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IB Biology Topic 6 & 11 (Anatomy & Animal Physiology)

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to starch in the small intestine?

a)

Endopeptidase, secreted by the liver digests starch to enable absorption by the villi

b)

Contraction of the intestinal muscles mixes starch with enzymes to accelerate its conversion into amylose

c)

Glycogen secreted by the pancreas hydrolyses starch into glucose, which is eventually transported to the liver

d)

Amylase secreted by the pancreas digests starch to enable absorption by the villi

2.

The picture shows the layers of tissues in a transverse section of the human small intestine. Which layer is labelled with the letter X?

a)

Mucosa

b)

Circular muscle

c)

Epithelium

d)

Longitudinal muscle

3.

Which discovery was an indication that the heart pumps blood to the body through the arteries?

a)

The amount of blood pumped exceeds that of blood produced

b)

Blood could easily be pushed up a limb vein, but not down

c)

The observation that there were pores between the left and right atria

d)

The heart swelled up when arteries were tied in an animal experiment

4.

Which row shows a valid comparison of arteries and veins?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

D

5.

The diagram shows the pressure changes during a cardiac cycle. Which is an explanation of what is happening?

a)

During phase I, pressure in the left ventricle decreases while it increases in the aorta during contraction of the left atrium

b)

In phase II , pressure rises in the aorta because the left ventricle is contracting

c)

In phase III, pressure decreases in the aorta because the left atrium is relaxing

d)

In phase III, there is a constant increase of pressure in the aorta as both the left atrium and ventricle are at rest

6.

Which statement is true for the antibiotic penicillin

a)

Watson and Crick developed the usage of penicillin

b)

pinicillin blocks pathways unique to eukaryotic cells

c)

Viruses lack metabolism and penicillin has no effect on them

d)

Florey and Chain sequenced the genome of Penicilium notatum

7.

How can knowledge of the pinneal gland function be applied

a)

To restore sleep by the use of melatonin

b)

To trigger ovulation during an IVF treatment

c)

To reduce sperm production in male contraception

d)

To regulate blood sugar in type I dibetes

8.

What is the position of the heart valves when blood pressure is highest in the aorta?

a)

Atrioventricular valves: open. Semilunar valves: closed.

b)

Atrioventricular valves: closed. Semilunar valves: open.

c)

Atrioventricular valves: closed. Semilunar valves: closed.

d)

Atrioventricular valves: open. Semilunar valves: open.

9.

What is the purpose of pulmonary surfactant?

a)

Promotes capillary growth

b)

Decreases surface tension

c)

Adheres alvioli and capillaries

d)

Stretches the inside surface of the alveoli

10.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

Which hormone controls circadian rhythms?

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Melatonin

c)

Leptin

d)

Glucagon

12.

Which is a negative feedback mechanism in the menstrual cycle

a)

Follicle stimulating hormone inhibits oestrogen

b)

Oestrogen inhibits lutenizing hormone

c)

Oestrogen inhibits follicle stimulating hormone

d)

Progesterone inhibits oestrogen

13.

The diagram shows part of the membrane of a neurone. What stage of the action potential does it depict?

a)

Depolarization

b)

Repolarization

c)

Resting potential

d)

Hyperpolarization

14.

Which process is occurring in the small intestine?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft from the presynaptic neuron and travel to a receptor on the post synaptic neuron membrane. Which processes are required for this to happen?

a)

Release into synaptic cleft: exocytosis. Travel to post synaptic neuron membrane: diffusion

b)

Release into synaptic cleft: active transport. Travel to post synaptic neuron membrane: diffusion

c)

Release into synaptic cleft: exocytosis. Travel to post synaptic neuron membrane: active transport

d)

Release into synaptic cleft: active transport. Travel to post synaptic neuron membrane: active transport

16.

In which blood vessels connected to the heart does the blood have the lowest carbon dioxide concentration?

a)

Pulmonary vein

b)

Vena cava

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Coronary vein

17.

The picture shows a human heart. Which shows the sequence of blood flow through the heart?

a)

III ----> IV ----> I

b)

IV ----> III ----> II

c)

VII ----> VIII ----> I

d)

VIII ----> VII ----> VI

18.

Which hormone promotes the thickening of the endometrium and also inhibits the hormone that promotes the development of the follicle wall into the corpus luteum?

a)

LH

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

Estrogen

19.

Which row correctly matches the hormone with its site of production and its role?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.

