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Worksheets

US Gov Final Review

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 6hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which courts hear the vast majority of cases in the United States?

a)

bankruptcy courts

b)

federal courts

c)

appellate courts

d)

state courts

2.

Which term refers to the sole right of a court to hear a case?

a)

appellate jurisdiction

b)

exclusive jurisdiction

c)

concurrent jurisdiction

d)

original jurisdiction

3.

Who makes a legal complaint in a court proceeding?

a)

plaintiff

b)

defendant

c)

jury

d)

public defender

4.

Which type of jurisdiction is held by a court that reviews the proceedings of a lower court?

a)

original jurisdiction

b)

appellate jurisdiction

c)

exclusive jurisdiction

d)

concurrent jurisdiction

5.

Which courts serve as the trial courts of the federal system?

a)

district courts

b)

courts of appeals

c)

state supreme courts

d)

bankruptcy courts

6.

Which of the following would be handled in a civil trial?

a)

kidnapping

b)

murder

c)

dispute over property

d)

making false statements in a legal proceeding

7.

How many justices does the Supreme Court have today?

a)

six

b)

seven

c)

eight

d)

nine

e)

ten

8.

The concept that a judge should interpret the Constitution according to the Framers’ original intention is known as judicial

a)

activism.

b)

philosophy.

c)

review.

d)

restraint.

9.

Which term refers to previous court rulings?

a)

precedent

b)

senatorial courtesy

c)

judicial review

d)

jurisdiction

10.

Senatorial courtesy plays a role in nominations to the

a)

district courts.

b)

courts of appeals.

c)

Supreme Court

d)

state supreme courts

11.

The Framers thought that making federal judgeships permanent would help ensure

a)

that judges would become wealthy.

b)

strong party involvement in the selection of judges.

c)

judicial independence.

d)

diversity among federal judges.

12.

Congress and the states can check the federal judiciary by

a)

cutting the judges’ pay.

b)

refusing to obey unpopular rulings.

c)

amending the Constitution.

d)

firing judges.

13.

Judicial independence is a cornerstone of the American judicial system because it safeguards the jobs of federal judges.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The Judiciary Act of 1789 set up the basic three-tiered federal court structure that is still in place today.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The Constitution requires all federal judges to be trained lawyers.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

(a)   refers to cases that fall under both federal and state jurisdiction.

17.

(a)   have original jurisdiction over nearly all criminal and civil cases heard in the federal court system.

18.

The Constitution gives the (a)   the power to approve all federal judges.

19.

Congress has the power to (a)   judges and remove them from office.

20.

Which group gathers to hear evidence of a possible crime and to recommend whether there is sufficient evidence to file criminal charges?

a)

grand jury

b)

trial jury

c)

magistrate judges

d)

public defenders

21.

Which term refers to the legal process by which people who cannot pay money they owe others can receive court protection and assistance in settling their debts?

a)

sovereign immunity

b)

bankruptcy

c)

court-martial

d)

precedent

22.

What is the main job of a federal district court judge?

a)

deciding which cases to hear

b)

presiding over trials

c)

hearing appeals from lower courts

d)

maintaining court records

23.

To say that a judge is an Article III judge means that he or she can serve

a)

as long as Congress sees fit.

b)

14 years.

c)

until death or retirement.

d)

8 years.

24.

Which of the following is a minor criminal case?

a)

misdemeanor

b)

felony

c)

civil suit

d)

bankruptcy

25.

What is the U.S. attorney’s job?

a)

representing defendants who cannot afford a lawyer

b)

handling cases before the Supreme Court

c)

helping district judges decide cases

d)

representing the United States in court

26.

Study the diagram and answer the question that follows.

Appeals from the U.S. Court of Appeals for Veterans Claims reach the Supreme Court through the

a)

U.S. Courts of Appeal.

b)

district courts.

c)

U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit.

d)

U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces.

27.

Who provides security at federal courthouses?

a)

public defenders

b)

U.S. marshals

c)

military tribunals

d)

local law enforcement

28.

