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Earth Science Final Review

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 3hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do the inner planets have in common?

a)

They are all the same size

b)

They are made of gas.

c)

They rotate at the same speed.

d)

They are all rocky.

2.

If it's ____ in the Northern hemisphere, then it's summer in the Southern hemisphere. 

a)

spring

b)

summer

c)

fall

d)

winter

3.
Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature all year?
a)
The equator rotates slower than the poles 
b)
The equator remains the same distance from the sun.
c)
The equator always receives direct sunlight.
d)
The equator has 18 hour days.
4.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
5.
The energy from the sun is created by a process called:
a)

nuclear fission

b)

nuclear fusion

c)

nuclear reaction

d)

nuclear core

6.
Our Galaxy is called the
a)

Swirling Galaxy

b)

Milky Way Galaxy

c)

Andromeda Galaxy

d)

Pinwheel Galaxy

7.

The initial explosion that resulted in the formation and expansion of the universe is called __________________.

a)

the Big Bang

b)

the start of the universe

c)

the beginning

d)

the formation of space

8.

The Sun is...

a)

one of many stars in our solar system

b)

only one planet away from Earth

c)

not moving

d)

a star in the center of our solar system

9.

Due to rotation, only one side of the Earth faces the Sun at a time. This causes...

a)

seasons

b)

climate changes

c)

day and night

d)

months of the year

10.
What affects the force of gravity between two objects?
a)

Their mass and the distance between them

b)

The shape of the object

c)

The sum of their masses

d)

The mass of the larger object only

11.

Galaxies are classified according to:

a)

shape

b)

size

c)

color

d)

temperature

12.

How does our star, the Sun, compare to other stars in the Universe?

a)

Cooler than most

b)

Dimmer than most

c)

Brighter than most

d)

Average in every way

13.

Why do planets orbit the Sun?

a)

The Sun is the only celestial object that has a gravitational pull.

b)

The Sun’s chemical composition makes it attract planets.

c)

Only celestial bodies that emit light, like the Sun, can be at the center of an orbit.

d)

The Sun is the most massive object in our solar system, so it exerts the greatest gravitational pull.

14.

What is the definition of a dwarf planet?

a)

A dwarf planet is a solar system body that has a spherical shape and an orbit around the Sun that is not cleared of other objects.

b)

A dwarf planet is a small planet that is smaller than Mars.

c)

A dwarf planet is a planet that is further than 2 AU from its orbiting star.

15.
On which kind of day would you expect the most evaporation from the surface of a pond?
a)
cold, rainy
b)
cold, sunny
c)
warm, rainy
d)
warm, sunny
16.
What is the energy source for the water cycle?
a)
the sun
b)
the earth
c)
water
d)
the moon
17.
During which stage do clouds form?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)

transpiration

18.
What amount of the water on the earth is salt water?
a)

25%

b)

72%

c)

97%

d)

100%

19.

Where is most of the freshwater located on Earth?

a)

in the oceans

b)

in polar ice and glaciers

c)

in rivers, streams, and lakes

d)

under the ground

20.
The blanket of gases that surround the Earth.
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Solar Radiation
c)
Evaporation
d)
Groundwater
21.
The temperature at which water vapor condenses is the 
a)
relative humidity
b)
humidity
c)
freezing point
d)
dew point
22.

How do air masses form into clouds? Clouds form when

a)

cold, moist air rises and then cools

b)

warm, moist rises, expands and then cools

c)

cold air reaches the lifted condensation level

23.

Warm air tends to ______

a)

Rise

b)

Sink

24.
Because the earth is spinning on its axis, the global winds appear to curve. This is known as the __________ ________.
a)
Coriolis Effect
b)
Greenhouse Effect
c)
Climate Effect
d)
Atmosphere Effect
25.
Rain, snow, sleet, and hail are all forms of _____.
a)
precipitation
b)
condensation
c)
evaporation
d)
climate
26.
Atmospheric conditions, along with short-term changes, of a particular place at a particular time
a)
weather
b)
climate
c)
air pressure
d)
precipitation
27.
The layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs is the _.
a)
thermosphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
troposphere
28.
Before condensation can occur, the air must  be ____________________________.
a)

Dry

b)
Cold
c)
Hot
d)
Saturated
29.
In what areas of the world do hurricanes form?
a)
Warm ocean waters
b)
Polar ocean waters
c)
On lakes and rivers
d)
Over the central plains of the U.S
30.
Which of the following have been linked to climate change?  
a)
droughts
b)
flooding
c)
melting of polar ice caps
d)
all of the above
31.