What process is blocked by neonicotinoid pesticides in insects?

a)

Transmission of nerve impulses in the presynaptic neuron

b)

Formation of synaptic vesicles

c)

Release of neurotransmitter

d)

Binding of neurotransmitters to post synaptic acetylcholine receptors

21.

The picture shows a human heart. Which shows the sequence of blood flow through the heart?

a)

III ----> IV ----> I

b)

IV ----> III ----> II

c)

VII ----> VIII ----> I

d)

VIII ----> VII ----> VI

22.

What is the function of the alveoli?

a)

gas exchange

b)

ventilation

c)

respiration

d)

inspiration

23.

Which muscles are used during inhalation/inspiration?

a)

internal intercostals

b)

external intercostals

c)

diaphragm

d)

external intercostals and diaphragm

24.

What changes occur within the lungs with the external intercostals contract?

a)

both pressure and volume increase

b)

pressure increases and volume decreases

c)

pressure decreases and volume increases

d)

both pressure and volume decrease

25.

What feature of alveoli adapts them to efficient gas exchange?

a)

They have muscles which pump air in and out regularly.

b)

Their membranes are more permeable to gases than water.

c)

A constant blood supply flows through them.

d)

A dense network of capillaries surrounds them.

26.

The blood in the aorta is:

a)

deoxygenated

b)

oxygenated

27.

The blood in the pulmonary artery is:

a)

deoxygenated

b)

oxygenated

28.
Identify
a)
Left atrium
b)
Right atrium
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right ventricle
29.
Identify
a)
Left atrium
b)
Right atrium
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right ventricle
30.

The mammalian heart has ___ chambers.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

31.
This chamber of the heart RECEIVES blood returning from the body
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
32.
What is pulmonary circulation?
a)
Blood travelling to and from the lungs
b)
Blood travelling to and from the body
c)
A blood clot in the lungs
d)
The vessel that brings blood to the lungs
33.

Which vessel directly supplies the heart muscle with blood?

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Coronary artery

d)

Pulmonary vein

34.

What is the role of the sinoatrial node (SA node)?

a)

To initiate contraction of the ventricle

b)

To pass excitation through the Purkinje fibers

c)

To originate the excitation in the myogenic muscle

d)

To cause the relaxation of the atria

35.

Which of the following describes arteries?

a)

They have thick muscular walls

b)

They usually contain valves

c)

They carry blood toward the heart

d)

They carry blood from the lungs

36.

Identify:

a)

Lung

b)

Bronchus

c)

Salivary gland

d)

Alveoli

37.

Which part of the brain has a role in the control of the heartbeat?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Medulla

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

SA node

38.

Which chamber of the heart has the thickest walls?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

39.

Which feature maintains a high concentration gradient of gases in the ventilation system?

a)

thin-walled alveoli

b)

thin-walled capillaries

c)

a most lining of the alveoli

d)

blood flowing in the capillaries

40.

The way the brain increases heart rate is by sending the message via a hormone.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The way the brain increases heart rate is by sending the message via a nerve.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which protein carries most of the oxygen within red blood cells?

a)

Insulin

b)

Myosin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Rubisco

43.

Which blood vessel has valves?

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Capillary

44.

William Harvey discovered that blood flows away from the heart in arteries and back to he heart in veins. What hypothesis could be developed from this discovery?

a)

The human body contains both arteries and veins

b)

Blood vessels link up arteries to veins

c)

How blood moves from arteries into veins

d)

Veins are connected to the left side of the heart and arteries to the right side.

45.

Which cells produce surfactant within the lung?

a)

Type I pneumocytes

b)

Type II pneumocytes

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Epithelial cells

46.

Which is a known consequence of a coronary occlusion?

a)

Heart attack

b)

Capillary rupture

c)

Diabetes

d)

Trouble sleeping

47.

Blood pressure reads:

a)

Systolic/Diastolic

b)

Diastolic/Systolic

48.

During the cardiac cycle, which contract first?

a)

Atria

b)

Ventricles

49.

Which best describes the function of valves?

a)

To keep blood pumping

b)

To keep blood pressure up

c)

To keep blood moving in one direction

d)

To keep blood from going back to the heart

50.

What is thought of as the primary defenses against pathogens in the human body?

a)

Lymphocytes and phagocytes

b)

Antibodies and lymphocytes

c)

The skin and mucous membranes

d)

The circulatory system

51.

If the skin is broken then a blood clot forms to seal this cut.

