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WorksheetsPCOL Violet 101-212
Total questions: 113
Worksheet time: 57mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
This is the sudden acute exacerbation of all of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis presenting as a life-threatening syndrome i. Myxedema coma ii. Grave’s disease iii. Thyroid Stori iv. Thyrotoxic crisis
a)
A. I only
b)
B. II only
c)
C. III only
d)
D. I and II
e)
E. III and IV
2.
A syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid hormone production
a)
A. Non-toxic goiter
b)
B. Thyroid neoplasms
c)
C. Neonatal Grave’s Disease
d)
D. Myxedema coma
e)
E. Thyroiditis
3.
What is the route of administration of methyltestosterone? I. IM II. IV III. Oral IV. Transdermal
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. III and IV
c)
C. I only
d)
D. III only
e)
E. None of these
4.
It is a chemotherapeutic drug which is a folic acid analog that binds with high affinity to the active catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase:
a)
A. Cisplatin
b)
B. Dacarbazine
c)
C. Methotrexate
d)
D. Vincristine
e)
E. Gemcitabine
5.
The combination of these are the most effective for H. pylori associated ulcers: I. Antibiotic II. PPI III. H2 receptor blocker IV. Prostaglandin analogs
a)
A. Antibiotic and PPI
b)
B. PPI and H2 receptor blocker
c)
C. H2 receptor blocker and prostaglandin analogs
d)
D. Antibiotic and H2 receptor blocker
e)
E. Antibiotic and prostaglandin analog
6.
This is the main form of leukemia in childhood, and it is the most common form of cancer in children
a)
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
b)
B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
c)
C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
d)
D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
e)
E. None of these
7.
It is the most common leukemia in adults.
a)
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
b)
B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
c)
C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
d)
D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
e)
E. None of these
8.
The halimark of this type of diabetes is selective beta cell destruction and severe or absolute insulin deficiency
a)
A. Type 1
b)
B. Type 2
c)
C. Type 3
d)
D. Type 4
e)
E. All of these
9.
What type of organ transplant rejection occurs within hours and cannot be stopped with immunosuppressive drug and occurs due to performed antibodies against the donor organs?
a)
A. Acute
b)
B. Accelerated
c)
C. Hyperecute
d)
D. Chronic
e)
E. Superficial
10.
Its generic name is Imiquimod and it is used in the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults. Available as 5% cream.
a)
A. Protopic
b)
B. Aldara
c)
C. Elidel
d)
D. Zovirax
e)
E. Denavir
11.
Podophyllum resin, an alcoholic extract of mandrake root of may apple is used in the treatment of:
a)
A. Condyloma Acuminatum
b)
B. Psoriasis
c)
C. Photophobia
d)
D. Lichen simplex chronicus
e)
E. Cushing’s syndrome
12.
This vitamin enhances the extracerebral metabolism of levodopa
a)
A. Vitamin A
b)
B. Vitamin B9
c)
C. Vitamin B6
d)
D. Vitamin E
e)
E. Vitamin D
13.
A combination of levodopa and MAO-A inhibitors could lead to this conditions
a)
A. Hypertensive Crisis
b)
B. Alopecia
c)
C. Memory Loss
d)
D. Hyperactivity
e)
E. GI bleeding
14.
A catechol-o-methyltransferase inhibitor
a)
A. Selegiline
b)
B. Entacapone
c)
C. Pergolide
d)
D. Ropinirole
e)
E. Rotigotine
15.
Which of the following is an example of piperidine type of phenothiazines?<br /><br />i. Thioridazine<br />ii. Piperacetazine<br />iii. Mesoridazine<br />iv. Carphenazine
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. III and IV
c)
C. I, II and III
d)
D. II, III and IV
e)
E. I, II, III and IV
16.
This is also known as manic-depressive illness
a)
A. Anxiety
b)
B. Bipolar Disorder
c)
C. Obstructive-compulsive disorder
d)
D. ADHD
e)
E. None of these
17.
PGE1 analog used as treatment and prophylaxis of NSAID-included gastric ulcer and is also an abortifacient drug.
a)
A. Alprostadil
b)
B. Misoprostol
c)
C. Dinoprostone
d)
D. Epoprostenol
e)
E. Prostin E2
18.
