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IB Bio- Gene Regulation and Linked Genes

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
2.

In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:

a)

lactose is absent in the cell

b)

glucose is present in the cell

c)

lactose is present in the cell

d)

tryptophan is present in the cell

e)

tryptophan is absent in the cell

3.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
4.

What is the name given to part of a DNA molecule that codes for a protein?

a)

Glucose

b)

Chromosome

c)

Gene

d)

Phosphate

e)

Intron

5.
What does the lactose do to the Operon? 
a)
Blocks transcription because of the energy it provides
b)
Allows the repressor to be unbind from the Operator.
c)
The lactose binds the lactose and stops transcription
d)
Allows for the transcription to speed
6.
Which of the following statements regarding mRNA is correct?
a)
Exons are included in the protein sequence, while introns are left out
b)
Introns are included in the protein sequence, while exons are left out
c)
Exons and Introns can both be included or left out depending on the protein
d)
Exons and Introns are both part of the mRNA sequence, but only exons are part of the rRNA and tRNA
7.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
8.
What structure of this molecule binds with the mRNA molecule?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
tRNA
c)
Anticodon
d)
Codon
9.

An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT

a)

operator

b)

promoter

c)

regulatory gene

d)

structural genes

e)

repressor

10.

The repressor is the protein product of a(n)

a)

operator

b)

regulatory gene

c)

lac gene

d)

corepressor

e)

structural gene

11.

The tryptophan operon is

a)

permanently turned on.

b)

turned on when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.

c)

turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.

d)

turned off when tryptophan is added to the growth medium.

12.

The lac operon is referred to as a(n) __________ operon.

a)

inducible

b)

repressible

c)

audible

d)

inaudible

13.

All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT

a)

may take place on the DNA

b)

enzymes add a methyl group

c)

when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur

d)

chromatin becomes more tightly packed

14.
All of the following are true about histone acetylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the histone
b)
enzymes add a acetyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
15.
Inheritance of traits by mechanisms not directly involving nucleotide sequence is called
a)
epigenetic inheritance
b)
differential gene expression
c)
chromosomal inheritance
d)
gene regulation
16.

In eukaryotes, a cluster of proteins that assemble on the promoter is called the

a)

transcription initiation complex

b)

control element

c)

activator

d)

signal recognition protein

e)

ribozyme

17.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for transcription
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
18.
A distal control region that activators bind to are bent to contact mediator proteins and form the transcription initiation complex
a)
enhancers
b)
promoters
c)
repressors
d)
transcription factors
19.

All the genes in both a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell are expressed at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Prokaryotes regulate gene expression primarily

a)

in order to maintain homeostasis

b)

in response to changing environmental conditions

c)

during development as cells specialize

d)

Prokaryotes do not regulate gene expression. All genes are always on.

21.

In order for a gene to be expressed, ___ must bind to the gene's ___, a specific sequence of nucleotides at one end of the gene, thus initiating transcription.

a)

DNA polymerase, promotor

b)

DNA polymerase, operator

c)

RNA polymerase, promotor

d)

RNA polymerase, operator

22.

An operon is

a)

a genetic on/off switch in prokaryotes

b)

a genetic on/off switch in eukaryotes

c)

a group of related genes and the associated gene switches in prokaryotes

d)

a group of related genes and the associated gene switches in eukaryotes

23.

Genes can be shut off (not expressed) when a ___ binds to the ____. Check all that apply

a)

activator, operator

b)

repressor, operator

c)

corepressor, operator

d)

repressor, promotor

e)

repressor, silencer

24.

Which of the following is/are similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?

a)

both use proteins to interact with the DNA to control gene expression

b)

both have histones complexed with their DNA

c)

both separate the processes of transcription and translation spatially

d)

all of the above

25.

___ are DNA sequences which are often located far from the genes (usually upstream) they regulate in eukaryotes where transcription activators can bind.

a)

histones

b)

promotors

c)

enhancers

d)

silencers

e)

operators

26.

Which of the following help to turn genes on so that they are expressed (transcribed and translated)?

a)

a high level of condensation (coiling around histones)

b)

histone acetylation

c)

DNA methylation

d)

histone methylation

27.