An air mass is a large mass of air that is defined by its temperature and ____________________.

a)

Elevation (altitude)

b)

Water vapor content (humidity)

c)

Strength

d)

Weather

32.
When the atmosphere is warmed by the sun, a change in air pressure results in
a)
clouds
b)
humidity
c)
precipitation
d)
wind
33.

What does salinity measure?

a)

ocean temperature

b)

amount of salt in water

c)

ratio of mass to volume

d)

cloudiness of water

34.

Temperature and salinity together are called the _______ circulation.

a)

hot-salt

b)

Coriolis Effect

c)

wind currents

d)

thermohaline

35.
Approximately what percentage of Earth's surface is covered by oceans?
a)
40%
b)
50%
c)
60%
d)
70%
36.

The energy and motion from waves is caused by

a)

currents

b)

tides

c)

wind

d)

gravity

37.
The five huge circular-moving systems of ocean surface currents are called
a)
density currents
b)
fetches
c)
drifts
d)
gyres
38.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
39.

What are the three factors that contribute to water scarcity?

a)

Climate change, overuse of groundwater, and water pollution.

b)

Climate change, ocean droughts, and water pollution.

c)

Hurricanes, overuse of groundwater, and water pollution.

d)

El niño, hurricanes, and ocean evaporation.

40.

How do oceans influence the temperature of the tropics and poles?

a)

They keep it warm by bringing more rain.

b)

They help to distribute heat to the poles.

c)

The oceans do not play a role in temperature.

d)

They cool the poles by creating wind.

41.
The 'sphere' of Earth which includes all living organisms is the ______.
a)
Hydrosphere
b)
Geosphere
c)
Exosphere
d)
Biosphere
42.
In what ways could we help our environment in the face of global warming?
a)
Rooftop gardens
b)
Solar panels
c)
Plant trees
d)
All of these
43.

Why is biodiversity important?

a)

To create stable ecosystems

b)

To decrease predator numbers

c)

To increase atmospheric temperatures

d)

To stabilize non-renewable resources

44.
Fossil fuels include these main types of energy...
a)
Coal, wind & solar
b)
Water, Wind & Solar
c)

Coal, natural gas & oil

d)
Water, natural gas & sulfur oxides
45.

What best defines biodiversity?

a)

Amount of biomass

b)

Total # of organisms

c)

Variety and number of organisms

d)

Animals & plants dying

46.
Which of these types of soils is ideal for farming?
a)
Sand
b)
Loam
c)
Silt
d)
Clay
47.
What man-made factor contributes to forming acid precipitation?
a)
Fertilizer
b)
Burning of fossil fuels
c)
Methane from livestock
d)

CFCs

48.

Which term refers to consequences of extra nutrients being added to a body of water?

a)

eutrophication

b)

decomposers

c)

parasites

d)

nitrogen fixing

49.

Oil, coal and natural gas

a)

are renewable

b)

are called biomass

c)

can be recycled

d)

are non-renewable

50.

Which of the following is NOT considered a renewable resource

a)

Natural Gas

b)

Wind

c)

Solar

d)

Hydropower (water)

51.
Erosion is most likely when the soil is
a)
bare and exposed to wind and rain.
b)
covered with grass.
c)
plowed along the contour of the land
d)
covered with forest.
52.

What pollutant forms when automobile emissions react with oxygen gas and ultraviolet rays?

a)

smog

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

radon

d)

sulfur dioxide

53.
Which best describes the ozone layer?
a)
Protection from ultraviolet radiation
b)
Formation of severe storms
c)
Increases the amount of nitrogen in atmosphere
d)
Forms a magnetic field in the Mesosphere
54.
Which is a health problem directly connected to air pollution?
a)

colon cancer

b)

hearing loss

c)

asthma

d)

sun burn

55.

Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?

a)

cooking with gas

b)

planting trees

c)

burning wood

d)

riding in a bus

56.

a)

divergent boundary

b)

convergent boundary

c)

transform boundary

57.

a)

divergent boundary

b)

convergent boundary

c)

transform boundary

58.

a)

divergent boundary

b)

convergent boundary

c)

transform boundary

59.