Which term refers to someone who files an appeal?

a)

appellant

b)

plaintiff

c)

public defender

d)

defendant

29.

The written arguments of each side to an appeal are called

a)

complaints.

b)

responses.

c)

briefs.

d)

petitions.

30.

In which court do people bring claims against the United States?

a)

U.S. Court of Federal Claims

b)

U.S. Tax Court

c)

U.S. district courts

d)

U.S. Court of International Trade

31.

Which of the following refers to the immunity a nation has against being sued?

a)

diplomatic immunity

b)

sovereign immunity

c)

executive immunity

d)

congressional immunity

32.

If members of the military violate the Uniform Code of Military Justice, they are subject to prosecution in a

a)

military commissions.

b)

district court.

c)

national security court.

d)

court-martial.

33.

The special military commissions created by President George W. Bush after the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, were struck down by the

a)

U.S. Court of Appeals for Veterans Claims.

b)

Supreme Court.

c)

U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces.

d)

U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit.

34.

A federal district court judge’s main job is to preside over trials.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Lawyers in the U.S. attorney’s office represent people accused of criminal offenses.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The ruling of a court of appeals is typically the final ruling on a particular case.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Read the selection and answer the question that follows.


“Limitations [on the power of government] . . . can be preserved in practice in no other way than through . . . courts of justice, whose duty it must be to declare all acts contrary to the manifest tenor [obvious meaning] of the Constitution void. Without this, all the reservations of particular rights or privileges would amount to nothing.”

—Alexander Hamilton, The Federalist No. 78


What significant power did Hamilton foresee for the federal courts?

a)

judicial activism

b)

judicial review

c)

precedent

d)

stare decisis

38.

In which case did the Supreme Court assert its power of judicial review?

a)

McCulloch v. Maryland

b)

Dred Scott v. Sandford

c)

Marbury v. Madison

d)

Gibbons v. Ogden

39.

After the Civil War, the Supreme Court tended to view economic regulation as something that

a)

Congress should handle.

b)

the states should handle.

c)

was necessary to protect workers.

d)

was an assault on property rights.

40.

In which case did the Supreme Court declare that Congress lacked the power to outlaw slavery in the territories?

a)

McCulloch v. Maryland

b)

Dred Scott v. Sandford

c)

Marbury v. Madison

d)

Gibbons v. Ogden

41.

What was President Franklin Roosevelt’s reason for wanting to “pack” the Supreme Court?

a)

so New Deal programs would survive legal challenge

b)

to help the Court function more efficiently

c)

to enable the justices to better handle their workloads

d)

so that some New Deal programs would be struck down

42.

Who served as chief justice when the Supreme Court reached the height of its liberal era?

a)

Roger Taney

b)

John Roberts

c)

John Marshall

d)

Earl Warren

43.

Which Supreme Court ruling held that schools could not prevent students from protesting the Vietnam War?

a)

Brown v. Board of Education

b)

Tinker v. Des Moines

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright

d)

Miranda v. Arizona

44.

The confirmation process of a nominee to the Supreme Court begins with hearings before the

a)

Senate Judiciary Committee.

b)

Department of Justice.

c)

House Judiciary Committee.

d)

American Bar Association.

45.

From which court is a case most likely to make its way to the Supreme Court?

a)

state supreme court

b)

federal bankruptcy court

c)

federal court of appeals

d)

federal district court

46.

What is a writ of certiorari?

a)

ruling from the Supreme Court

b)

order seeking review of a lower court case

c)

petition that initiates a lawsuit

d)

order to a district court to retry a case

47.

In the process of hearing a case, what do Supreme Court justices do after reading the written briefs?

a)

listen to oral arguments

b)

write an opinion

c)

issue a ruling

d)

place the case on the court’s docket

48.

A majority opinion is one that is signed by at least how many members of the Supreme Court?

a)

three

b)

four

c)

five

d)

six

49.

