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Fire Suppression, Foam, BC, Forcible Entry, Fire Ext Quiz

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Clean agents extinguish fire by:

a)

removing the burning fuel.

b)

cooling the burning material.

c)

interrupting the combustion reaction.

d)

removing oxygen from the compartment.

2.

High-quality foam bubbles are created through the process of:

a)

aeration

b)

expansion

c)

separation

d)

saponification

3.

If a firefighter uses a Z pattern to apply water to the hot gas layer and then the burning fuels at the floor level, he or she is using a (an) _____ fire attack.

a)

direct

b)

indirect

c)

transitional

d)

combination

4.

At what point should a firefighter close a sprinkler system's main control valve?

a)

Upon arrival at the structure

b)

Immediately prior to fire attack

c)

Once the pumper has been connected to the FDC

d)

Once the fire is under control and the IC gives the order

5.

What is the purpose of a lockout/tagout device?

a)

Identify the firefighter in charge of shutting down utilities

b)

Identify the area where the main power supply is located

c)

Prevent power from bring turned back on before it is safe

d)

Prevent automatic sprinklers from accidentally being activated

6.

If a large pool of flammable liquid is burning in an open area, the ____ method of foam application may be the most effective method to use.

a)

roll-on

b)

rain-down

c)

bank-down

d)

spread-across

7.

If an LNG tank on a vehicle leaks or is on fire, firefighters should:

a)

stay clear of the vapor cloud.

b)

allow the fire to burn itself out.

c)

proceed with operations as normal.

d)

apply water using a narrow fog pattern.

8.

When a shed or other unattached structure is on fire, the primary objective is to:

a)

Protect exposures.

b)

remove the fuel source.

c)

fight the fire from the interior.

d)

save the contents of the building.

9.

What action should be taken if a pressurized vessel containing flammable gas is exposed to flames?

a)

Apply a fog stream of water

b)

Apply a solid stream of water

c)

Apply foam using the roll-on method

d)

Apply foam using the bank-down method

10.

Which is a characteristic of foam nozzles?

a)

Lower quality foam than fog nozzles

b)

Longer stream reach than fog nozzles

c)

More versatile overall than fog nozzles

d)

shorter stream reach than fog nozzles

11.

Type II construction buildings are composed of:

a)

prefabricated wood components.

b)

large-dimensioned lumber or laminated wood.

c)

metal and wood components that increase the fuel load.

d)

noncombustible materials that do not add to the fuel load.

12.

The most common type of factory-built home that firefighters will encounter is the ______ home.

a)

mobile

b)

pre-cut

c)

modular

d)

panelized

13.

A (an) ______ roof is often found on buildings that require a large open area to be covered without being supported by pillars or columns.

a)

Arched

b)

Pitched

c)

Lantern

d)

Mansard

14.

The open web design of truss joints:

a)

permits rapid fire spread in multiple directions.

b)

restricts the spread of fire to the component's length.

c)

provides greater stability than a heavy bean during a fire.

d)

allows firefighters to operate longer on a roof during a fire.

15.

A ____ is an example of a striking tool used for forcible entry.

a)

pike pole

b)

kelly tool

c)

pick-head axe

d)

sledge hammer

16.

Fiberglass tool handles should be maintained by:

a)

varnishing them.

b)

washing with a mild detergent.

c)

rubbing them with boiled linseed oil.

d)

using adhesive barcodes to mark them.

17.

Type IV buildings are resistant to structural collapse because of the:

a)

use of open web floor joists.

b)

use of noncombustible interior finishes.

c)

thickness of the reinforced concrete walls.

d)

mass of the heavy timber structural members.

18.

Floors at ground level may consist of _____or a floor assembly made up of joists over a crawl space.

a)

steel

b)

a reinforced concrete slab

c)

gypsum board

d)

bricks

19.

If you can see the hinges of a door, it:

a)

swings toward you.

b)

swings away from you.

c)

will require power tools to force.

d)

cannot be opened using conventional forcible entry methods.

20.

K-tools and shove knives are use for:

a)

breaking glass in doors.

b)

through-the-lock forcible entry.

c)

forcing security doors and gates.

d)

breaching the walls of a structure.

21.

Which location would likely be protected by a fire door?

a)

The front door on a residential home.

b)

The entrance to an office exit stairwell.

c)

Separating a dining room from a kitchen.

d)

As an emergency exit door on a movie theater.

22.

Plaster or gypsum wall covering on interior walls:

a)

requires the use of power saws to be breached.

b)

can cause increased fire spread within the compartment.

c)

is designed to provide structural stability to the compartment.

d)

is designed to provide fire resistance and limit fire spread within the structure.

23.

Under fire conditions, a green roof can:

a)

act as an exit point for some types of ventilation.

b)

accelerate structural failure due to the increased dead load.

c)

provide the most stable surface from which to ventilate.

d)

present a significant electrical hazard for firefighters on the roof.

24.

Building codes require that:

a)

metal doors are made from aluminum.

b)

glass doors are made from plexiglas.

c)

glass doors are made from tempered glass.

d)

metal doors are made from corrugated steel.

25.

Which type of window has one or two side-hinged sashes and usually opens outward?

a)

Picture window

b)

Display window

c)

Pivoting window

d)

Casement window

26.

Which type of factory-built homes are assembled on-site from components constructed of foam insulation sandwiched between sheets of plywood?

a)

Mobile homes

b)

Pre-cut homes

c)

Modular homes

d)

Panelized homes

27.

Which type of building construction may have interior walls and beams constructed of wood, but requires that exterior walls be made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials?

a)

Type I

b)

Type III

c)

Type IV

d)

Type V

28.

What are the three main types of roofs that firefighters are likely to encounter?

a)

Flat, pitched, arched

b)

mansard, shed, lantern

c)

Flat, gambrel, bowstring

d)

Pitched, arched, gambrel

29.

Portable fire extinguishers are classified according to the:

a)

place where they were manufactured.

b)

amount of time they have been in service.

c)

certification level required to operate them.

d)

type of fire they are designed to extinguish.

30.

How would a fire containing plastics be classified?

a)

Class A

b)

Class C

c)

Class D

d)

Class K

31.

Which extinguishing agent should be used for a Class D fire?

a)

Dry chemical

b)

Wet chemical

c)

Dry powder

d)

Class D foam

32.

On which type of fires are stored-pressure water-mist extinguishers safe and effective to use?

a)

Class B

b)

Class C

c)

Combustible metal fires

d)

Combustible cooking oil fires

33.

What is a characteristic of carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers?

a)

Most effective in extinguishing Class D fires

b)

CO2 gas displaces oxygen to smother the fire

c)

Requires freeze protection due to icy discharge

d)

CO2 gas cools the fire to subzero temperature

34.

When operating a portable fire extinguisher, it is safest to approach the fire:

a)

at a 45 degree angle.

b)

with your back to the fire.

c)

with the wind at your back.

d)

with the wind blowing toward you.

35.

What action should be taken if an entire extinguisher is discharged, but the fire is not extinguished?

a)

Withdraw and reassess the situation.

b)

Try to use a different class of fire extinguisher.

c)

Notify a supervisor and stand by for further instruction.

d)

Wait a moment and try another extinguisher of the same class.