The process that causes the tectonic plates to move is called.....

a)

subduction

b)

transform

c)

convection

60.

In some areas of the world, like California and Japan, earthquakes are a common occurrence. How can this best be explained?

a)

The strong ocean currents are undermining both areas causing earthquakes.

b)

Both areas are located near the edge of the Pacific Ocean, the unstable sand causes earthquakes.

c)

Both areas are subjected to strong ocean wind and waves that causes earthquakes.

d)

Both areas are on the boundary of active plates, the motion of the plates causes earthquakes.

61.

Earthquake epicenters (center of where the earthquakes started) were mapped for a 35 year period in the diagram above. The black dots indicate these epicenters. The black dots appear along what feature on Earth?

a)

hot spots

b)

plate boundaries

c)

rift zones

d)

sea floor spreading

62.
A weak spot in the crust where molten material, or magma comes to the surface
a)
volcano
b)
earthquake
c)
tsunami
63.
The difference between magma and lava is _____
a)
where it is found (above or below the surface)
b)
how hot the molten rock is (lava is hotter than magma)
c)
 the type of boundary where it forms
d)
the viscosity of the molten rock (lava has a lower viscosity)
64.

What is the process by which rock is broken into fragments called sediments?

a)

Deposition

b)

Erosion

c)

Weathering

d)

Lithification

65.

Rock that forms when pressure and heat change existing rock.

a)

Igneous Rock

b)

Sedimentary Rock

c)

Metamorphic Rock

d)

Rock Cycle

66.
An igneous rock can become ______.
a)
metamorphic
b)
sedimentary
c)
igneous
d)
all of these
67.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
68.

Which wave can travel through solids, liquids, and gases?

a)

P-Waves

b)

S-Waves

c)

Surface Waves

69.

What are two categories of seismic waves?

a)

body and surface waves

b)

P and S waves

c)

Love and Rayleigh waves

d)

Transverse and compression waves

70.

Which seismic wave cannot travel through liquids (outer core)?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

Love Waves

d)

Rayleigh waves

71.

Hotspots are volcanoes that form...

a)

at convergent plate boundaries.

b)

at divergent plate boundaries.

c)

at transform plate boundaries.

d)

in the middle of a tectonic plate.

72.
Which of these is a key piece of evidence of contiental drift?
a)
Continent shapes
b)
Fossil record
c)
Rock layers
d)
All of the above
73.
What does the theory of continental drift state?
a)
The continents were once joined in a super-continent and have moved over time
b)
Continents are stationary and do not move
c)
The Earth is broken into lithospheric plates that move due to convection currents
74.

What does the term carrying capacity describe?

a)

The maximum number of birth rates for a population.

b)

The ability of a population to accept new immigrants.

c)

The ratio of birth rates to death rates in a population.

d)

The population size that the environment can sustain.

75.
If the number of births in a population is the same as the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
76.

Rocks that have formed from being compacted and made up of sediment that have cemented together

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Igneous

77.

Rocks that have formed from magma that has cooled

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Volcanic

d)

Metamorphicc

78.

Rocks are always changing and the process of change is called

a)

Morphing

b)

Evolving

c)

Rock Cycle

d)

Sediments

79.

Galaxies are __________ from where the Big Bang occurred.

a)

Expanding

b)

Shrinking

c)

Not Moving

80.

________ is the turning or spinning of a body on its axis.

a)

Revolution

b)

Nutation

c)

Barycenter

d)

Rotation

81.

What is the term that refers to Earth when it is closest to the Sun?

a)

Perihelion

b)

Aphelion

c)

Nutation

d)

Barycenter

82.

What causes the seasons?

a)

Earth's Rotation

b)

Earth's Revolution

c)

Earth's tilt

d)

Earth doesn't have seasons

83.

What is the slight movement over a period of 26,000 years that changes where Earth's axis points?

a)

Nutation

b)

Precession

c)

Barycenter

d)

Rotation

84.

What is the oscillatory movement of the axis of a rotation body or a wobble?

a)

Precession

b)

Rotation

c)

Nutation

d)

Barycenter

85.