Under the leadership of Chief Justice Samuel Chase, the Supreme Court became an equal partner of the other two branches of U.S. government.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

In Dred Scott v. Sandford, the Supreme Court ruled that Congress lacked the power to outlaw slavery in territories.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

The Supreme Court’s liberal era reached its peak during the chief justiceship of Earl Warren.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

During the 1930s, President Franklin D. Roosevelt wanted to (a)   with justices who would support his programs.

53.

When a party to a case wants to appeal a case to the Supreme Court, it asks the Court to issue a(n) (a)   .

54.

Which of the following is most likely to be a result of political socialization?

a)

John decides to buy sneakers like those of his friend Rafael.

b)

Mary goes to religious services every week with her parents.

c)

Joan becomes a Democrat like her father.

d)

Mushtaq loses all interest in national elections.

55.

A newspaper’s investigative series exposing corruption in a public agency would be an example of how the mass media might

a)

engage in political socialization.

b)

help determine the public agenda.

c)

measure public opinion.

d)

cover electoral politics.

56.

Which of the following best reflects changes in the mass media since the 1990s?

a)

Television replaced radio as the public’s major news source.

b)

The audience for network television news has grown.

c)

Ownership of the mass media has become more fragmented.

d)

Major newspapers publish online editions.

57.

Read the selection and answer the question that follows.


“At its best, the Internet can educate more people faster than any media tool…At its worst, it can make people dumber faster than any media tool…Because the Internet has an aura of ‘technology’ surrounding it, the uneducated believe information from it even more.”

—Thomas Friedman, The New York Times (2002)


What does Thomas Friedman think is the main problem associated with using the Internet as a source of information?

a)

A lot of people use the Internet to educate themselves instead of going to school.

b)

People may be unduly influenced by the information they find on the Internet.

c)

Internet technology is too complicated for most people to understand.

d)

Accurate news and information cannot be delivered to home computers.

58.

Which of the following best describes a desirable sample universe for a question about whom voters favor in a Democratic primary?

a)

all newly-registered Democrats

b)

all registered Democrats

c)

all Democrats who have attended a recent campaign rally

d)

all registered voters

59.

Which of the following polls is most likely to be based on a truly random sample of 18- to 21-year-old voters?

a)

online poll

b)

poll of registered voters aged 18-21, contacting every tenth person on a list

c)

poll taken by knocking on every third door in a college dorm

d)

poll of all 18- to 21-year-olds attending a rap concert

60.

The purpose of exit polls is to

a)

judge who is leading in a primary election race.

b)

determine public opinion on U.S. troop withdrawals.

c)

predict election results before polls close.

d)

influence voters to back a certain candidate.

61.

What is the relationship between interest groups and political action committees?

a)

There is no relationship between interest groups and political action committees.

b)

Many interest groups have political action committees to support candidates for office.

c)

Many political action committees create interest groups to help promote their goals.

d)

Unlike political action committees, interest groups can contribute money to candidates.

62.

An interest group that wants to contribute to candidates for Congress would most likely

a)

hire a lobbyist.

b)

start a Web page.

c)

create a trade association.

d)

form a political action committee.

63.

Which of the following is a type of group that promotes the interests of a group of businesses?

a)

commodity group

b)

cause-based group

c)

trade association

d)

labor union

64.

Which of the following would be most likely to support a law requiring new safety measures in an industry?

a)

labor group

b)

business group

c)

cause-based group

d)

professional group

65.

Which of the following descriptions is most likely to apply to an interest group whose Web site offers the article “Can the Amazon Rainforest Be Saved”?

a)

cause-based group interested in the environment

b)

trade association for tropical lumber producers

c)

labor group for workers in the banana industry

d)

cause-based group interested in building democracy

66.

An interest group that endorses a candidate is

a)

criticizing the candidate’s actions.

b)

giving money for a campaign.

c)

asking voters to elect the candidate.

d)

asking for the candidate’s help.

67.

What is a goal common to all interest groups?

a)

electing a slate of candidates

b)

promoting business-friendly laws

c)

influencing public policy

d)

expanding democratic freedoms

68.

Which of the following might help an interest group to influence public opinion?

a)

conducing an exit poll

b)

having a lobbyist meet with a legislator

c)

contributing to a candidate

d)

supplying information on a Web site

69.