PGE1 analog used to treat erectile dysfunction:
a)
A. Alprostadil
b)
B. Misoprostol
c)
C.Dinoprostone
d)
D.Epoprostenol
e)
E.Prostin E2
19.
Drug for the treatment of gout which blocks xanthine oxidase thereby decreasing the production of uric acid:
a)
A. Indomethacin
b)
B. Colchicine
c)
C. Allopurinol
d)
D. Febuxosat
e)
E. C and D
20.
Drug for gout which increase urinary excretion of uric acid( inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal tubule):
a)
A. Indomethacin
b)
B. Colchicine
c)
C. Allopurinol
d)
D. Febuxosat
e)
E. Probenecid
21.
Drug for the treatment of gout that disrupts the inflammatory cycle, which inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of uric acid crystals:
a)
A. Indomethacin
b)
B. Colchicine
c)
C. Allopurinol
d)
D. Febuxosat
e)
E. Probenecid
22.
NSAID that inhibits COX enzyme thereby reducing the production of prostaglandins. May caused cholestatic hepatitis, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
a)
A. Indomethacin
b)
B. Colchicine
c)
C. Allopurinol
d)
D. Febuxosat
e)
E. Probenecid
23.
Medium to large vessel vasculitis seen in children; symptoms include conjunctivitis, rash erythema of the palms and soles, coronary aneurysms, and strawberry tongue:
a)
A. Aplastic anemia
b)
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
c)
C. Kawasaki disease
d)
D. Hirsutism
e)
E. Malignant Osteoporosis
24.
Painful erythematous subcutaneous nodules seen in patient with a high level of mycobacterial antigens.
a)
A. Aplastic anemia
b)
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosium
c)
C. Kawasaki disease
d)
D. Hirsutism
e)
E. Malignant Osteoporosis
25.
Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunostimulants? I. Filgastrim II. Cyclosporine III. Aldesleukin IV. Interferon Alfacon-1 V. Prednisone
a)
A. I, II and III
b)
B. I, III and IV
c)
C. II, III and IV
d)
D. II and V
e)
E. II and III
26.
Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunosuppressants? I. Filgastrim II. Cyclosporine III. Aldesleukin IV. Interferon alfacon-1 V. Prednisone
a)
A. I, II and III
b)
B. I, III and IV
c)
C. II, III and IV
d)
D. II and V
e)
E. II and III
27.
Immunosuppressant drug that binds to FK-binding protein and form a complex that inhibits calcineurin
a)
A. Tacrolimus
b)
B. Methotrexate
c)
C. Thalidomide
d)
D. Azathioprine
e)
E. Cyclophosphamide
28.
Chemotherapeutic drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis of nucleoside phosphates inhibiting DNA synthesis:
a)
A. Tacrolimus
b)
B. Methotrexate
c)
C. Thalidomide
d)
D. Azathioprine
e)
E. Cyclophosphamide
29.
Drug that inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis via cross-linking of these molecule. Used as chemotherapy for solid tumor malignancies
a)
A. Tacrolimus
b)
B. Methotrexate
c)
C. Thalidomide
d)
D. Azathioprine
e)
E. Cyclophosphamide
30.
A syndrome characterized by polyuria, polydipsia and hypernatremia and is caused by inadequate production of vasopressin:
a)
A. Acromegaly
b)
B. Central diabetes insipidus
c)
C. Gigantism
d)
D. Prolactinoma
e)
E. Aplastic anemia
31.
A rare syndrome of growth hormone (GH) excess in adults characterized by abnormal growth of tissues (particularly connective tissue) metabolic, and cardiac dysfunction
a)
A. Acromegaly
b)
B. Central diabetes insipidus
c)
C. Gigantism
d)
D. Prolactinoma
e)
E. Aplastic anemia
32.
A syndrome of GH excess in children and adolescents with long bone epiphyses that results in excessive height
a)
A. Acromegaly
b)
B. Central diabetes insipidus
c)
C. Gigantism
d)
D. Prolactinoma
e)
E. Aplastic anemia
33.
Pituitary tumor that secretes excessive amounts of prolactin and is associated with a syndrome of infertility and galactorrhea
a)
A. Acromegaly
b)
B. Central diabetes insipidus
c)
C. Gigantism
d)
D. Prolactinoma
e)
E. Aplastic anemia
34.
