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Political Science Unit 1 (Chapters 1-4) Study Exam

Total questions: 187

Worksheet time: 2hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A direct democracy is a system in which

a)

representatives meet to discuss policy and make decisions.

b)

the masses have certain rights, but decisions are made by a council.

c)

citizens are permitted to vote directly on laws and policies.

d)

an elite makes decisions for the society.

2.

In a democracy, popular sovereignty is vested in

a)

the president.

b)

Congress.

c)

the federal government.

d)

the people.

3.

In a representative democracy, public policies are determined by

a)

officials regularly chosen by the people.

b)

consensus.

c)

a small group of individuals such as landowners or military officials.

d)

arrangements such as popular referendums and initiatives.

4.

If you believe that most laws should be passed through popular initiatives or ballot referendums, which form of governance would you prefer?

a)

representative democracy

b)

totalitarianism

c)

direct democracy

d)

monarchy

5.

If you believe you can affect government, you believe you possess a sense of political

a)

socialization.

b)

culture.

c)

satisfaction.

d)

efficacy.

6.

The principle that suggests "one person, one vote" refers to

a)

social equality.

b)

equality of opportunity.

c)

equality of outcome.

d)

political equality.

7.

The government of the United States is best characterized as

a)

a direct democracy.

b)

authoritarian.

c)

totalitarian.

d)

a republic.

8.

The key political values of the United States are

a)

liberty, equality, and democracy.

b)

liberty, democracy, and capitalism.

c)

liberty, equality, and minority rights.

d)

liberty and responsibility.

9.

Under a system of laissez-faire capitalism, the role of government is to

a)

interfere with the market as little as possible.

b)

regulate the market in order to protect the public.

c)

choose the most successful industries.

d)

ensure access to free public education.

10.

As a result of the increasing availability of the internet, the United States is seeing a rise in __________ citizenship.

a)

offline

b)

digital

c)

social

d)

political

11.

Distrust in government best explains which one of the following?

a)

an increase in numbers of undocumented immigrants

b)

the rise of ISIS

c)

the rise of political outsiders in the 2015-2016 elections

d)

Russian interference in elections

12.

Which of the following is the term generally used to describe the institutions and procedures through which a territory and its people are ruled?

a)

government

b)

legislature

c)

economy

d)

politics

13.

An aging population poses challenges to the United States because

a)

it raises questions about how to fund programs for the elderly such as Social Security.

b)

of the decrease in the population who are military ready.

c)

of a significant increase of people in the workforce.

d)

of a decrease in of digital citizenship.

14.

Although not as an enduring a topic of political controversy in the US as compared to other countries, discussion of which type of inequality has risen specifically due to the recession of 2008?

a)

racial inequality

b)

gender inequality

c)

income inequality

d)

ethnic inequality

15.

Which of the following statements is accurate?

a)

Income inequality has been relatively stable throughout American history.

b)

The numbers of poor and near poor have recently steadied.

c)

By 2015 income inequality was lessening, with the top 1 percent earning about 1 percent of the national income.

d)

By 2015 income inequality has widened once again, with the top 1 percent earning 20.3 percent of the national income.

16.

A belief in equality of opportunity is

a)

a major part of U.S. political culture.

b)

secondary to a belief of total freedom in U.S. political culture.

c)

not a part of U.S. political culture.

d)

viewed similarly by both U.S. and European political cultures.

17.

A government is made up of the

a)

corporate structure of a nation.

b)

military-industrial establishment.

c)

formal institutions that rule a people and territory.

d)

political ideologies of elected officials.

18.

Governments whose powers are limited through a system of rules and institutions are known as __________ governments.

a)

constitutional

b)

oligarchic

c)

totalitarian

d)

authoritarian

19.

Personal and economic freedom are both definitions of

a)

liberty.

b)

equality.

c)

capitalism.

d)

minority rights.

20.

The conflicts and struggles over a government's leadership, structure, and policies is called

a)

politics.

b)

constitutionalism.

c)

power.

d)

authority.

21.

Which of the following statements regarding voting is most accurate?

a)

Citizens with less political knowledge participate more.

b)

Citizens with more political knowledge participate less.

c)

Citizens with more political knowledge participate more.

d)

Political knowledge has no noticeable effect on participation rates.

22.