The point between two objects where they balance one another is called?

a)

Nutation

b)

Rotation

c)

Barycenter

d)

Precession

86.

What is the shape of Earth's orbit?

a)

Circular

b)

Oval

c)

Ellipse

d)

Diamond

87.

Who discovered three (3) laws of planetary motion?

a)

Galileo

b)

Newton

c)

Kepler

d)

Ptolemy

88.

These are the daily rise and fall of Earth's waters.

a)

rivers

b)

waves

c)

tides

d)

geysers

89.

Which is most responsible for Earth's tides?

a)

the sun

b)

the moon

c)

mars

d)

humans

90.

How does energy from the Sun reach Earth?

a)

conduction

b)

seismic waves

c)

electromagnetic radiation

d)

convection

91.

When the Sun, Earth and Moon are in a straight line you will see which type of tide?

a)

a spring tide

b)

a neap tide

c)

a fall tide

d)

a summer tide

92.

A desert and a lake receive the same amount of radiant energy from the Sun, at the same solar angle. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

a)

The temperature of the desert and the lake go up at the same rate.

b)

The temperature of the lake goes up faster than the desert.

c)

The temperature of the desert goes up faster than the lake.

d)

The temperature of the lake will not change at all.

93.
What geologic feature/event you be most likely to find at a transform boundary?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Volcanoes
c)
Mountains
d)
Rift Valleys
94.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
c)
Island Arc
d)

Trench

95.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of continental crust?
a)
Volcano
b)
Mountain
c)
Rift
d)

Subduction Zone

96.

The place where an earthquake originates inside the Earth's surface is called...

a)

Epicenter

b)

Focus

c)

Underground

d)

Crust

97.

Which city is closest to the epicenter?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

98.

5. Which type of wave travels the fastest?

a)

Primary Wave

b)

Secondary Wave

c)

Surface Wave

99.
What type of fault is this?
a)
Normal
b)
Reverse
c)
Strike-slip
100.
Which side of Holland Hill is the steepest?
a)
North
b)
South
c)
East 
d)
West
101.
What is the elevation of point B?
a)
800 ft
b)
850 ft
c)
900 ft
d)
1000 ft
102.
Determine the contour interval:
a)
5 m
b)
10 m
c)
15 m
d)
20 m
103.
a)
The map shows lines of longitude.
b)
The map shows lines of latitude.
104.
a)
The map show the lines of longitude.
b)
The map shows the lines of latitude.
105.
What is the approximate location of G?
a)
100oW, 40oN
b)
40oN, 100oW
c)
40oS, 100oW
d)
40oN, 100oE
106.
Which of the following letter is at approximately 60 degrees S, 40 degrees W? 
a)
A
b)
D
c)
E
d)
H
107.
What is erosion?
a)
The process by which
water, ice, wind or gravity
moves fragments of rock
and soil.
b)
The process by which
water, ice, wind or gravity
deposit rock sediments
and soil in a new place.
c)
The breaking down of
Earth’s crust into smaller
and smaller pieces.
108.
Which of the following is NOT a type of physical weathering?
a)
burrowing plants
b)
ice wedging
c)
plant roots
d)
acid rain
109.
Which type of climate will have faster chemical weathering?
a)
Hot and Wet
b)
Cold and Dry
c)
Hot and Cold
d)
Cold and Wet
110.
Which of the following is the largest particle in soil?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
humus
d)
clay
111.

Which soil horizon typically contains the least organic matter?

a)

A horizon

b)

B horizon

c)

C horizon

d)

O horizon

112.
What is the name of a soil that is:
30% Sand
10% Silt
60% Clay
a)
Clay
b)
Silt loam
c)

Sand

d)
Sandy loam
113.

Underlying force behind all mass movements

a)

gravity

b)

pressure

c)

water

d)

volcanoes

114.

Which of the following factors are important in triggering mass movements?

a)

earthquakes

b)

the removal of vegetation

c)

the saturation of the soil with water

d)

gravity

115.

What is urban sprawl?

a)

Uncontrolled expansion of urban areas into surrounding rural lands

b)

The controlled expansion of rural areas into surrounding urban lands

c)

The process of reducing urban areas and increasing rural areas

d)

Planned development of urban areas into surrounding rural lands

116.