Somatostatin receptor agonist used in the treatment of acromegaly and several other hormone secreting tumors
a)
A. Ocreotide
b)
B. Pegvisomant
c)
C. Somatropin
d)
D. Leuprolide
e)
E. Bromocriptine
35.
Dopamine D2 receptor agonist used in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia and Parkinson’s disease
a)
A. Ocreotide
b)
B. Pegvisomant
c)
C. Somatropin
d)
D. Leuprolide
e)
E. Bromocriptine
36.
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs for ovarian suppression
a)
A. Ocreotide
b)
B. Pegvisomant
c)
C. Somatropin
d)
D. Leuprolide
e)
E. Bromocriptine
37.
Antagonist of vasopressin V1a and V2 receptors used as a treatment of hyponatremia in hospitalized patients:
a)
A. Desmopressin
b)
B. Conivaptan
c)
C. Atosiban
d)
D. Oxytocin
e)
E. Ganirelix
38.
Agonist of vasopressin V2 receptors for the treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus:
a)
A. Desmopressin
b)
B. Conivaptan
c)
C. Atosiban
d)
D. Oxytocin
e)
E. Ganirelix
39.
Antagonist of oxytocin receptor
a)
A. Desmopressin
b)
B. Conivaptan
c)
C. Atosiban
d)
D. Oxcytocin
e)
E. Genirelix
40.
Protein synthesized in the liver that transport thyroid hormone in the blood
a)
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)
b)
B. Thyroglobulin
c)
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)
d)
D. Thyroid hormone
e)
E. Thyroxine
41.
protein synthesized in the thyroid gland: its tyrosine residues are used to synthesize thyroid hormones
a)
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)
b)
B. Thyroglobulin
c)
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)
d)
D. Thyroid hormone
e)
E. Thyroxine
42.
The anterior pituitary hormone that regulates thyroid gland growth, uptake of iodine and synthesis of thyroid hormone:
a)
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)
b)
B. Thyroglobulin
c)
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)
d)
D. Thyroid hormone
e)
E. Thyroxine
43.
Which of the following listed below are key feature of hypothyroidism? i. Sensation of being cold ii. Reduced appetite iii. Weight loss iv. Tachycardia v. Drooping of eyelids
a)
A. I, II and III
b)
B. I, II and IV
c)
C. I, II and V
d)
D. II and III
e)
E. III and IV
44.
Which of the following listed below are key features of thyrotoxicosis? i. Sensation of being cold ii. Reduced appetite iii. Weight loss iv. Tachycardia v. Drooping of eyelids
a)
A. I, II and III
b)
B. I, II and IV
c)
C. I, II and V
d)
D. II and III
e)
E. III and IV
45.
Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase reactions, iodine organification and peripheral conversion of T4 and T3
a)
A. Methimazole
b)
B. Propranolol
c)
C. Lugol’s Solution
d)
D. Potassium iodide
e)
E. Levothyroxine
46.
Inhibition of B receptors and inhibition of conversion of T4 to T3 used in the management of thyroid storm
a)
A. Methimazole
b)
B. Propranolol
c)
C. Lugol’s Solution
d)
D. Potassium iodide
e)
E. Levothyroxine
47.
Partial or complete loss of adrenocortical function, including loss of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function:
a)
A. Addison disease
b)
B. Adrenal suppression
c)
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
d)
D. Pheochromocytoma
e)
E. Adrenocorticoids
48.
A metabolic disorder caused by excess secretion of adrenocorticoid steroids, which is most commonly due to increased amount of ACTH
a)
A. Addison disease
b)
B. Adrenal suppression
c)
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
d)
D. Pheochromocytoma
e)
E. Adrenocorticoids
49.
Strong agonist at mineralocorticoid receptors and moderate activation of glucocorticoid receptors, used to manage adrenal insufficiency in Addison’s Disease
a)
A. Prednisone
b)
B. Fludrocortisone
c)
C. Mifepristone
d)
D. Spironolactone
e)
E. Ketoconazole
50.
Pharmacologic antagonist of mineralocorticoid receptor and weak antagonist of androgen receptors, may cause gynecomastia
a)
A. Prednisone
b)
B. Fludrocortisone
c)
C. Mifepristone
d)
D. Spironolactone
e)
E. Ketoconazole
51.