If you lived under a government that had unlimited political power, you would be living in which of the following regime types?

a)

totalitarian

b)

democratic

c)

capitalist

d)

representative

23.

Which of the following can be said to have characterized American politics for much of the past half-century?ccccc

a)

a rising practice of bipartisanism

b)

a growing level of voter participation

c)

a pervasive sense of apathy and distrust

d)

a decrease in digital citizenship

24.

Which of the following statements about recent immigration trends and the foreign-born population in the United States is accurate?

a)

Census figures for 2016 show that the total Hispanic proportion of the population is now 25 percent.

b)

People born in Asia constitute the second-largest group of foreign-born residents, making up about 31 percent.

c)

In 2016, 7 percent of the population was born outside the United States.

d)

Nearly 10 percent of the population now identifies itself as of "two or more races."

25.

American democracy rests on the principle of __________ rule with __________ rights.

a)

minority; majority

b)

Democratic; Republican

c)

majority; minority

d)

Republican; Democratic

26.

Congress's ability to pass laws necessary to carry out its expressed powers is known as the __________ clause.

a)

expressed powers

b)

federalism

c)

delegated powers

d)

elastic

27.

In the debate between Federalists and Antifederalists over limited government,

a)

Antifederalists wanted the powers of the national government to be broad and unlimited.

b)

Federalists favored a national government that was carefully specified and limited.

c)

Antifederalists considered a bill of rights to be unnecessary.

d)

Federalists favored a national government with broad powers.

28.

Which of the following most demonstrated the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation, leading to the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Boston Massacre

b)

Battle of Bunker Hill

c)

Battle of Gettysburg

d)

Shays's Rebellion

29.

The Articles of Confederation

a)

promoted a strong executive government.

b)

created a strong central government.

c)

maintained state independence, freedom, and sovereignty.

d)

created a nationwide judiciary.

30.

The Bill of Rights mollified concerns about

a)

an overly powerful central government.

b)

conflict between branches of the federal government.

c)

the weakness of government, as exemplified by Shays's Rebellion.

d)

blurring the political lines between the branches of government.

31.

The core component of the Virginia Plan was that

a)

individual state laws would supersede national law.

b)

each state would be equally represented in the new regime, regardless of the size of its population.

c)

a weak central government would be needed to protect individual states from aristocratic tyranny.

d)

it provided for a system of representation in the national legislature based on the population of each state, the proportion of each state's revenue contribution to the national government, or both.

32.

The executive leader or presiding officer specified by the Articles of Confederation

a)

did not exist; the Articles specified no executive leader.

b)

was appointed by the state legislatures.

c)

was appointed by Congress.

d)

enjoyed the support of popular opinion.

33.

The New England-based merchants and southern planters

a)

organized together in support of the taxes imposed by the Stamp and Sugar Acts.

b)

were key rivals that comprise the Jeffersonians and Antifederalists, respectively.

c)

opposed different factions within Parliament.

d)

organized together in opposition to taxes imposed by the Stamp Act and the Sugar Act.

34.

Marbury v. Madison (1803) established which power that was not expressly written in the Constitution?

a)

executive prerogative

b)

judicial review

c)

congressional supremacy

d)

states' rights

35.

Under the Great Compromise, the Senate

a)

became the arena for large states to dominate.

b)

was an arena wherein large and small states would compete on equal footing.

c)

differed very little from representation patterns in the Articles of Confederation.

d)

could be overruled by the House of Representatives.

36.

Which of the following did the Antifederalists most vigorously disapprove of?

a)

the elastic clause

b)

the Tenth Amendment

c)

Article V of the Constitution

d)

Article III of the Constitution

37.

Which of the following statements about the Declaration of Independence is accurate?

a)

It made no attempts to forge a national or American unity for fear of creating another monarchy to replace the British one.

b)

It used the language of Britain's own constitution against it by asserting that individual citizens possess certain inalienable rights.

c)

It specifically identified and focused on grievances, aspirations, and principles that might unify the various colonial groups.

d)

It was written jointly by members of the First Continental Congress and adopted by the Second Continental Congress.

38.

States are granted the right to powers not given to the national government by the Constitution through which of the following?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Three-Fifths Compromise

d)

Tenth Amendment

39.