In what way would the National Organization for Women most likely differ from the U.S. Chamber of Commerce?

a)

employing lobbyists to promote legislation it favors

b)

representing a societal rather than business group

c)

allowing women to be members

d)

not trying to influence public opinion

70.

Which of the following was a goal of Congress’s 2007 legislation aimed at checking the influence of powerful interest groups?

a)

prohibiting lobbying by corporations

b)

outlawing lobbying

c)

banning lobbying by labor unions

d)

limiting some activities of lobbyists

71.

Electronic media date back to the growth of television in the 1950s.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Joining a march or demonstration is a responsible way for citizens to try to influence public policy.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A commodity group might represent tomato farmers but not farm laborers.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

An official who seeks support from a particular neighborhood might want the help of a grass roots organizer.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

A typical task for a trade association would be to help an industry’s workers to organize a labor union.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The accuracy of a public opinion poll is greater if it is based on a random (a)   .

77.

The news media may show (a)   by ignoring or downplaying an important story.

78.

A well-informed person gets information from multiple sources and avoids (a)   .

79.

A(n) (a)   group might represent the interests of accountants or lawyers.

80.

A group may organize a demonstration or march at the (a)   level to show support for a particular position.

81.

What is the origin of the today’s two major U.S. political parties?

a)

Constitution

b)

Federalist Papers

c)

a party split

d)

Bill of Rights

82.

Which of the following best describes a political party’s ideology?

a)

set of proposals for new laws to be passed

b)

list of candidates chosen to run for office

c)

campaign statement on how tax burden should be addressed

d)

ideas about the proper goals of government

83.

A significant difference between political parties and interest groups is that

a)

political parties tend to focus on a single overriding issue, such as taxes.

b)

political parties pressure government from the outside.

c)

the main goal of political parties is to elect their members to public office.

d)

interest groups operate in all areas of the country.

84.

What party system is the most common party system?

a)

one-party

b)

two-party

c)

third-party

d)

multiparty

85.

In the 2000 presidential election, Ralph Nader ran as the candidate of the Green Party. Which of the following best describes the role he took?

a)

independent candidate

b)

multiparty candidate

c)

write-in candidate

d)

third-party candidate

86.

In the 2000 presidential election, which party was hurt more by Ralph Nader’s candidacy?

a)

Green Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Republican Party

d)

Federalist Party

87.

Which of the following is a principal reason that a political party would sponsor an affiliated organization, such as the National Federation of Republican Women?

a)

bolstering party fund-raising

b)

winning over specific groups of voters

c)

filtering out extremist candidates

d)

helping elect the parties’ congressional candidates

88.

How does the fact that parties provide a political “brand name” help a political party?

a)

Most voters join one of the two major parties.

b)

White conservative men tend to vote for Republicans.

c)

Office seekers are more interested in the good of the party than their own success.

d)

Voters may vote for an unknown candidate because they support the party’s views.

89.

In our two-party system, each major party tries to

a)

form a coalition with the other.

b)

focus on one overriding issue.

c)

appeal to as broad a base as possible.

d)

avoid catering to special constituencies.

90.

Compared with political parties in multiparty systems, what are parties in our two-party system more likely to do?

a)

support extremist ideas

b)

engage in corruption

c)

lack party unity

d)

fulfill campaign promises

91.

In a multiparty system, if one party leaves a coalition, new elections may be needed.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

The same two political parties have dominated American politics for more than 150 years.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Several precincts sometimes make up a voting district called a(n) (a)   .

94.

The Democratic party falls in the liberal part of the (a)   and the Republican party falls in the conservative part.

95.

In a local election that uses nomination by petition, a candidate would be required to

a)

collect the signatures of a certain number of qualified voters.

b)

show proof of having voted in the most recent local election.

c)

compete against other candidates in a primary election.

d)

secure the approval of a political party’s caucus.

96.

How has the nominating process changed since the 1890s?

a)

Party leaders have gained more power.

b)

Fewer states are using direct primaries.

c)

Party conventions are no longer held.

d)

Voters have gained a greater voice.