What are the environmental impacts of urban sprawl?

a)

Loss of natural habitats, increased air and water pollution, increased energy consumption, and increased greenhouse gas emissions.

b)

Increased air and water pollution, decreased energy consumption, and decreased greenhouse gas emissions.

c)

Decreased air and water pollution, increased energy consumption, and decreased greenhouse gas emissions.

d)

Increased natural habitats, decreased air and water pollution, and decreased energy consumption.

117.

What is the main cause of urban heat islands?

a)

Increased air pollution

b)

Deforestation and loss of vegetation

c)

Climate change and global warming

d)

Replacement of natural surfaces with buildings, roads, and other infrastructure

118.

Deforestation causes an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide

a)

true

b)

false

119.
What are the effects of deforestation ?
a)
loss of habitat
b)

increased green house gases 

c)
soil erosion and flooding
d)
all of the above
120.

Where can people drill and install a well to obtain groundwater?

a)

above the water table

b)

into an aquifer

c)

into the unsaturated zone

d)

into the impermeable layer

121.

When water is removed from an aquifer faster than it is replenished, it can result in which of the following?

a)

Land Subsidence

b)

Groundwater replenishment

c)

Saltwater Intrusion

d)

Increased amounts of water

122.

If the soil is saturated, and precipitation increases, there will be

a)

decreases in the amount of runoff

b)

increases in the amount of runoff

c)

decreases in the amount of groundwater

d)

increases in the amount of transpiration

123.

In the diagram, letter A best represents:

a)

Runoff

b)

Watershed

c)

Water Table

d)

Confining Layer

124.
Sand is ___________, meaning that water can pass through easily.
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Solid
d)
Soft
125.

A stream or river that flows into a larger river

a)

lake

b)

mouth

c)

tributary

d)

estaury

126.

In a meander, where does water flow fastest?

a)

The middle of the river

b)

The outside bend

c)

The inside bend

127.

What stage of the river moves the fastest?

a)

youthful

b)

mature

c)

old

d)

They all move at the same speed

128.

A ___________________ is the area of land that collects runoff and channels it into a main river.

a)

peninsula

b)

tributary

c)

groundwater

d)

watershed

129.

All water eventually empties into ---

a)

an ocean

b)

a river

c)

the ground

d)

a lake

130.

What is one use of an estuary to help increase biodiversity?

a)

Used as a place to help predators capture their prey

b)

Used as a "nursery" to help organisms raise babies

c)

Used as a place the filter sediment and trap pollution

d)

Used as an "overflow" area to prevent flooding

131.
What is NOT a function of a wetland?
a)
Filters Water
b)
Provides organisms with a habitat
c)
Improves Water Quality
d)
Causes Erosion
132.

This zone is found at the bottom of a lake

a)

Littoral

b)

Limnetic

c)

Profundal

d)

Benthic

133.

Which of the following is NOT a negative consequence of building a dam?

a)

they can fail and break, causing dangerous floods

b)

they can change weather patterns and cause climate change

c)

they can flood otherwise useful land and cause people to move

d)

they block the movement of dirt by river

134.
Macroinvertebrates such as stoneflies, mayflies and water boatmen require high levels of dissolved oxygen and their abundance is an indication of:
a)
Poor water quality
b)
Good water quality
c)
Don't tell us anything about water quality
d)
Invertibrates don't tell us anything about water quality
135.
Which of the following are indicators of healthy water systems?
a)
high nitrates, high pH, and low temperatures
b)
low temperatures, high dissolved oxygen, and neutral pH
136.

A ship carrying gasoline runs into shore and spills large amount of gasoline.

a)

Point

b)

Non-Point

137.

Acid Rain

a)

Point

b)

Non-Point

138.

Which of the following is NOT an environmental impact of mining?

a)

Destroys natural communities over large areas.

b)

Acid drainage pollutes groundwater.

c)

Decreases runoff.

d)

Causes erosion

139.

Eutrophication is caused by

a)

excess nutrients building up in the water.

b)

industrial point-source pollution.

c)

unlined landfills and septic tanks.

d)

wastewater from homes mixing with drinking water.

140.