Which of the following structural aspects was established for the legislature by the Constitution?

a)

Senators were given four-year terms of office.

b)

The Senate was given the sole power to generate revenue bills.

c)

The Senate was given the power to approve presidential appointments.

d)

The House was given the power to ratify treaties.

40.

If you supported ratification of the Constitution and preferred a stronger national government than the Articles of Confederation provided, you would most likely belong to which group?

a)

Federalist

b)

Antifederalist

c)

Jeffersonian

d)

Washingtonian

41.

Citizens and the media today often frown on congressional deliberations and government's slow pace. What might the Founders argue about the slow pace of government?

a)

It may be a benefit because it compels government to take many interests and viewpoints into account when making policies.

b)

It is a hindrance to democracy and more authoritative government is needed.

c)

Government inaction leads to a decline in citizen wellbeing.

d)

Such a slow pace of government is the reason they set congressional term limits.

42.

The Federalist Papers were written by

a)

John Adams, Alexander Hamilton, and James Madison

b)

John Jay, Alexander Hamilton, and Thomas Jefferson.

c)

Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison.

d)

Alexander Hamilton, George Washington, and James Madison.

43.

Which of the following actions did the delegates of the first Continental Congress take?

a)

They declared independence from Great Britain.

b)

They called for a total boycott of British goods.

c)

They elected George Washington as general of the Colonial Army.

d)

They wrote the pamphlet Common Sense, which argued for independence from British rule.

44.

The focus of the Declaration of Independence on "life liberty, and the pursuit of happiness" was most inspired by which political philosopher?

a)

Thomas Hobbes

b)

Alexis de Tocqueville

c)

John Locke

d)

Edmund Burke

45.

A president who enacts a veto over legislation proposed by Congress is using which of the following constitutional principles?

a)

reserved powers

b)

national supremacy

c)

checks and balances.

d)

executive privilege

46.

If Congress wants to create a law based on constitutional principles that are not expressly mentioned in the text, what power does it use to do so?

a)

establishment clause

b)

national supremacy clause

c)

congressional powers clause

d)

elastic clause

47.

If you were living in colonial America, what issue more than any other would most likely motivate you to rebel against Great Britain?

a)

trade

b)

taxes

c)

tariffs

d)

foreign alliances

48.

Which of the following statements is true about the Three-Fifths Compromise?

a)

It settled the question of how many senators each state would get.

b)

It created a system to elect the president of the United States.

c)

Under this compromise, five slaves would count as three free persons in apportioning seats in the House of Representatives.

d)

Only three-fifths of all slaves were allowed to vote in national elections.

49.

Generally speaking, if a state or local law contradicts federal law, it is more likely to be ruled unconstitutional if challenged in courts because of the __________ clause.

a)

commerce

b)

supremacy

c)

necessary and proper

d)

full faith and credit

50.

Which two entities have responsibility for overseeing the appointment and approval of federal judges?

a)

the president and the House of Representatives

b)

the Senate and the president

c)

the president and the Supreme Court

d)

the Senate and the Supreme Court

51.

Some states have legalized certain drugs even though those same drugs are illegal according to national law. This contrast occurs because the United States has which type of government?

a)

unitary

b)

a monarchy

c)

a confederation

d)

federal

52.

A unitary system is a

a)

government in which states hold power over a limited national government.

b)

government in which the national government holds most authority.

c)

government in which power is distributed between the state and national governments.

d)

weak government that has limited power.

53.

Of the powers contained within the U.S. Constitution, which are most clearly articulated?

a)

executive powers

b)

reserved powers

c)

expressed powers

d)

implied powers

54.

General revenue-sharing grants are a central component of the process of devolution, which is a policy

a)

in which local and state governments ask the federal government for more aid in a particular area.

b)

of adding an additional layer of government to achieve optimal outcomes.

c)

to remove a program from one level of government by delegating it or passing it down to a lower form of government.

d)

allowing for a project to be unfunded in cases where no layer of government claims responsibility.

55.

In what way does the comity clause promote national unity?

a)

It limits the strength of the supremacy clause by maintaining some state power in matters of internal and interstate commerce.

b)

It establishes that the federal government would have to offer the same grants, and same grant conditions, uniformly to the states.

c)

It prevents states from discriminating against someone from another state or giving special privileges to their own residents.

d)

It forces states to enforce the laws of other states.

