromosomes in their body cells.  What is the haploid number?
a)
46
b)
92
c)
23
d)
12
127.
Gametes have haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
128.

Somatic (body) cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

129.
How does the concentration of cyclin dependent kinases (Cdk) change as the cell proceeds through the cell cycle?
a)
Cdk concentration remains constant.
b)
Cdk concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cdk concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cdk concentration correlates directly with MPF concentration.
130.
How does the concentration of cyclin change as a cell goes through the cell cycle?
a)

Cyclin concentration remains constant.

b)

Cyclin concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.

c)

Cyclin concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.

d)

Cyclin concentration is inversely related to CDK concentrations.

131.

During what phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope fragment?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prometaphase

132.

What checkpoint checks for completion of DNA replication and any DNA damage?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

G2 checkpoint

c)

M Checkpoint

133.

Apoptosis can occur during which checkpoint?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

134.

What checkpoint involves checking for cell size, growth factors, and DNA damage before replication? Cells with errors will be sent to the G0 phase.

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

135.

What does the M checkpoint check for?

a)

Cell size, growth factors, and DNA damage prior to replication

b)

Completion of DNA replication and any DNA damage

c)

Microtubule attachment to kinetochores after metaphase

136.

Which term represents a value for various physiological conditions that the body tries to maintain?

a)

Stimulus

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Set point

d)

Effector

137.

DNA wraps around ​ (a)   proteins to form ​ ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
histone
nucleosomes
chromosome
chromatin
chromatids
138.

What is the correct organization of DNA?

a)

chromatin -> nucleosome -> DNA -> chromosome

b)

DNA -> nucleosome -> chromatin -> chromosome

c)

DNA -> nucleosome -> chromosome -> chromatin

d)

chromosome -> DNA -> nucleosome -> chromatin

139.

What describes a tumor that has lost its anchorage dependence and has spread outside the tumor site?

a)

Benign tumor

b)

Malignant tumor

140.

Which phase is not considered a mitotic phase?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

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