What is the first step in the process of blood clotting?

a)

Fibrinogen turns into fibrin

b)

Platelets release clotting factors

c)

Fibrinogen is converted into thrombin

d)

Thrombin is converted into prothrombin

52.

What is the effect which thrombin has on the process of blood clotting?

a)

Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

b)

Prothrombin is converted to thrombin

c)

Platelets are caused to release clotting factors.

d)

Clotting factors are taken up by red blood cells.

53.

Which type of blood cells are capable of ingesting pathogens?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Antibodies

c)

Lymphocyte cells

d)

Phagocyte cells

54.

Anitigens on pathogens which have got into the human body can lead to the development of specific immunity.

That is an immunity which responds only to this antigen.

Which of the following cells causes the specific immunity?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Phagocytes

55.

Why do antibiotics have little or no effect on human cells, yet they can cause the death of bacteria?

a)

Antibiotics block prokaryote cell processes, but not the processes in eukaryote cells.

b)

Antibiotics can only affect cells below a certain size.

c)

Human cells have a protective plasma membrane which prokaryote cells don't have.

d)

Antibiotics are made of proteins which cannot pass through the plasma membrane.

56.

There are limits to the effectiveness of antibiotics.

Why is this?

a)

Viruses are not affected because they have no metabolism, and some bacteria have evolved resistance.

b)

Bacteria are not affected by antibiotics, only viruses.

c)

Only one species of bacteria is affected by a single antibiotic.

d)

Only some types of virus and bacteria are affected by antibiotics, because of the evolution of resistance.

57.

Which of the following best describes the effect of HIV on the immune system.

a)

HIV infection causes a reduction in the number of active blood cells resulting in a high fever.

b)

HIV reduces the number of active lymphocytes limiting the body's ability to produce antibodies.

c)

HIV reduces the number of active erythrocytes limiting the production of antibodies.

d)

HIV reduces the number of phagocytes which in turn limits the production of antibodies.

58.

When activated by the presence of a pathogen some lymphocytes produce antibodies and other lymphocytes act as memory cells.


Which of the following best describes the role of memory cells in the immune system?

a)

They store antigens from the pathogen for lymphocytes to use as a template for antibodies in the future.

b)

They remember the antigen on the pathogen and tell the lymphocytes how to respond if it is re-encountered.

c)

They quickly clone to form a group of phagocytes if the pathogen is re-encountered.

d)

They quickly clone to form a group of plasma cells if the pathogen is re-encountered.

59.

Which of the following is the best explanation of the likely consequences of a blood clot forming in a coronary artery?

a)

Part of the heart receives a slower supply of blood, and contractions of the heart become irregular.

b)

The blood is prevented from getting to the cardiac muscle and it stops contraction, the heart stops beating.

c)

The blood stops flowing into the heart and this prevents the flow of blood around the body.

d)

The blood clot moves from the coronary artery to the brain causing a stroke.

60.

Florey and Chain shared a Nobel Prize with Alexander Fleming for their work on penicilin.

Which of the following statements best describes their experiment which tested penecillin on mice?

a)

Four mice injected with a bacterial disease and four injected with penicillin to test toxicity and effectiveness.

b)

Two mice injected with penicillin and a bacterial disease to test both toxicity and effectiveness against bacteria.

c)

Toxicity test on two mice, then eight mice injected with a lethal dose of disease bacteria, four of which were also given penicillin to test its effectiveness against bacteria.

d)

Hundreds of mice injected with penicillin and their lives monitored to measure how many of the mice developed infections during their lives.

61.

Which of the following lists methods of transmission of HIV?

a)

Sex without a condom, from breast milk, contaminated blood transfusions.

b)

From saliva, sharing food and mosquito bites.

c)

From bodily fluids such as sweat, semen and saliva.

d)

Sex without a condom, mosquito bites and contaminated blood transfusions.

62.

What is the role of the hormone leptin?

a)

To regulate the metabolic rate

b)

To inhibit appetite

c)

To control circadian rhythms

d)

To increase blood sugar concentration

63.

The hormones insulin, glucagon, thyroxin and leptin can all affect energy storage in the body. Which hormone increases the rate of energy release and use?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Thyroxin

d)

Leptin

64.

Which hormone is part of a negative feedback control system and acts on cells in the hypothalamus?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Melatonin

d)

Leptin

65.

What helps to regulate the levels of glucose in blood?

a)

Insulin and glucagon

b)

Kidneys and liver

c)

Glycogen and insulin

d)

Digestion and respiration

66.