Alternative RNA splicing involves

a)

removing introns and splicing the same exons together

b)

removing exons and splicing the same introns together

c)

removing introns and splicing different exons together

d)

removing exons and splicing different introns together

28.

which process is shown?

a)

replication

b)

respiration

c)

transcription

d)

translation

29.

Which of the following is the template for the production of RNA within a cell?

a)

DNA

b)

protein

c)

rRNA

d)

carbohydrate

30.
Which of the following best describes how DNA and RNA are similar?
a)
they both contain A and T
b)
They both have a double helix
c)
They are both composed of 5 different nucleotides
d)
they both have C and G
31.

The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this message?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

32.
DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would this be coded on mRNA?
a)
TGTCACG
b)
UGUCACG
c)
GUGACAU
d)
CACUGUA
33.

Genetic information in a cell flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?

a)

DNA-protein-RNA

b)

Protein-RNA-DNA

c)

RNA-protein-DNA

d)

DNA-RNA-protein

34.
Which process?
a)
mutation
b)
transcription
c)
respiration
d)
translation
35.

The main function of tRNA is to...

a)

carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins

b)

form a portion of ribosomes

c)

string together complementary RNA and DNA strands

d)

bring amino acids from the cytosol to the ribosomes

36.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
37.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
38.

Which of the following is the site of transcription in Eukaryotes?

a)

vacuole

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

39.
Which of the following is the site of translation?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
40.
Which of the following is created in the nucleus and carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
rRNA
41.

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes unzipping of DNA and the linkage together of RNA nucleotides to form mRNA?

a)

DNA polymerase III

b)

helicase

c)

ribozyme

d)

RNA Polymerase

e)

DNA Polymerase I

42.

Which of the following is required for translation to occur?

a)

energy

b)

ribosomes

c)

tRNA

d)

all of these

43.

Which of the following occurs when RNA polymerase attaches to promoter DNA?

a)

elongation of mRNA

b)

termination of mRNA

c)

initiation of a protein

d)

initiation of mRNA

44.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

45.

What is the purpose of strand "A"?

a)

For DNA replication

b)

To make more DNA

c)

To serve as a template for the synthesis of mRNA

d)

To carry the genetic information to the cytoplasm

46.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
47.

How many codons equals 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

48.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

49.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by ______________ bonds.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

50.

How do you know when to STOP translating a strand of mRNA?

a)

look for AUG codon

b)

stop at the end of the strand

c)

look for TATA box

d)

look for stop UAA or other stop codon

51.
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression but does occur in eukaryotic gene expression?
a)
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed
b)
RNA polymerase binds to the promotor
c)
a poly-A tail is added to the ends of the mRNA
d)
Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even alittle
52.

Which of the following best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?

a)

it is the recognition site for RNA Polymerase

b)

it sets the reading frame of the mRNA

c)

it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding

d)

it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene

53.

What is a function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?

a)

to add modified guanine to the 3' end of the mRNA

b)

to indicate the site of translational termination

c)

to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA

d)

to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

54.
Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes?
a)
elongation of the polypeptide
b)
base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c)
binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d)
the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5'cap
55.
What is the function of the release factor in translation?
a)
it separates tRNA in the A site from the growing polypeptide
b)
it binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA
c)
it releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a polypeptide
d)
it releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol
56.

On a DNA strand, where is the promotor located?

a)

at the 3'end of the sense strand

b)

upstream to the gene

c)

to the left of the template strand

d)

In the middle of the template strand

57.

A tRNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) already in the ribosome. Where does tRNA (#2) move to next?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

exit tunnel of ribosome

58.
Splicing is accomplished by:
a)
Spliceosomes
b)
DNA Ligase
c)
RNA Polymerase I
d)
SSBPs
59.

Which of the following is an example of the redundancy/degeneracy of the genetic code?

a)

The genetic code is not degenerate

b)

A given amino acid has more than one codon

c)

Codons can specifies more than one amino acid

d)

The first base specifies the amino acid

60.

An mRNA codon with the sequence 5'-GAC-3' would be matched by a tRNA anti-codon with the sequence:

a)

3'-GAC-5'

b)

3'-CUG-5'

c)

5'-GAC-3'

d)

5'-CUG-3'

61.

T/F: Only eukaryotes undergo transcription and translation.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

T/F: Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes undergo RNA processing, but in different locations.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What do ribosomes consist of?

a)

Protein only

b)

rRNA and Protein

c)

mRNA and Protein

d)

tRNA and Protein

64.