How does eutrophication cause the death of aquatic organisms

a)

the build up of carbon dioxide in the water

b)

the lack of nitrogen in the water

c)

the lack of carbon dioxide in the water

d)

the lack of oxygen in the water

141.
Which gas in our atmosphere is most abundant?
a)
Argon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Carbon Dioxide
142.
The layers of the atmosphere are classified according to changes in _________.
a)
altitude
b)
density
c)
composition
d)
temperature
143.
Which type of air would you find at air mass A?
a)
cold, dry
b)
warm, humid
c)
warm, dry
d)
cold, humid
144.

Which kind of pressure system results in clear skies and no wind?

a)
b)
145.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following will produce some type of precipitation?

a)

A High pressure system

b)

A Low pressure system

c)

A cold front

d)

A warm front

146.

The most likely stage for large hail and damaging winds in a thunderstorm is the...

a)
Cumulus stage
b)
Mature stage
c)
Dissipating stage
d)
Hail stage
147.

How would you strengthen a hurricane?

a)

move over cold water

b)

move over land

c)

move over warm water

148.

What scale is used to measure tornadoes?

a)

Saffir-Simpson Scale

b)

Enhanced Fujita Scale

c)

Richter Scale

d)

Doppler Scale

149.

What is the barometric pressure?

a)

1097.9 mb

b)

979.0 mb

c)

23.0 mb

d)

997.9 mb

150.

Which city has the greatest temperature?

a)

Niagara Falls

b)

Rochester

c)

Syracuse

151.

Which is a MAJOR cause of acid rain?

a)

spraying pesticides on crops

b)

burning fossil fuels for energy

c)

dumping sewage in rivers

d)

using Nuclear power stations

152.

The concerns with acid rain are all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

a decrease in lake and river pH

b)

an increase soil pH

c)

respiratory problems in humans

d)

corrosion of buildings and metal structures

153.
Ozone and acid rain are both pollutants formed through reactions in the atmosphere. This makes them
a)
primary air pollutants
b)
secondary air pollutants 
154.

Which of the following is NOT a way to reduce photochemical smog?

a)

Using renewable energy sources

b)

Increasing the use of coal for electricity

c)

Using less gasoline

d)

Switching from coal to natural gas

155.

What is the name of the international agreement committing parties to phasing out ozone depleting substances and phasing out chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

a)

Vienna Protocol

b)

Paris Agreement

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Antarctic Convention

156.

The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by:

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Nitrous oxide

c)

Methane

d)

Chlorofluorocarbon

157.
El Nino occurs when the tropical ocean waters are warmer in which ocean?
a)
Atlantic
b)
Indian
c)
Pacific
d)
Arctic
158.

Why do the fisherman of Peru and South America not welcome a strong El Nino?

a)

El Nino poisons the fish

b)

El Nino causes strong winds and currents which move fish westward

c)

El Nino bring cold water to the surface which kills the base of the food chain

d)

El Nino shuts off upwelling and nutrients needed for the marine food chain do not rise to the surface

159.

Does this dark asphalt road reflect or absorb light?

a)

Reflect

b)

Absorb

160.

Ways that Earth's climate changes NATURALLY

a)

solar activity-more sunspots

b)

changes in Earth's tilt/axis

c)

burning of fossil fuels

d)

mining of coal and oil

161.

Climate of an area could change when large amount of gas or ashes block sun's radiation and cause a cooling of Earth

a)

solar activity

b)

volcanic eruptions

c)

Earth's tilt

d)

La Nina

162.

Which of the following are greenhouse gases?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Water vapor

d)

All answers are correct

163.

Which of the following does NOT happen to solar energy when it reaches Earth?

a)

Some solar energy reflects off the atmosphere, back to space

b)

Some solar energy passes through Earth and comes out the other side

c)

Some solar energy is absorbed by land and water

d)

Some solar energy is radiated from the Earth's surface and trapped by the atmosphere

164.
Which of the following is NOT evidence of global warming?
a)
Sea level rising
b)
Loss of Arctic Sea Ice
c)
Less Water Vapor in the Air
d)
More extreme weather events
165.
Carbon dioxide and seawater combine to form
a)
calcium carbonate
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
carbonic acid 
166.

How do scientists believe plant and animal life will be affected by increasing levels of acidity in the ocean?

a)

there will be more food for them to eat, making it easier to survive

b)

there will be less diversity in plants and animals, making survival more difficult

c)

the earth will correct the problem itself and the oceans' biodiversity will remain the same

d)

the plants and animals will adapt to the increasing acidity and continue to thrive in the oceans

167.