After 8 hours of sleep and before eating, which hormone will be secreted and what cells secrete it?

a)

Insulin-alpha cells

b)

Glucagon- alpha cells

c)

Insulin-Beta cells

d)

Glucagon- Beta cells

67.

Which hormone is matched with its site of production?

a)

Thyroxin- Adipose cells

b)

Leptin- Thyroid gland

c)

Melatonin-pineal gland

d)

Glucagon- pancreatic Beta cells

68.

The graph shows changes in an individual’s blood glucose concentration over time. What hormones were secreted at J and K?

a)

Epinephrin- insulin

b)

Insulin- Glucagon

c)

Glucagon- Insulin

d)

Thyroxin- epinephrin

69.

The graph shows the changes in blood glucose concentration of an untreated patient with type I diabetes and a non-diabetic person after a meal.

Which statement correctly describes the events in this untreated diabetic patient immediately after a meal was eaten?

a)

Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete too little glucagon.

b)

Beta cells of the pancreas secrete too little glucagon.

c)

Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete too little insulin.

d)

Beta cells of the pancreas secrete too little insulin.

70.

How can knowledge about the pineal gland function be applied?

a)

To restore sleep time by the use of melatonin

b)

To trigger ovulation during an IVF treatment

c)

To reduce sperm production in male contraception

d)

To regulate blood sugar in type I diabetes

71.

What characterizes type I diabetes?

a)

It can be controlled by diet alone.

b)

Risk factors such as obesity increase its frequency.

c)

The alpha cells of the pancreas are destroyed, usually during adulthood.

d)

The beta cells of the pancreas are destroyed, usually during childhood.

72.

On the graph, which curve represents the change in FSH levels during the menstrual cycle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

The diagram shows the human female reproductive system.

Which labels indicate where fertilization occurs (X) and where luteinizing hormone (LH) acts (Y)?

a)

X: 1 Y:3

b)

X:2 Y:5

c)

X:3 Y:4

d)

X:1 Y: 5

74.

The diagram shows the human male reproductive system.

Which numbers indicate a gland providing fluid for sperm (X) and a tube that transports sperm only (Y) ?

a)

X:1 Y: 2

b)

X:5 Y:3

c)

X:4 Y:3

d)

X:5 Y:2

75.

Which pituitary hormones regulate the human menstrual cycle?

a)

FSH and LH

b)

Progesterone and estrogen

c)

HCG and estrogen

d)

FSH and oxytocin

76.

Which hormone promotes the thickening of the endometrium and also inhibits the hormone that promotes the development of the follicle wall into the corpus luteum?

a)

LH

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

Estrogen

77.

The diagram shows the male reproductive organs in front view. Which structures are indicated by the letters X and Y?

a)

X: sperm duct Y: Epididymis

b)

X: sperm duct Y: Seminal vesicle

c)

X: fallopian tube Y: Epididymis

d)

X: fallopian tube Y:prostate gland

78.

Which is a negative feedback mechanism in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Follicle stimulating hormone inhibits estrogen

b)

Estrogen inhibits luteinizing hormone

c)

Estrogen inhibits follicle stimulating hormone

d)

Progesterone inhibits estrogen

79.

Which two hormones promote thickening of the endometrium?

a)

FSH and LH

b)

Estrogen and FSH

c)

LH and estrogen

d)

Progesterone and estrogen

80.

Which structure in male reproductive system brings the sperm to maturity and stores the sperm cells?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Testes

c)

Epidiydymis

d)

Seminal vesicles

81.

Menstruation involves.....

a)

the production of eggs

b)

shedding the inner lining of the uterus

c)

the production of estrogen

d)

ovulation

82.

Which of the following is not a function of bones and endoskeleton?

a)

acting as levers

b)

providing structural support

c)

providing force for movement

d)

anchoring muscles

83.

Which types of movement are permitted by the elbow joint?

a)

flexion and extension

b)

abduction and adduction

c)

rotation

d)

all the above

84.

Which types of movement are permitted by the elbow joint?

a)

flexion and extension

b)

abduction and adduction

c)

rotation

d)

all the above

85.

Which types of movement are permitted by the hip joint?

a)

flexion and extension

b)

adduction and abduction

c)

rotation

d)

all the above

86.

Which letter represents the triceps muscle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

G

d)

H

87.

Which letter represents the ulna and cartilage respectively?

a)

E and C

b)

F and D

c)

F and C

d)

E and D

88.

Which letter represents the triceps muscle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

G

d)

H

89.