All of the following are true about CNS drugs, EXCEPT: i. Water solubility is an important characteristic of most CNS drug ii. CNS drugs readily cross the placental barrier and enter the fetal circulation iii. Almost all CNS drugs require metabolism to more water soluble form for their elimination
a)
A. I only
b)
B. II only
c)
C. III only
d)
D. I and II
e)
E. II and III
52.
Which of the following drugs are classified as benzodiazepine? i. Alprazolam ii. Clonazepam iii. Diazepam iv. Thiopental v. Phenobarbital
a)
A. I, II and III
b)
B. II, III and IV
c)
C. IV and V
d)
D. I and II
e)
E. II and V
53.
Which of the following drugs are classified as barbiturates? i. Alprazolam ii. Clonazepam iii. Diazepam iv. Thiopental v. Phenobarbital
a)
A. I, II and III
b)
B. II, III and IV
c)
C. IV and V
d)
D. I and II
e)
E. II and V
54.
Binds of GABAA receptor subunits to facilitate chloride channel opening and increase frequency
a)
A. Benzodiazepines
b)
B. Barbiturates
c)
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
d)
D. Antipsychotics
e)
E. Antiseizure
55.
Bind to GABAA receptor sites(distinct from benzodiazepines ), facilitate channel opening and increased duration
a)
A. Benzodiazepines
b)
B. Barbiturates
c)
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
d)
D. Antipsychotics
e)
E. Antiseizure
56.
Antagonist at benzodiazepine sites on GABAA receptor
a)
A. Ramelteon
b)
B. Buspirone
c)
C. Secobarbital
d)
D. Flumazenil
e)
E. Phenytoin
57.
Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in suprachiasmatic nucleus used for the treatment of sleep disorder
a)
A. Ramelteon
b)
B. Buspirone
c)
C. Secobarbital
d)
D. Flumazenil
e)
E. Phenytoin
58.
Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors and possibly D2 receptors used for generalized anxiety states
a)
A. Ramelteon
b)
B. Buspirone
c)
C. Secobarbital
d)
D. Flumazenil
e)
E. Phenytoin
59.
NAD+-dependent enzymes, found mainly in the liver and gut which accounts for the metabolism of low to moderate doses of ethanol
a)
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
b)
B. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system
c)
C. Monoamine oxidase
d)
D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
e)
E. Catechol-o-methyl transferase
60.
Sever form of alcohol withdrawal whose main symptoms are sweating, tremor, confusion, and hallucinations
a)
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
b)
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
c)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
d)
D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
e)
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
61.
A syndrome of craniofacial dysmorphia, heart defects and mental retardation caused by the teratogenic effects of ethanol consumption during pregnancy:
a)
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
b)
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
c)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
d)
D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
e)
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
62.
The characteristic syndrome of insomnia, tremor, agitation, seizures and autonomic instability engendered by deprivation in an individual who is physically dependent on ethanol
a)
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
b)
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
c)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
d)
D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
e)
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
63.
A syndrome of ataxia, confusion and paralysis of the extraocular muscles that is associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency
a)
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
b)
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
c)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
d)
D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
e)
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
64.
The most common medical complication of chronic alcohol abuse
a)
A. Hypertension
b)
B. Diabetes
c)
C. Lung Disease
d)
D. Liver Disease
e)
E. Cancer
65.
NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist that is also US-FDA approved for treatment of alcoholism
a)
A. Naltrexone
b)
B. Acamprosate
c)
C. Disulfiram
d)
D. Methanol
e)
E. Ethylene glycol
66.
Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor used adjunctively in some treatment program for alcoholics. If ethanol is consumed by a patient who has taken this drug, acetaldehyde accumulation leads to nausea, headache, flushing and hypotension
a)
A. Naltrexone
b)
B. Acamprosate
c)
C. Disulfiram
d)
D. Methanol
e)
E. Ethylene glycol
67.
Poisoning of this substance result in toxic levels, which causes characteristics visual disturbance plus coma, seizures, acidosis and death due to respiratory failure
a)
A. Ethanol
b)
B. Methanol
c)
C. Ethylene Glycol
d)
D. Diazepam
e)
E. Thiamine
68.