56.

The full faith and credit clause

a)

requires that the national government meet its financial obligations to the states.

b)

reserves power to the state government to regulate the health and safety of its citizens.

c)

requires that each state's public actions and judicial proceedings be honored by the other states.

d)

allows Congress to make all laws necessary and proper to carry out its expressed powers.

57.

The necessary and proper clause (Article I, Section 8) of the U.S. Constitution is the source of which of the following powers?

a)

delegated

b)

reserved

c)

expressed

d)

implied

58.

If your city or town’s government had certain powers delegated to it by your state government in order for it to manage some of its own affairs, your local government would have been granted

a)

local rule.

b)

states' rights.

c)

home rule.

d)

local rights.

59.

The Tenth Amendment states that

a)

all people are guaranteed freedom of speech and freedom of religion.

b)

the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.

c)

no state shall deprive any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

d)

Congress makes all laws that are "necessary and proper" for the implementation of its expressed powers.

60.

The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the right of the national government to create a national bank and reaffirmed the notion of national supremacy in which landmark case?

a)

Chisholm v. Georgia (1793)

b)

Barron v. Baltimore (1833)

c)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

61.

What is an unfunded mandate?

a)

a federal law that requires the states to do certain things but does not provide state governments with the funding to implement these policies

b)

a federal policy objective that lacks the required federal funding to achieve implementation, and for which the national government must rely on state aid

c)

an action the U.S. Supreme Court can use to enforce decisions that relate to both the legislative and executive branches

d)

a state-generated law or policy objective that fails to receive additional funding by the federal government

62.

What is the defining characteristic of dual federalism?

a)

The national government has more powers granted to it than the state or local governments.

b)

State governments have more powers granted to them than the local or federal governments.

c)

States and the federal government share responsibility concerning most powers.

d)

Local governments have more powers granted to them than the state or federal governments.

63.

If a state refused to recognize the marriage of a same-sex couple, and a case went to court about the nonrecognition, which case would be the precedent mandating the state to recognize the marriage?

a)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

b)

Dole v. South Dakota (1985)

c)

Obergefell v. Hodges (2015)

d)

Alabama v. Garrett (2001)

64.

Which of the following has been a key characteristic of federalism in the United States since the year 2000?

a)

the Supreme Court's rejection of a greater role for federal power in the regulation of health care

b)

greater state initiative in the realm of immigration law and policy due to federal inaction

c)

a broad reduction in federal power under Republican presidential leadership

d)

a general trend in Supreme Court decisions toward weaker federal control over the states

65.

Which of the following issues has been the most controversial between states and the federal government during the Trump administration?

a)

immigration

b)

same-sex marriage

c)

health care

d)

terrorism

66.

Which type of grant provides the most control to state and local governments in the distribution of federal grants-in-aid?

a)

formula

b)

project

c)

categorical

d)

block

67.

Why is post-New Deal federalism sometimes referred to as "marble cake" or cooperative federalism?

a)

Post-New Deal federalism created a system in which national grants encouraged states to implement national policies, somewhat blurring the lines between national and state governments.

b)

It saw an end to the process of grants-in-aid to states, resulting in a clearer division of policy goals between the states and the national government.

c)

It saw the rise of the dual federalist model, in which most fundamental governmental powers were shared between the federal and state governments.

d)

It developed a form of cooperative federalism that favored state policy over national policy.

68.

Block grants consist of federal aid to state or local governments that is

a)

divided into discrete "blocks" of grants, each capped at $50 million.

b)

to be spent on any policy area decided on by the state or local government.

c)

to be spent within a specified policy area, though without the narrow regulations of categorical grants.

d)

contingent on state or local endorsement of some contentious piece of federal legislation.

69.

A power that is held by both the states and the national government (for example the power of taxation) best fits which of the following concepts?

a)

reserved power

b)

concurrent power

c)

expressed power

d)

implied power

70.

Cooperative federalism is best defined as

a)

a form of federalism in which Congress imposes legislation on states and localities, requiring them to meet national standards.

b)

a type of federalism existing since the New Deal era in which grants-in-aid have been used strategically to encourage states and localities to pursue nationally defined goals.

c)

the system of government that prevailed in the United States from 1789 to 1937, in which most fundamental governmental powers were shared between the federal and state governments.

d)

a centralized system of government in which lower levels of government have little power independent of the national government.

