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WorksheetsSCS set 1 vol 2
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Programs?
AFI 91-200
AFI 91-202
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91-200
AFMAN 91-202
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of...
Commerce
The Treasury
Defense
Labor
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installations?
Air Staff
Civil Engineering
Squadron commanders
Installation safety office
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO)
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)
Review AF Form 55
Certify the employee
What AF form is used to report ground mishap?
475
480
978
980
What AF form is used to report hazards?
475
480
978
980
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
Physiological, physical, stress
Physiological, physical, social
Stress, organizational, physical
Physical, physiological, organizational
Which action is a physiological factor?
Performing a task while fatigued
Performing a task while intoxicated
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
Bioenvironmental Engineering
Installation safety office
Base civil engineer
Supervisors
What method is considered the LEAST preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards
isolating operations
providing administrative controls
use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
substitution a less hazardous material or process
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
one
two
three
four
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
a
c
e
g
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
falls
poor lighting
horseplay
poor ergonomics
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
1-2
2-2.5
2-4.5
2.5-3
What chapter in AFI 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
8
9
10
11
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
class a
class b
class c
class d
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
class a
class b
class c
class d
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
evacuate personnel from the building
extinguish the fire if possible
call the fire department
sound the fire alarm
How are fires classified?
fuel type
heat source
temperature
atmospheric conditions
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedures?
evacuate personnel from the building
extinguish the fire if possible
call the fire department
sound the fire alarm
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
50
40
20
10
Which ladder practice is NOT prohibited?
use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder
using a ladder as a scaffold
using a homemade ladder
Which action is NOT a part of risk management (RM)?
accept no unnecessary risk
make risk decisions at the appropriate levels
apply the process irregularly and continuously
integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels
The risk management process includes how many steps?
fou
five
six
seven
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specifications?
one
two
three
four
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio managements?
office of administration
office of communications
office of public engagement
office of management and budget
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
states level
federal level
congressional level
department of defense level
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)
administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record
administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record
administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
administrative record, drawing record, and outage record
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
administrative record
maintenance record
drawing record
outage record
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
administrative record
maintenance record
drawing record
outage record
What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
programming
transport
network
data
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model
data transport and application
session and data transport
network and presentation
application and session
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnections (OSI) model layers?
transport
data link
physical
session
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
communication between devices over multiple links of a network
communication between devices over a single link of a network
protocol access to the physical network medium
protocol access to the links of a network
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
communications between devices over a single line of a network
communications between devices over multiple links of a network
protocol access to the physical network medium
protocol access to the links of the network
When used alone, the work "topology" often refers to a network's
When used alone, the work "topology" often refers to a network's
physical topology
physical medium
logical topology
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
star
ring
loop
linear
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
bus
star
ring
radial
What NEGTIVE effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
there are no negative effects
a fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication
performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices
when the central node point fails, large portions of the network becomes isolated
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
defense information agency (DISA)
federal communication commission (FCC)
department of homeland security (DHS)
department of defense (DOD)
what is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) sockets?
regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer)
combination of a port number and internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers
preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving device data
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
Request network services and pass arguments between layers
reference a location of a particular application of process on each machine
prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
version identification
header checksum
time to live
flags
what value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)
239
254
255
256
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per networks?
class A address
class B address
class C address
class D address
What classis reserved for multicast addressing?
class A address
class B address
class C address
class D address
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
0-1023
1024-49151
49152-65535
65536-87000
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM)
reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data
reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data
What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
two gigabits per second (GB/S)
for BG/S
Five GB/S
10 GB/S
What is a peripheral device?
a main internal component of a computer
NOT a main internal components of a computer
a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external
NOT a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external
Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
printer
scanner
monitor
camera lens
Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
local area network (LAN)
wide are network (WAN)
virtual private network (VPN)
metropolitan area network (MAN)
Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
local area network (LAN)
wide are network (WAN)
virtual private network (VPN)
metropolitan area network (MAN)
Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data code?
local area network (LAN)
wide are network (WAN)
metropolitan are network (MAN)
wireless local area network (WLAN)
Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
service set identifier (SSID) broadcasting
Media access control (MAC) filtering
encryption
tunneling
Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
local area network (LAN)
wide are network (WAN)
virtual private network (VPN)
metropolitan area network (MAN)
What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)
1988
1999
2005
2009
How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Points (STEP) terminal offers?
24
15
10
7
Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling
media converter
modem
switch
router
Describe a network bridge
data link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet network
network layer device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks
data link layer device that provide central connection to network devices
network layer device that provide central connection to network devices
What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?
open shortest path first (OSPF)
exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
interior gateway protocol (IGP)
enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP)
What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
switch
modem
gateway
converter
Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?
internet protocol
end-to-end
bulk
links
What characteristics is NOT an advantage of fiber optics cable?
cost to install and train technicians
electromagnetic immunity
low attenuation
security
In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
four
five
six
seven
What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
shell
kernel
user programs
dynamic-link library
What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
word
access
outlook
powerpoint
What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
word
access
outlook
powerpoint
What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and IS?
malware
denial of service attacks
inadvertent employee activity
hostile information operation
Which computer system vulnerability is NOT one in a computer systems?
attacker's capability to exploit the flaw
system's susceptibility to a flaw
attacker's access to the flaw
attacker's lack of ability
Computer Security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?
4
6
8
10
Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
Malware.
spyware
adware
Trojans
Which incident occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?
classified message incident
eavesdropping
data spillage
backdoor
Which classified document makings identifies the highest level of classifications?
banner lines
portion marks
components and office
classification authority
Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States documents and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification?
banner lines
portion marks
component and office
classification authority
How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?
general service administration (GSA) makes that determination
office of special investigation (OSI) makes that determination
wing information office makes that determination
by competing a risk assessment
Which event is NOT a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified material?
When it is placed in service.
When it is removed from service.
When the storage container has been cleaned.
When compromise of the combination is suspected.
Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?
AF Form 88.
AF Form 143.
AF Form 144.
AF Form 1776.
Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?
classified information program manager
information assurance officer
security manager
supervisor
Who has the authority to grant a permission to ship classified materials on Friday-Sunday?
Classified Information Program Manager.
Information Assurance Officer.
Security Manager.
Supervisor.
What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?
Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).
Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).
Air Force Information Network (AFIN).
Defense Intelligence Network (DIN).
Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?
Transport.
Application.
Aerial layer.
Satellite communication (SATCOM).
What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?
Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).
Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Air Force Information Network (AFIN).
Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?
Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?
Defense Switched Network (DSN).
Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).
Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.
Which system is the Department of Defense’s (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?
Common Operational Picture (COP).
Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS).
Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution System (DCAPES).
What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
Air Force Portal.
IMDS.
Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
Electronic-publications (E-pub).
Which system is the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?
Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?
Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?
Six.
Five.
Four.
Two.
Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?
Global Broadcast System (GBS).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
National Military Command Center (NMCC).
Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force’s strategic aircraft and missile functions?
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?
Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?
Mystic Star.
Global HF system.
Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.
System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).
