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Worksheets2021 Environmental Science Final Exam Review
Total questions: 133
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
These have no emissions from tailpipes or gasoline
a)
Hybrid vehicles
b)
Zero emissions vehicles
c)
Internal combustion vehicles
d)
All have emissions
2.
Results from chemical reactions involving sunlight, air, exhaust, and ozone.
a)
Primary pollution
b)
Temperature inversion
c)
Smog
d)
None of the choices
3.
Scrubbers and electrostatic precipitators help industries meet the requirements of this
a)
Clean air act
b)
Clean water act
c)
Paris agreement
d)
None of the choices
4.
Put directly into the air by human activity
a)
Natural gas
b)
Smog
c)
Primary pollution
d)
Secondary pollution
5.
A source of air pollution before modern times
a)
Natural gas
b)
Smog
c)
Sea-coal
d)
None of the choices
6.
Atmospheric condition that traps pollution near the ground
a)
Primary pollution
b)
Sea-coal
c)
Smog
d)
Temperature inversion
7.
Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
a)
hydrocarbon emissions in car exhaust
b)
sulfur dioxide emitted when electrical power is generated
c)
VOCs released by dry cleaners
d)
smog formed in the presence of sunlight
8.
Volatile organic compounds
a)
are tiny particles of liquid or solid matter.
b)
are produced by chemical interactions between sulfur and oxygen.
c)
are odorless, colorless, poisonous gasses
d)
are organic chemicals that form toxic fumes.
9.
Which device helps clean car exhaust?
a)
electrostatic precipitator
b)
scrubber
c)
catalytic converter
d)
zero emissions vehicle
10.
which pair are the two main sources of air pollution in urban areas?
a)
vehicles & volcanoes
b)
vehicles & industries
c)
industries & agriculture
d)
industries and &volcanoes
11.
This causes stress, high blood pressure, and hearing loss
a)
indoor air pollution
b)
light pollution
c)
noise pollution
d)
sick-building syndrome
12.
Solutions to this include shielding, time controls, and low-pressure sodium sources
a)
indoor air pollution
b)
light pollution
c)
noise pollution
d)
sick-building syndrome
13.
Emphysema, lung cancer, heart disease
a)
indoor air pollution
b)
long-term effects of air pollution
c)
short-term effects of air pollution
d)
sick-building syndrome
14.
Can occur in modern tightly sealed buildings
a)
indoor air pollution
b)
long-term effects of air pollution
c)
short-term effects of air pollution
d)
sick-building syndrome
15.
Sources include plastics, carpets, cleaning fluids, radon and asbestos
a)
indoor air pollution
b)
long-term effects of air pollution
c)
short-term effects of air pollution
d)
sick-building syndrome
16.
Headache, eye irritation, coughing, and bronchitis
a)
indoor air pollution
b)
long-term effects of air pollution
c)
short-term effects of air pollution
d)
sick-building syndrome
17.
Which is a natural indoor air pollutant and second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States
a)
carbon monoxide
b)
formaldehyde
c)
nitrogen oxides
d)
radon
18.
Which is NOT part of correcting sick-building syndrome?
a)
removing sources of indoor air pollution
b)
stopping air from getting into the building
c)
improving ventilation
d)
cleaning air ducts so air can flow
19.
Which is true of air pollution and human health?
a)
years of research link air pollution to lung diseases
b)
air pollution is commonly listed as a cause of death
c)
none of the health effects of air pollution are reversible
d)
healthy adults are most affected by air pollution
20.
which air pollutant scars the lungs?
a)
asbestos
b)
radon
c)
fungi
d)
ozone
21.
Measure of how acidic or basic a substance is
a)
acid precipitation
b)
pH
c)
acid shock
d)
acidification
22.
An effect of acid precipitation on soil and water
a)
acid precipitation
b)
pH
c)
acid shock
d)
acidification
23.
caused by gases from fossil fuels
a)
acid precipitation
b)
pH
c)
acid shock
d)
acidification
24.
Which has NOT been linked to acid precipitation?
a)
toxic metal poisoning
b)
lower blood pH
c)
respiratory problems
d)
damaged monuments
25.
Precipitation is considered acid precipitation of its pH is
a)
above 7.0
b)
above 5.0
c)
below 5.0
d)
below 5.6
26.
How does the temperature change as you travel from the Earth's surface toward the stratosphere?
a)
it stays the same
b)
it decreases
c)
it increases
27.
Why is air pressure at sea level greater than at the top of a mountain?
a)
Because temperature changes
b)
release of carbon dioxide
c)
Gravity pulls the air molecules down and makes them denser
28.
What element makes up the majority of the atmosphere?
a)
oxygen
b)
Carbon Dioxide
c)
Nitrogen
d)
water vapor
29.
An increase in greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide or water vapor causes
a)
a decrease in surface temperatures.
b)
an increase in surface temperatures.
c)
more convection currents.
d)
more sunny days.
30.
A gas that can reach the upper atmosphere after a large-scale volcanic eruption.
a)
longitude
b)
weather
c)
sulfur dioxide
d)
oxygen
31.
Position with respect to the equator, measured in degrees north or south.
a)
Weather
b)
hurricane
c)
longitude
d)
latitude
32.
A belt of prevailing winds
a)
Longitude
b)
Latitude
c)
weather
d)
westerlies
33.
During winter in the Northern Hemisphere, the Southern Hemisphere experiences
a)
a tilt toward the sun
b)
winter
c)
summer
d)
no precipitation
34.
Long-term, prevailing weather conditions at a particular place
a)
weather
b)
climate
c)
humidity
d)
winds
35.
Strong circulating winds over Arctic and Antarctic during their respective winters.
a)
global warming
b)
ozone layer
c)
hurricane
d)
polar vortex
36.