Which letter represents the ulna and cartilage respectively?

a)

E and C

b)

F and D

c)

F and C

d)

E and D

90.

Which is not a function of cartilage?

a)

absorbing mechanical shocks

b)

reducing friction between bones

c)

connecting bones to muscles

d)

allowing smooth movement between bones

91.

What is the function of synovial fluid?

a)

protecting the ends of bones

b)

providing force for movement

c)

creating hydrostatic pressure

d)

lubricating joints

92.

Which of the following does not apply to skeletal muscle tissue?

a)

muscle fibers contain intercalated discs

b)

myofibrils have repeated units called sarcomeres

c)

muscle fibres contain many contractile elements called myofibrils

d)

a muscle fibre is multinucleated

93.

Which number represents myosin filament?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

3

d)

4

94.

The length of a sarcomere is represented by

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

6

95.

The A band contains

a)

actin filaments only

b)

myosin filaments only

c)

both myosin and actin filaments

d)

neither myosin nor actin filaments

96.

When a muscle contracts

a)

both actin and myosin become shorter in length

b)

myosin heads pull the actin towards the M line

c)

actin heads pull myosin towards H line

d)

the sarcomere length increases

97.

When activated B cells multiply, what do they produce?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Antigens

c)

Histamines

d)

T lymphocytes

98.

What is a role of activated B cells?

a)

Secrete antibiotics in response to specific antigens

b)

Activate T cells in the immune response

c)

Release histamine in response to allergens

d)

Multiply to form clones of plasma cells

99.

What is an example of active immunity?

a)

Antibodies passed from the mother to fetus across the placenta

b)

Antibodies produced by another organism and injected to protect against a disease

c)

Antibodies passed from the mother in colostrum during breastfeeding

d)

Antibodies produced after the defense mechanisms have been stimulated by antigens

100.

How are monoclonal antibodies produced?

a)

Fusion of plasma cells with B cells

b)

Fusion of plasma cells with tumor cells

c)

Fusion of T cells with B cells

d)

Fusion of T cells with tumor cells

101.

What is an example of active immunity?

a)

Antibodies passed from the mother to fetus across the placenta

b)

Antibodies produced by another organism and injected to protect against a disease

c)

Antibodies passed from the mother in colostrum during breastfeeding

d)

Antibodies produced after the defense mechanisms have been stimulated by antigens

102.

A secondary immune response occurs when an antigen is encountered on a second occasion, due to exposure to a pathogen that previously caused infection. Which property of some viruses explains the lack of a secondary immune response?

a)

Viruses fail to induce a primary response.

b)

Viruses can have a high mutation rate.

c)

B cells do not interact with viruses.

d)

Antibodies cannot interact with viruses.

103.

What is directly responsible for allergic symptoms, including a runny nose or itchy eyes?

a)

Pathogens

b)

T-lymphocytes

c)

Histamine

d)

Antigens

104.

Mucus traps pathogenic bacteria. Mucus also attracts viruses that attack pathogenic bacteria. What part of the immune system do these viruses resemble in their function?

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Memory cells

d)

Antibiotics

105.

Any foreign molecule that can trigger an immune response is called a(n):

a)

antibody

b)

histamine

c)

antigen

d)

B lymphocyte

106.

Plasma cells secrete:

a)

bacteria

b)

histamines

c)

antigens

d)

antibodies

107.

What is a macrophage's main function?

a)

To ingest pathogens

b)

To produce antigens

c)

To produce antibodies

d)

To divide to produce memory cells

108.

Monocytes move from the systemic circulatory system into general connective tissues, where they differentiate into what phagocytic cell type?

a)

Macrophage

b)

T cell

c)

B cell

d)

Neutrophils

109.

Disease fighting cells are stored all throughout the body.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which of the following remember antigens that have already attacked the body?

a)

Antibodies

b)

B cells

c)

Antigens

d)

Memory cells

111.

Which of the following diseases is known to be caused by a glitch in the immune system?

a)

Asthma

b)

Cancer

c)

Type I Diabetes

d)

Type II Diabetes

112.

Which of the following are proteins that fight off diseases?

a)

Antibodies

b)

B cells

c)

T cells

d)

Antigens

113.

How do antibodies fight antigens?

a)

Specific binding sites on antibodies join with specific markers on antigens

b)

Antibodies destroy all the cells they come in contact with

c)

Antibodies attack 'good' and 'bad' cells

d)

None of the above

114.