97.

In which of the following might a Republican voter help to choose the Democratic nominee for a public office?

a)

general election

b)

open primary

c)

closed primary

d)

precinct caucus

98.

The main task of a national nominating convention is to

a)

choose a party’s candidate for president.

b)

select candidates to run in the party’s presidential primaries.

c)

elect a president from the top two candidates.

d)

nominate delegates to state party conventions.

99.

A meeting of party members to endorse candidates for office and select delegates is called a

a)

primary election.

b)

convention.

c)

caucus.

d)

secret ballot.

100.

What takes place on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November of all even-numbered years?

a)

presidential election

b)

precinct caucuses

c)

congressional election

d)

national nominating convention

101.

Which of the following best describes a possible drawback of electronic voting?

a)

Vote counting might take longer.

b)

Voting might not be secret.

c)

Machines might not provide a paper trail.

d)

It makes it impossible to use absentee ballots.

102.

A common criticism of election campaigns is that they are too

a)

inconclusive.

b)

informative.

c)

short.

d)

negative.

103.

Which of the following is most likely to be the occasion for a special election?

a)

The regular election day falls on a Sunday.

b)

An elected official resigns.

c)

The president and Congress cannot agree on issues.

d)

There is only one candidate for an office.

104.

Which of the following is the best argument in favor of making it easier for people to use absentee ballots?

a)

Voter fraud would be reduced.

b)

Voter registration would become easier.

c)

More 18-year-olds would vote.

d)

Voter participation would increase.

105.

Conventions and caucuses are similar in that both are open to the public.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Conventions and caucuses are similar in that both are open to the public.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

In the United States, citizens are automatically registered to vote when they turn 18.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Of the two kinds of campaign contributions, the one subject to most restrictions is known as (a)   .

109.

In a four-candidate general election, the winner would generally be the candidate who wins a(n) (a)   of the votes.

110.

Voters who cannot get to the polls on election day may be allowed to use (a)   .

111.

What are civil liberties?

a)

freedom to take part in a civil court case

b)

basic freedoms to think and to act that are protected and that all people have

c)

rights that involve equal status and treatment and the right to participate in government

d)

freedom to do as one wishes

112.

Freedom of speech can be limited whenever

a)

a majority of Congress chooses to do so.

b)

the president chooses to limit it.

c)

it is likely to lead to immediate lawless action.

d)

the states want to limit it.

113.

Many delegates to the Constitutional Convention believed that a bill of rights was unnecessary because they thought that

a)

the government would be unable to enforce a bill of rights.

b)

state constitutions and a separation of powers were enough to protect Americans’ rights.

c)

it was obvious that the English Bill of Rights had done little to protect people’s rights.

d)

few people would care whether the Constitution included a bill of rights.

114.

Supporters of the Constitution agreed to add a bill of rights in order to

a)

win ratification of the Constitution.

b)

support the Antifederalists.

c)

make the U.S. Constitution more like the British Constitution.

d)

ensure that the government would protect only those rights, and no others.

115.

When can courts issue rulings?

a)

at any time that judges think appropriate

b)

when ordered by the president

c)

only when cases are brought before them

d)

whenever a majority of both houses of Congress votes to request a ruling

116.

Which amendment enabled the Supreme Court to rule that much of the Bill of Rights applies to state and local governments?

a)

Eleventh Amendment

b)

Twelfth Amendment

c)

Thirteenth Amendment

d)

Fourteenth Amendment

117.

When can courts issue rulings?

a)

at any time that judges think appropriate

b)

when ordered by the president

c)

only when cases are brought before them

d)

whenever a majority of both houses of Congress votes to request a ruling

118.

To win ratification of the Constitution, its supporters agreed to add a bill of rights as soon as the new national government met.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Thanks to the Bill of Rights, people have complete freedom to do whatever they choose.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

(a)   are basic freedoms to think and to act that all people have and that are protected against government abuse.

121.

(a)   means following established and complete legal procedures.