What do we call the non coding sections of RNA that are removed during splicing?

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

c)

Extrons

d)

Genes

65.

Which of the following is the site of transcription in prokaryotes?

a)

vacuole

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

66.

The diagram shows the arrangement of introns and exons in a segment of pre-mRNA. Pre-mRNA is immature mRNA containing introns and exons. Which is a mature mRNA molecule derived from the pre-mRNA by splicing?

a)
b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

e)

D

67.

The image shows a polysome in a bacterial cell. How many genes have been transcribed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

68.

Segment of mRNA containing the protein coding portion of the gene that remains within the mRNA after splicing has occurred.

a)

codons

b)

operons

c)

introns

d)

exons

69.

String of ribosomes simultaneously translating regions of the same mRNA strand during protein synthesis.

a)

codons

b)

anticodons

c)

polysomes

d)

nucleosomes

70.

Middle stage of translation in which additional amino acids specified by the mRNA are added to the growing polypeptide.

a)

promotion

b)

elongation

c)

transcription

d)

translocation

e)

replication

71.

A group of proteins involved in forming the nucleosome structure of eukaryote chromatin.

a)

nucleolus

b)

polyribosome

c)

histones

d)

introns

72.
Which type of ribosome creates the most proteins that are transported out of the cell? 
a)
bound
b)
free-floating
73.
Which type of ribosome creates the most proteins that are used by the cell?
a)
bound
b)
free-floating
74.
Where can you find ribosomes? 
a)
only in prokaryotic cells
b)
only in plant cells
c)
only in eukaryotic cells
d)
in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
75.
Where can you find ribosomes inside of eukaryotic cells? 
a)
only inside of the nucleus
b)
free-floating
c)
attached to the Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
both free-floating and attached to the Endoplasmic Reticulum
76.
After a ribosome synthesizes a polypeptide, what happens to the ribosome?
a)
it leaves the cell
b)
it is broken down or re-used
c)
it never synthesizes polypeptides
d)
it sleeps
77.
Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes?
a)
elongation of the polypeptide
b)
base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c)
binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d)
the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5'cap
78.
What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?
a)
it must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER
b)
its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi
c)
Its signal sequence must be cleaved off
d)
Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane
79.
The difference between DNA code and the epigenome is that the DNA code is
a)
flexible, while the epigenome is fixed for life
b)
fixed for life, while the epigenome is flexible
c)
determined by the environment, while the epigenome is not
d)
determined by one's stress level, while the epigenome is not
80.

Genes that are located in the same chromosome?

a)

Chromosome Map

b)

Genetic Recombination

c)

Linked Genes

d)

Fruit Fly

81.
According to _______, genes that are closer together on a chromosome, have a higher chance of being inherited together.  
a)
Gene Linkage
b)
Polygenic
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Epistasis
82.

How do you find the expected numbers when performing a Chi-Squared test to determine gene linkage?

a)

ratio from punnett square multiplied to total

b)

ratio from punnett square divided by total

c)

ratio from punnett square multiplied by observed number

d)

ratio from punnett square minus observed number

e)

count the number of observed offspring

83.
A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If this beetle mates with a female with genotype TTBb, what is the chance their offspring will have the genotype TtBb?
a)
3/16
b)
4/16
c)
8/16
d)
12/16
84.

Which genes in this picture are linked?

a)

A and C

b)

B and C

c)

A and B

d)

none of them

85.

Which genes will have the greatest chance of being separated during crossing over?

a)

B and C

b)

A and B

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

86.

When performing Chi-Squared test to determine gene linkage, with 3 degrees of freedom, a calculated p-value of 0.04 would give you the following results:

a)

accept null hypothesis, genes are linked

b)

accept null hypothesis, genes are unlinked

c)

reject null hypothesis, genes are linked

d)

reject null hypothesis, genes are unlinked

87.

When performing Chi-Squared test to determine gene linkage, with 3 degrees of freedom, a calculated X2-value of 0.04 would give you the following results:

a)

accept null hypothesis, genes are linked

b)

accept null hypothesis, genes are unlinked

c)

reject null hypothesis, genes are linked

d)

reject null hypothesis, genes are unlinked

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