Each B cell can make multiple types of antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

The diagram shows a section through the seminiferous tubules. What is the cell labelled X?

a)

Spermatid that will differentiate into sperm

b)

Primary spermatocyte that will undergo meiosis to form secondary spermatocytes

c)

Sertoli cell that provides nutrients

d)

Stem cell that will divide by mitosis to form spermatogonia

116.

The image shows a light micrograph of tissue stained with a dye that binds to the nucleic acids in a cell. What is the major purpose of the tissue depicted in the image?

a)

Absorption of digested food

b)

Production of insulin

c)

Spermatogenesis

d)

Fertilization

117.

The image shows a flow chart. Which sequence would correspond to the stages shown in the flow chart?

a)

sexual intercourse--ovulation--pregnancy--maintenance of endometrium

b)

disintegration of corpus luteum--pituitary gland activity-estrogen production-- ovulation

c)

mitosis--growth--differentiation--pregnancy

d)

implanted embryo--corpus luteum of ovary--progesterone production--maintenance of endometrium

118.

If the ovaries of a pregnant woman have to be removed during the first five months of pregnancy, a miscarriage results and the pregnancy fails. If the ovaries are removed in the last four months of pregnancy, the miscarriage does not occur. What is the reason for this?

a)

After the fifth month, the ovaries can regenerate rapidly.

b)

The placenta produces sufficient hormones to sustain the pregnancy.

c)

The pituitary gland takes over the function of sustaining the pregnancy.

d)

Before removal the ovaries produce sufficient hormones to sustain the pregnancy.

119.

Which interaction occurs between hormones in the reproductive systems of women?

a)

Estrogen from the corpus luteum stimulates secretion of FSH.

b)

Estrogen from the follicle stimulates secretion of LH at midcycle.

c)

Progesterone stimulates secretion of LH after ovulation.

d)

During birth, progesterone stimulates secretion of oxytocin.

120.

The diagram shows the female reproductive system. Which structures do K and L identify?

a)

K: endometrium L: uterine wall

b)

K: placenta L: endometrium

c)

K: amnion L: placenta

d)

K: fetus L: uterine wall

121.

Which hormone is inhibited during pregnancy in order to prevent contractions of the uterus?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Estrogen

d)

FSH

122.

The diagram shows the exchange processes that take place in the placenta between the maternal and fetal blood. Which process requires endocytosis?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

123.

What does the blastocyst secrete?

a)

HCG

b)

Estrogen

c)

ADH

d)

Progesterone

124.

What helps to prevent polyspermy?

a)

The unequal division of oocytes

b)

The placental barrier

c)

The contraceptive pill

d)

The cortical reaction

125.

Where does the acrosome reaction occur?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.

The image shows a section of a seminiferous tubule. What is shown by the letter X?

a)

Meiosis I in a primary spermatocyte

b)

A spermatogonium undergoing mitosis

c)

Meiosis II in a secondary spermatocyte

d)

A spermatid undergoing meiosis

127.

Through what process does a spermatid become a functioning spermatozoan?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Differentiation

c)

Fertilization

d)

Meiosis

128.

The image shows the male reproduction system. Where is prostate cancer likely to start developing?

a)

In X only

b)

In Y and Z only

c)

In Z only

d)

In X, Y and Z

129.

What is the function of the epididymis in the male reproduction system?

a)

To stimulate sperm production by secreting testosterone

b)

To store the sperm in the final stages of maturation

c)

To provide fluids to nourish the sperm

d)

To transport the sperm from the testes to the urethra

130.

From where is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) secreted in early pregnancy?

a)

Embryo

b)

Corpus luteum

c)

Ovary

d)

Pituitary gland

131.

Which event takes place during normal fertilization?

a)

The acrosome fuses with the egg membrane.

b)

The entire sperm cell enters the egg cytoplasm.

c)

The egg divides to form a blastocyst.

d)

The cortical granules fuse with the egg membrane.

132.

What does the sperm duct do?

a)

It stores sperm.

b)

It allows the degeneration of the sperm cells themselves.

c)

It allows the transit of sperm from the testicles to the outside of the body.

d)

It produces testosterone

133.

Where does the cervix lie?

a)

On the outside of the female genitals.

b)

Next to the ovaries.

c)

On the fallopian tube.

d)

The narrow passage forming the lower end of the uterus.

134.

How is a zygote formed?

a)

A sperm meets an egg inside the fallopian tube.

b)

A sperm meets an egg inside the uterus of a female.

c)

An egg meets a sperm inside the vagina of a female.

d)

A sperm meets an egg inside the cervix of a female.