71.

In a federal system, power is distributed

a)

within the state governments.

b)

between the state and local governments.

c)

within the national government

d)

between the state and national governments.

72.

Most of the rules and regulations Americans face in their daily lives, especially domestic concerns such as enforcing criminal codes, administering health and safety rules, and regulating the family via marriage and divorce laws, are set by

a)

state and local governments.

b)

the federal government.

c)

regulatory commissions.

d)

the U.S. Supreme Court.

73.

If members of a state legislature want to establish new powers that are not expressed in the U.S. Constitution, what allows them to so do?

a)

the Declaration of Independence

b)

eminent domain

c)

the Tenth Amendment

d)

home rule

74.

What type of situation in American federalism has often resulted in the act of preemption?

a)

A state refuses federal funding because the funding comes with additional policy requirements.

b)

A state action is found to be inconsistent with a federal requirement.

c)

A federal law is found to be encroaching on the reserved powers of the states.

d)

The federal government releases a state from the responsibility to abide by a particular guideline or regulation.

75.

Which of the following would best exemplify a characteristic of a unitary system of government?

a)

The national government selects the textbooks and curriculum for all schools.

b)

The national government provides categorical grants to the states with heavy policy restrictions for their use.

c)

The national government trains and operates a military and has exclusive power to control its use overseas.

d)

The state governments must defer to national governments in most of the regulation of interstate commerce.

76.

Civil rights are

a)

government protections of citizen equality.

b)

freedoms of expression.

c)

unwritten guarantees of individual liberty.

d)

concerned with limiting democracy.

77.

In Grutter v. Bollinger (2003), the Supreme Court ruled that Michigan Law School's affirmative action policy was

a)

constitutional, since the Bakke decision allowed quotas.

b)

constitutional, since race was used in a holistic and individualized way and not as a quota.

c)

unconstitutional, since race can never be a factor in admissions.

d)

unconstitutional, since diversity in education is not a compelling state interest.

78.

Laws and cases involving the right to privacy are often difficult to decide because

a)

they often deny individual liberties.

b)

they exclude protection to certain groups.

c)

they are not directly mentioned in the Bill of Rights but rather inferred from them.

d)

they deal with national security concerns.

79.

Segregation or discriminatory practices that occur even when there is no explicit legal enforcement, such as school segregation in much of the United States today, is called __________ segregation.

a)

de jure

b)

de facto

c)

state-sanctioned

d)

discriminatory

80.

The final provision of the Bill of Rights to be incorporated be the Supreme Court was the

a)

Second Amendment.

b)

Fourth Amendment.

c)

Sixth Amendment.

d)

Tenth Amendment.

81.

Speech that is accompanied by conduct and that can be regulated by the government to preserve public order is called

a)

pure speech.

b)

limited speech.

c)

conditional expression.

d)

speech plus.

82.

The __________ became the first bill that President Obama signed into law, giving workers expanded rights to sue when an employee learns of discriminatory treatment well after it has started.

a)

Race to the Top Act

b)

Affordable Care Act

c)

Equal Opportunity Act

d)

Lily Ledbetter Fair Pay Act

83.

The Bill of Rights consists of

a)

all the rights protections in the U.S. Constitution.

b)

the first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution.

c)

the freedoms of speech, expression, and assembly

d)

the Civil War Amendments.

84.

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 addressed discrimination in, among other areas,

a)

public accommodations and employment.

b)

loan applications.

c)

the military.

d)

the establishment of affirmative action.

85.

Which clause protects a citizen's right to believe and practice any religion?

a)

necessary and proper clause

b)

equal protection clause

c)

freedom of conscience clause

d)

free exercise clause

86.

The most dramatic restraint imposed on police by the Bill of Rights, which can free people who are known to have committed the crime of which they have been accused, is the

a)

establishment clause.

b)

takings clause.

c)

Miranda rule.

d)

exclusionary rule.

87.

The Supreme Court narrowed restrictive gun control policies and expanded gun ownership rights in which of the following cases?

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

United States v. Williams

c)

Near v. Minnesota

d)

Snyder v. Phelps

88.