BDZ receptor agonist that facilitates GABA-mediated activation of GABAA receptors used in the prevention and treatment of acute ethanol withdrawal syndrome
a)
A. Ethanol
b)
B. Methanol
c)
C. Ethylene Glycol
d)
D. Diazepam
e)
E. Thiamine
69.
Vitamin administered to patients suspected of alcohol dependence to prevent the Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
a)
A. Ascorbic acid
b)
B. Riboflavin
c)
C. Thiamine
d)
D. Folic acid
e)
E. Niacin
70.
Nonselective competitive antagonist of opioid receptors used to reduce risk of relapse in individuals with alcohol-used disorder
a)
A. Acamprosate
b)
B. Disulfiram
c)
C. Formepizole
d)
D. Ethanol
e)
E. Naltrexone
71.
Inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents conversion of methanol and ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites. Used as an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning:
a)
A. Acamprosate
b)
B. Disulfiram
c)
C. Fomepizole
d)
D. Ethanol
e)
E. Naltrexone
72.
Tonic phase (less than 1min) involves abrupt loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity, and respiration arrest; clonic phase (2-3 min) involves jerking of body muscles, with lip or tongue biting, fecal and urinary incontinence; formerly called grand mal:
a)
A. Partial seizures, simple
b)
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
c)
C. Absence seizures, generalized
d)
D. Myoclonic seizures
e)
E. Status epilepticus
73.
Impaired consciousness (often abrupt onset and brief) sometimes with automatisms, loss of postural tone, or enuresis, begin in childhood (formerly, petit mal) and usually cease by age 20 yrs:
a)
A. Partial seizures, simple
b)
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
c)
C. Absence seizures, generalized
d)
D. Myoclonic seizures
e)
E. Status epilepticus
74.
A series of seizures ( usually tonic-clonic) without recovery of consciousness between attacks; it is a life threatening emergency:
a)
A. Partial seizures, simple
b)
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
c)
C. Absence seizures, generalized
d)
D. Myoclonic seizures
e)
E. Status epilepticus
75.
Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of an antiseizure drug? i. Sodium channel blockade ii. GABA-related mechanism iii. Calcium channel blockade iv. Alpha receptor blockade
a)
A. I only
b)
B. II only
c)
C. III only
d)
D. IV only
e)
E. III and IV
76.
Which of the following is a preferred drug for the treatment of absence seizures?
a)
A. Phenytoin
b)
B. Carbamazepine
c)
C. Ethosuximide
d)
D. Diazepam
e)
E. Clonazepam
77.
Stage of anesthesia where the patient has decreased awareness of pain, sometimes with amnesia. Consciousness may be impaired but is not lost.
a)
A. Stage1: Analgesia
b)
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
c)
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
d)
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
e)
E. Stage5: Delirium
78.
Stage of anesthesia where the patient develops severe respiratory and cardiovascular depression that requires mechanical and pharmacologic support
a)
A. Stage1: Analgesia
b)
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
c)
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
d)
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
e)
E. Stage5: Delirium
79.
Stage of anesthesia where the patient appears to be delirious and excited. Amnesia occurs reflexes are enhanced, and respiration is typically irregular, retching and incontinence may occur.
a)
A. Stage1: Analgesia
b)
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
c)
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
d)
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
e)
E. Stage5: Delirium
80.
Anesthesia produced by a mixture of drugs, often including both inhaled and intravenous agents
a)
A. Maximum anesthesia
b)
B. Balanced anesthesia
c)
C. General anesthesia
d)
D. Inhalation anesthesia
e)
E. Optimal anesthesia
81.
The alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic that is required to prevent a response to a standardized painful stimulus in 50% of patients
a)
A. Maximum alveolar concentration
b)
B. Optimal anesthetic dose
c)
C. Minimum alveolar concentration
d)
D. Standard alveolar concentration
e)
E. Anesthetic alveolar concentration
82.
Which of the following drugs listed below is classified as inhaled anesthetics? i. Halothane ii. Thiopental iii. Ketamine iv. Enflurane
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. II and III
c)
C. I and IV
d)
D. III and IV
e)
E. I and V
83.
Which of the following drug listed below is classified as intravenous anesthetic? i. Halothane ii. Thiopental iii. Ketamine iv. Enflurane
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. II and III
c)
C. I and IV
d)
D. III and IV
e)
E. I and V
84.