Arrows in a food web represent...

a)

eating

b)

sunlight

c)

energy

d)

matter

168.

Which of the following organisms is a primary consumer?

a)

grass

b)

rabbit

c)

fox

d)

snake

169.

What would happen to the rabbit population if the fox population moved out of the area represented by the food web?

a)

The rabbit population would increase

b)

The rabbit population would decrease

c)

The rabbit population would neither increase nor decrease

170.

Which biome consists of warm weather year-round, a dry season and a rainy season, and diverse trees, shrubs, and grasses?

a)

tropical rainforest

b)

temperate grassland

c)

savanna

d)

desert

171.

Which biome consists of long bitter winters, cool summers, and diverse coniferous trees?

a)

Taiga

b)

Tundra

c)

Temperate forest

d)

Grassland

172.
Why do the populations of invasive species grow so quickly? 
a)
Invasive Species are native to an area. 
b)
Invasive species are prey to many animals.
c)
Invasive species have no predators.
d)
Invasive species keep the ecosystems in equilibrium.
173.

The primary causes of extinction (and endangerment and threatened status) is...

a)

polar ice cap melting

b)

global warming

c)

habitat loss and degradation

d)

burning of fossil fuels

174.

Which of the following is NOT a cause for the current decline in the biodiversity of our ecosystem?

a)

overexploitation of resources

b)

increasing human populations

c)

pollution of water sources

d)

regenerating forests

175.

A possible way to prevent species from becoming endangered is?

a)

increased use of fossil fuels

b)

more habitat converted to farms

c)

designating more areas as wildlife preserves

d)

increased urban expansion

176.

Geothermal energy uses heat from ____ to produce electricity.

a)

the earth

b)

coal

c)

oil

d)

natural gas

177.
What characteristic do all renewable resources share?
a)
Produced by waste products of animals
b)
Form underground from dead organisms
c)
Allow energy to pass through them easily
d)
Replaced in a reasonably short time period
178.
Which energy source contributes to air pollution?
a)
hydropower
b)
solar
c)
geothermal
d)
biomass
179.

Which of the following is not a benefit of GMOs

a)

Increases pest resistance

b)

Decreases biodiversity

c)

Increases drought resistance

d)

Reduces cost of manufacturing

180.

What does monoculture mean?

a)

A game to acquire as much money and property as possible

b)

The growing of multiple crops in one particular area

c)

The growing of multiple types of animals in one particular area

d)

The growing of a single crop in one particular area

181.
Which of the following is NOT a negative side effect of modern agricultural techniques versus traditional techniques?
a)
Increased use of fossil fuels
b)
Increased crop yields
c)
Increased use of fertilizers
d)
Increased use of pesticides
182.
What change would best aid a farmer in making the transition from traditional farmer to sustainable farming?
a)
Irrigate the crops using well water
b)
Rotate the types of crops grown
c)
Plant only genetically modified crops
d)
Reduce the ratio of essential elements in the fertilizer
183.
What growth pattern describes a population whose growth rate slows or stops following a period of exponential growth?
a)
logistic growth
b)
population growth
c)
exponential growth
d)
predator-prey cycle
184.
What type of growth is shown in the diagram?
a)
exponential growth
b)
logistic growth 
c)
predator-prey cycle
d)
boom-bust curve
185.
What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?
a)
1.8 million
b)
1.25 million
c)
1.6 million
d)

1.0 million

186.
Which is NOT a way to decrease your ecological footprint?
a)
Eating less meat and processed foods
b)
Walking or biking to school
c)
Turning off electricity and water when you're not using it. 
d)
Driving a large car around for fun.
187.
What is NOT a sustainable practice?
a)
recycling
b)
reducing
c)
reusing
d)
buying 
188.

What does "reduce" mean?

a)

use more

b)

use less

c)

make new things

d)

save the Earth

189.

Which statement describes how recycling aluminum cans positively affects the environment?

a)

Recycling makes solid waste.

b)

Recycling produces air pollution.

c)

Recycling uses energy.

d)

Recycling conserves mineral resources.

190.
The “Three Rs” are “Reduce, Reuse, Renewables”
a)
True
b)
False

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