A written statement made in reckless disregard of the truth that is considered damaging to a victim because it is malicious, scandalous, and defamatory is known as

a)

libel.

b)

slander.

c)

hate speech.

d)

gossip.

89.

Which of the following is established by the Fifth Amendment?

a)

Any rights or powers not granted to the federal government are reserved for the states or the people.

b)

The executive branch cannot infringe on the right of the people to keep arms.

c)

The courts cannot hold trials for serious offenses without provision for a grand jury.

d)

Congress cannot make any law establishing a religion or abridging freedoms of religious exercise.

90.

Which of the following liberties protect every individual against arbitrary action by national or state governments?

a)

equality rights

b)

private rights

c)

due process of law

d)

due procedural laws

91.

Republicans and Democrats disagree over this type of voter law; Republicans say it protects the sanctity of the ballot, while Democrats fear it suppresses turnout.

a)

equal rights amendment

b)

undocumented immigrants

c)

voter ID laws

d)

partisan gerrymandering

92.

The Miranda rule

a)

upheld reproductive rights for women.

b)

established the exclusionary rule, which prevents evidence that was collected improperly from being used during a trial.

c)

states that people who have been accused of a crime cannot be tried twice for the same offense.

d)

states that people who are under arrest must be informed prior to police interrogation of their rights to remain silent and to have the benefit of legal counsel

93.

The doctrine of __________ scrutiny places a heavy burden of proof on the government if it seeks to regulate or restrict speech.

a)

moderate

b)

strict

c)

original

d)

free

94.

A court order demanding that an individual in custody be brought into court and shown the reason for detention is known as

a)

Nordus Ordo.

b)

a writ of cert.

c)

habeas corpus.

d)

stare decisis.

95.

Which body determines whether sufficient evidence is available to justify a trial and is provided by the Fifth Amendment?

a)

trial jury

b)

judicial committee

c)

grand jury

d)

select committee

96.

Prior restraint, which in most instances is forbidden in the United States, is type of

a)

rule on commercial speech.

b)

detention that prevents an illegal act before it is committed.

c)

indefinite detention without trial.

d)

government censorship.

97.

Which of the following places restraints on how the government is supposed to act?

a)

substantive liberties

b)

procedural liberties

c)

ex post facto liberties

d)

natural liberties

98.

Which of the following statements concerning the death penalty is true?

a)

Since the 1990s there has been a steady increase in the number of death penalty sentences and executions.

b)

Since the 1990s there has been a steady increase in the number of death penalty sentences and a steady decrease in executions.

c)

Since the 1990s there has been a steady decrease in the number of death penalty sentences and executions.

d)

Since the 1990s there has been a steady decrease in the number of death penalty sentences but an increase in executions.

99.

Which of the following was not explicitly granted in the Bill of Rights?

a)

freedom of religion

b)

the right to privacy

c)

the right to petition

d)

freedom of speech

100.

Individual rights and personal freedoms with which governments may not interfere and freedoms from government are known as

a)

the Universal Charter on Human Rights.

b)

Rights of Man.

c)

civil rights.

d)

civil liberties.

101.

institutions and procedures through which a territory and its people are ruled

(a)  

102.

a system of rule in which the government recognizes no formal limit but may nevertheless be restrained by the power of other social institutions

(a)  

103.

a system of rule in which the government recognizes no formal limits on its power and seeks to absorb or eliminate other social institutions that might challenge it

(a)  

104.

a system of rule that permits citizens to play a significant part in the governmental process, usually through the election of key public officials

(a)  

105.

a system of rule in which formal and effective limits are placed on the powers of the government

(a)  

106.

conflict over the leadership, structure, and policies of governments

(a)  

107.

influence over a government's leadership, organization, or policies

(a)  

108.

a system of government in which the populace selects representatives, who play a significant role in governmental decision making

(a)  

109.

a system of rule that permits citizens to vote directly on laws and policies

(a)  

110.

possessing information about the formal institutions of government, political actors, and political issues

(a)  

111.

informed and active membership in a political community

(a)  

112.

the ability to influence government and politics

(a)  

113.

freedom from government control

(a)  

114.

a principle of constitutional government; a government whose powers are defined and limited by a constitution

(a)  

115.

an economic system in which the means of production and distribution are privately owned and operated for profit with minimal or no government interference

(a)  

116.

a widely shared American ideal that all people should have the freedom to use whatever talents and wealth they have to reach their fullest potential

(a)  

117.

the right to participate in politics equally, based on the principle of "one person, one vote"

(a)  

118.

a principle of democracy in which political authority rests ultimately in the hands of the people

(a)  

119.

the democratic principle that a government follows the preferences of the majority of voters but protects the interests of the minority

(a)  

120.