This drug produces a state of “dissociative anesthesia” in which the patient remains conscious but has marked catatonia, analgesia and amnesia
a)
A. Midazolam
b)
B. Thiopental
c)
C. Ketamine
d)
D. Morphine
e)
E. Etomidate
85.
Centrally acting a2-adrenergic agonist that has analgesic and hypnotic actions when used intravenously
a)
A. Phenylephrine
b)
B. Dexmedetomidine
c)
C. Prazosin
d)
D. Clonidine
e)
E. Minoxidil
86.
Barbiturate that is used for induction of anesthesia and for short surgical procedure:
a)
A. Nitrous oxide
b)
B. Thiopental
c)
C. Halothane
d)
D. Midazolam
e)
E. Ketamine
87.
Long acting ester local anesthetic:
a)
A. Tetracaine
b)
B. Procaine
c)
C. Benzocaine
d)
D. Bupivacaine
e)
E. Lidocaine
88.
All of the following are clinical use of local anesthetic EXCEPT:
a)
A. Used for minor surgical procedures often in combination with vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine
b)
B. Used in spinal anesthesia and to produce autonomic blockade in ischemic conditions.
c)
C. Slow epidural infusion at low concentrations has been used successfully for postoperative analgesia
d)
D. Oral and parenteral form of local anesthetic are sometimes used adjunctively in neuropathic pain states
e)
E. Used as a component of balance anesthesia
89.
Neuromuscular paralysis that results from pharmacologic antagonism at the acetylcholine receptor of the end plate:
a)
A. Depolarizing blockade
b)
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
c)
C. Stabilizing blockade
d)
D. A or C
e)
E. B or C
90.
Neuromuscular paralysis that results from persistent depolarization of the end plate:
a)
A. Depolarizing blockade
b)
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
c)
C. Stabilizing blockade
d)
D. A or C
e)
E. B or C
91.
Which of the following drug can reverse the blockade brought about by non- depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
a)
A. Neostigmine
b)
B. Succinylcholine
c)
C. Tubocurarine
d)
D. Atropine
e)
E. Acetylcholine
92.
Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
a)
A. Tubocurarine
b)
B. Baclofen
c)
C. Cyclobenzaprine
d)
D. Dantrolene
e)
E. Diazepam
93.
Which of the following listed bellows are signs of Parkinsonism? i. Rigidity of skeletal muscle ii. Akinesia iii. Flat facies iv. Tremor at rest
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. II and III
c)
C. III and IV
d)
D. I, II and III
e)
E. All of these
94.
A progressive neurologic disease characterized by shuffling gait, stooped posture, resting tremor, speech impediments, movement difficulties and an eventual slowing of mental processes and dementia
a)
A. Parkinsonism
b)
B. Huntington Disease
c)
C. Tourette’s syndrome
d)
D. Wilson’s disease
e)
E. Athetosis
95.
An inherited adult-onset neurologic disease characterized by dementia and bizame involuntary movements:
a)
A. Parkinsonism
b)
B. Huntington Disease
c)
C. Tourette’s syndrome
d)
D. Wilson’s disease
e)
E. Athetosis
96.
A neurologic disease of unknown cause that presents with multiple tics associated with snorting, sniffing and involuntary vocalization(often obscene):
a)
A. Parkinsonism
b)
B. Huntington Disease
c)
C. Tourette’s syndrome
d)
D. Wilson’s disease
e)
E. Athetosis
97.
An inherited (autosomal recessive) disorder of copper accumulation in liver, brain, kidney and eyes; symptoms include jaundice, vomiting, tremors, muscle weakness, stiff movements, liver failure and demetia
a)
A. Parkinsonism
b)
B. Huntington Disease
c)
C. Tourette’s syndrome
d)
D. Wilson’s disease
e)
E. Athetosis
98.
Strategies of drug treatment of parkinsonism involve which of the following? i. Increasing dopamine activity in the brain ii. Decreasing muscarinic cholinergic activity iii. Neuromuscular blockade iv. Increasing acetylcholine activity
a)
A. I only
b)
B. I and II
c)
C. II and III
d)
D. III only
e)
E. III and IV
99.
Drug that does not cross the blood-brain barrier but inhibits dopa decarboxylase in peripheral tissues used in combination with levodopa for the treatment of parkinsonism
a)
A. Reserpine
b)
B. Selegeline
c)
C. Carbidopa
d)
D. Pramipexole
e)
E. Ropinirole
100.