America's first written constitution; served as the basis for America's national government until 1789

(a)  

121.

a system of government in which states retain sovereign authority except for the powers expressly delegated to the national government

(a)  

122.

a framework for the Constitution, introduced by Edmund Randolph, that called for representation in the national legislature based on the population of each state

(a)  

123.

a framework for the Constitution, introduced by William Paterson, that called for equal state representation in the national legislature regardless of population

(a)  

124.

the agreement reached at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 that gave each state an equal number of senators regardless of its population but linked representation in the House of Representatives to population

(a)  

125.

the agreement reached at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 that stipulated that for purposes of the apportionment of congressional seats only three-fifths of slaves would be counted

(a)  

126.

having a legislative assembly composed of two chambers or houses; distinguished from unicameral

(a)  

127.

mechanisms through which each branch of government is able to participate in and influence the activities of the other branches. Major examples include the presidential veto power over congressional legislation, the power of the Senate to approve presidential appointments, and judicial review of congressional enactments

(a)  

128.

the electors from each state who meet after the popular election to cast ballots for president and vice president

(a)  

129.

the first 10 amendments to the Constitution, ratified in 1791; they ensure certain rights and liberties of the people

(a)  

130.

the division of governmental power among several institutions that must cooperate in decision-making

(a)  

131.

a system of government in which power is divided, by a constitution, between the central (national) government and regional (state) governments

(a)  

132.

specific powers granted by the Constitution to Congress (Article I, Section 8) and to the president (Article II)

(a)  

133.

Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution (also known as the necessary and proper clause), which declares that Congress can write laws needed to carry out its expressed powers, providing Congress with the authority to make all laws "necessary and proper" to do so

(a)  

134.

the power of the courts to review and, if necessary, declare actions of the legislative and executive branches invalid or unconstitutional. The Supreme Court asserted this power in Marbury v. Madison (1803)

(a)  

135.

Article VI of the Constitution, which states that laws passed by the national government and all treaties "shall be the supreme law of the land" and superior to all laws adopted by any state or any subdivision

(a)  

136.

those who favored a strong national government and supported the constitution proposed at the American Constitutional Convention of 1787

(a)  

137.

those who favored strong state governments and a weak national government and were opponents of the constitution proposed at the American Constitutional Convention of 1787

(a)  

138.

a series of essays written by James Madison, Alexander Hamilton, and John Jay supporting the ratification of the Constitution

(a)  

139.

oppressive and unjust government that employs cruel and unjust use of power and authority

(a)  

140.

a principle of constitutional government; a government whose powers are defined and limited by a constitution

(a)  

141.

a change added to a bill, law, or constitution

(a)  

142.

a centralized government system in which lower levels of government have little power independent of the national government

(a)  

143.

a system of government in which the national government shares power with lower levels of government such as states

(a)  

144.

powers derived from the necessary and proper clause of Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution; such powers are not specifically expressed but are implied through the expansive interpretation of delegated powers

(a)  

145.

provision from Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution providing Congress with the authority to make all laws necessary and proper to carry out its expressed powers

(a)  

146.

powers, derived from the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution, that are not specifically delegated to the national government or denied to the states

(a)  

147.

power reserved to the state government to regulate the health, safety, and morals of its citizens

(a)  

148.

authority possessed by both state and national governments, such as the power to levy taxes

(a)  

149.

provision from Article IV, Section 1, of the Constitution requiring that the states normally honor the public acts and judicial decisions that take place in another state

(a)  

150.

provision, from Article IV, Section 2, of the Constitution, that a state cannot discriminate against someone from another state or give its own residents special privileges

(a)  

151.

power delegated by the state to a local unit of government to manage its own affairs

(a)  

152.

the system of government that prevailed in the United States from 1789 to 1937 in which most fundamental governmental powers were shared between the federal and state governments

(a)  

153.

Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution, which delegates to Congress the power "to regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States and with the Indian Tribes"; this clause was interpreted by the Supreme Court in favor of national power over the economy

(a)  

154.

the principle that the states should oppose the increasing authority of the national government; this principle was most popular in the period before the Civil War

(a)  

155.

programs through which Congress provides money to state and local governments on the condition that the funds be employed for purposes defined by the federal government

(a)  

156.

congressional grants given to states and localities on the condition that expenditures be limited to a problem or group specified by law

(a)  

157.

a policy to remove a program from one level of government by delegating it or passing it down to a lower level of government, such as from the national government to the state and local governments

(a)  

158.

a type of federalism existing since the New Deal era in which grants-in-aid have been used strategically to encourage states and localities (without commanding them) to pursue nationally defined goals; also known as "intergovernmental cooperation"

(a)  

159.

the principle that allows the national government to override state or local actions in certain policy areas; in foreign policy, the willingness to strike first in order to prevent an enemy attack

(a)  

160.

regulations or conditions for receiving grants that impose costs on state and local governments for which they are not reimbursed by the federal government

(a)  

161.

federal grants-in-aid that allow states considerable discretion in how the funds are spent

(a)  

162.

the process by which one unit of government yields a portion of its tax income to another unit of government, according to an established formula; revenue sharing typically involves the national government providing money to state governments

(a)  

163.

attempts by presidents Nixon and Reagan to return power to the states through block grants

(a)  

164.

areas of personal freedom constitutionally protected from government interference

(a)  

165.

obligation imposed on government to take positive action to protect citizens from any illegal action of government agencies and of other private citizens

(a)  

166.

a court order demanding that an individual in custody be brought into court and shown the cause for detention

(a)  

167.

a law that declares a person guilty of a crime without a trial

(a)  

168.

laws that declare an action to be illegal after it has been committed

(a)  

169.

the right of every citizen against arbitrary action by national or state governments

(a)  

170.

the process by which different protections in the Bill of Rights were incorporated into the Fourteenth Amendment, thus guaranteeing citizens protection from state as well as national governments

(a)  

171.

the First Amendment clause that says that "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion"; this law means that a "wall of separation" exists between church and state

(a)  

172.

the First Amendment clause that protects a citizen's right to believe and practice whatever religion he or she chooses

(a)  

173.

a test used by the Supreme Court in racial discrimination cases and other cases involving civil liberties and civil rights that places the burden of proof on the government rather than on the challengers to show that the law in question is constitutional

(a)  

174.

test to determine whether speech is protected or unprotected, based on its capacity to present a "clear and present danger" to society

(a)  

175.

an effort by a governmental agency to block the publication of material it deems libelous or harmful in some other way; censorship; in the United States, the courts forbid prior restraint except under the most extraordinary circumstances

(a)  

176.

an oral statement made in "reckless disregard of the truth" that is considered damaging to the victim because it is "malicious, scandalous, and defamatory"

(a)  

177.

speech that directly incites damaging conduct

(a)  

178.

the ability of courts to exclude evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment

(a)  

179.

jury that determines whether sufficient evidence is available to justify a trial; grand juries do not rule on the accused's guilt or innocence

(a)  

180.

the Fifth Amendment right providing that a person cannot be tried twice for the same crime

(a)  

181.

the requirement, articulated by the Supreme Court in Miranda v. Arizona (1966), that persons under arrest must be informed prior to police interrogation of their rights to remain silent and to have the benefit of legal counsel

(a)  

182.

the right of government to take private property for public use

(a)  

183.

provision of the Fourteenth Amendment guaranteeing citizens "the equal protection of the laws"; this clause has served as the basis for the civil rights of African Americans, women, and other groups

(a)  

184.

doctrine that public accommodations could be segregated by race but still be considered equal

(a)  

185.

the 1954 Supreme Court decision that struck down the "separate but equal" doctrine as fundamentally unequal; this case eliminated state power to use race as a criterion for discrimination in law and provided the national government with the power to intervene by exercising strict regulatory policies against discriminatory actions

(a)  

186.

government policies or programs that seek to redress past injustices against specified groups by making special efforts to provide members of these groups with access to educational and employment opportunities

(a)  

187.

a written statement made in "reckless disregard of the truth" that is considered damaging to a victim because it is "malicious, scandalous, and defamatory"

(a)