Non ergot which has high affinity for dopamine D3 receptor which is effective as monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can be used together with levodopa in more advanced disease:
a)
A. Reserpine
b)
B. Selegeline
c)
C. Carbidopa
d)
D. Pramipexole
e)
E. Ropinirole
101.
Dummy medicine containing no active ingredient ( or alternatively, a dummy surgical procedure diet or other kind of therapeutic intervention), which the patient believes is (or could be, in the context of a controlled trial) the real thing.
a)
A. Prodrug
b)
B. Orphan drug
c)
C. Lead drug
d)
D. Placebo
e)
E. Experimental drug
102.
To avoid bias, clinical trials are performed using the following study design, EXCEPT:
a)
A. Un-blinded study
b)
B. Controlled
c)
C. Randomized
d)
D. Double Blind
e)
E. B and C
103.
Lethal dose for 50% of the population divided by effective dose for 50% of population is called:
a)
A. Meta-analysis
b)
B. Therapeutic range
c)
C. Therapeutic index
d)
D. Potency
e)
E. Efficacy
104.
All of the following are true regarding drug therapeutic index EXCEPT:
a)
A. Unsatisfactory as an measure of drug safety
b)
B. Based on animal toxicity data, which may not reflect forms of toxicity or adverse Reactions that are important clinically
c)
C. It takes no account of idiosyncratic toxic reactions
d)
D. Provided a measure of the margin of safety of a drug, by drawing attention to the relationship between the effective and toxic dose
e)
E. None of these
105.
Refers to an eclectic group of drugs that are used for non-medical purposes. It includes drug of abuse to enhance athletic or other performance, as well as those taken for cosmetic purposes or for purely social reasons:
a)
A. Recreational drugs
b)
B. Non-medical drugs
c)
C. Prescription drugs
d)
D. Lifestyle drugs
e)
Performance drugs
106.
Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indications but also be used for other ‘lifestyle’ purposes:
a)
A. Orlistat
b)
B. Minoxidil
c)
C. Alcohol
d)
D. Caffeine
e)
E. Cannabis
107.
Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indication that can also be used to satisfy ‘lifestyle choices’ or to treat ‘lifestyle disease’
a)
A. Orlistat
b)
B. Minoxidil
c)
C. Alcohol
d)
D. Caffeine
e)
E. Cannabis
108.
Used mainly to achieve rapid weight loss before weighing in and also to mask presence of other agents in urine by dilution:
a)
A. Anabolic agents
b)
B. Hormones and related agents
c)
C. Diuretics
d)
D. Stimulants
e)
E. Narcotic analgesics
109.
Anthelminthic drug that acts by inhibiting the polymerization of helminth B-tubulin, thus interfering with microtubule-dependent functions such as glucose uptake:
a)
A. Diethylcarbamazine
b)
B. Ivermectin
c)
C. Niclosamide
d)
D. Praziquantel
e)
E. Benzimidazoles
110.
Anthelmintic drug act by changing the parasite such that it becomes susceptible to the host’s normal immune responses. It may also interfere with helminth arachidonate metabolism.
a)
A. Diethylcarbamazine
b)
B. Ivermectin
c)
C. Niclosamide
d)
D. Praziquantel
e)
E. Benzimidazoles
111.
These class of antifungal agents inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 3A enzyme, lanosine 14a-demethylase, which is responsible for converting lanosterol to ergosterol, the main sterol in the fungal cell membrane:
a)
A. Echinocandins
b)
B. Amphotericin
c)
C. Flucytosine
d)
D. Azoles
e)
E. Griseofulvin
112.
These class of antifungal agents inhibit the synthesis of 1,3-B-glucan, a glucose polymer that is necessary for maintaining the structures of fungal cell walls. In the absence of this polymer, fungal cells lose integrity and lyse.
a)
A. Diethylcarbamazine
b)
B. Amphotericin
c)
C. Flucytosine
d)
D. Azoles
e)
E. Griseofulvin
113.
A syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid hormone production
a)
A. Non-toxic goiter
b)
B. Thyroid neoplasms
c)
C. Neonatal Grave’s Disease
d)
D. Myxedema coma
e)
E. Thyroiditis
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