A part of the stratosphere that absorbs most of the ultraviolet light from the sun.
a)
global warming
b)
climate
c)
polar vortex
d)
ozone layer
37.
A class of human-made chemicals that is believed to damage the ozone layer.
a)
Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs)
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
ozone layer
d)
phytoplankton
38.
An increase in Earth's average temperature, resulting from increased greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere.
a)
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
b)
global warming
c)
phytoplankton
d)
skin cancer
39.
The photosynthetic organisms that are the base of most aquatic food webs that can be severely damaged by ultraviolet radiation.
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
chlorofluorocarbons
c)
polar vortex
d)
phytoplankton
40.
Scientists estimate that a single chlorine molecule in the CFC structure can destroy as many as _____ ozone molecules.
a)
10
b)
100
c)
1000
d)
100000
41.
Which of the following can be defined as the average state of the atmosphere at any given place?
a)
Weather
b)
Climate
c)
Global Warming
d)
Atmospheric CO2
42.
Which is the following causes the difference in weather that we see during the different seasons.
a)
The distance from the sun.
b)
The rotation of the Earth.
c)
The angle at which the sun's rays hit the Earth.
d)
Distance from the moon.
43.
Which of the following can be defined as: a change in conditions that causes the Pacific Ocean to be warmer, leading to worldwide changes in weather
a)
El Nino
b)
La Nina
44.
Which of the following can be defined as: a change in conditions that causes the Pacific Ocean to be cooler, leading to worldwide changes in weather
a)
El Nino
b)
La Nina
45.
What of the following is NOT used as evidence for climate change?
a)
Rising Sea levels
b)
Shrinking Ice core samples
c)
Changes in precipitation
d)
Last year was the hottest ever on Earth
46.
Which of the following prevents UV rays from reaching Earth?
a)
The ozone layer
b)
The biosphere
c)
The lithosphere
d)
The hydrosphere
47.
Most of the gases contributing to climate change are released by burning ________ to create electricity.
a)
Trash
b)
Wood (biomass)
c)
Tires
d)
Fossil Fuels
48.
Which of the following can be defined as the state of the atmosphere at any given place and time?
a)
Weather
b)
Climate
c)
Global Warming
d)
Atmospheric CO2
49.
The ionosphere is located in the
a)
troposphere.
b)
mesosphere.
c)
thermosphere.
d)
stratosphere.
50.
Which of he following is NOT a mechanism for energy transfer in the atmosphere?
a)
Radiation
b)
Conduction
c)
Convection
d)
Evaporation
51.
Which of the following layers is least dense?
a)
Troposphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)
Thermosphere
d)
Stratosphere
52.
A continuous record of annual average atmospheric CO2 concentrations from Mauna Loa, Hawaii, reveals
a)
a steady increase since 1988.
b)
a steady increase since 1958.
c)
no change since 1958.
d)
a steady decrease since 1958.
53.
Which of the following would NOT be a consequence of an increase in global temperature
a)
increased frequency of major droughts
b)
increased frequency of major storms
c)
increased polar ice mass
d)
rising sea level
54.
Land that is used to graze livestock and wildlife.
a)
rural land
b)
urban land
c)
rangeland
d)
crop land
55.
Land used for recreation and scenic enjoyment, and for preserving native animal and plant communities and ecosystems.
a)
parks and preserves
b)
urban land
c)
ecosystem services
d)
forest land
56.
Relatively few people and large areas of open space.
a)
rangeland
b)
urban land
c)
rural land
d)
parks and preserves
57.
Relatively few people and large areas of open space.
a)
rangeland
b)
urban land
c)
rural land
d)
parks and preserves
58.
Land used to grow plants for food and fiber
a)
cropland
b)
urban land
c)
rural land
d)
forestland
59.
Resources produced by natural and artificial ecosystems
a)
ecosystem services
b)
rural land
c)
forest land
d)
crop land
60.
Which of the following is an example of sustainable development in a rain-forest?
a)
clearing away trees so people can build ranches and farms
b)
using resources in ways that do not harm the environment
c)
producing and selling goods without making any profit
d)
encouraging trade between native Amazonians and farmers
61.
A geographic area with a population of 2,500 or more.
a)
Urban land
b)
Rangeland
c)
Forest
d)
Wetland
62.
Land that supplies forage or vegetation (grasses, grass-like plants, shrubs) for grazing and browsing animals, and is not intensively managed is the definition of _________.
a)
Rangeland
b)
Forest
c)
Barren Land
d)
Wetland
63.
A large area covered with trees and undergrowth is the definition of _________________.
a)
Forest
b)
Barren Land
c)
Rangeland
d)
Urban or Built up land
64.
What is deforestation?
a)
throwing someone out of a window
b)
selectively cutting trees for lumber, making sure the forest remains healthy
c)
allowing more animals to graze on the land than it can support
d)
cutting and removal of rainforest
65.
What causes urban heat islands?
a)
movement of people from farms to cities
b)
lots and lots of people heating their homes
c)
roads and buildings absorb and retain heat longer than vegetation does
d)
soil erosion
66.
What is a "heat island"?
a)
an island in a river or lake that produces heat
b)
an area in which the air temperature is generally higher than the temperature of surrounding rural areas
c)
when the leftovers or "tailings" from mining are piled up in a river
d)
an oasis
67.
What is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
68.
What is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
69.
Urban areas are often warmer than the surrounding rural areas because
a)
changes in surface to less reflective ones
b)
tall building can block wind movement
c)
increased air-conditioner use and low level pollution increase trapped heat
d)
All of these
70.
What are impacts of overgrazing?
a)
pollution and use of more resources
b)
loss of biodiversity, loss of native topsoil, desertification
c)
more people than the infrastructure can support
d)
creation of heat islands
71.
What are some consequences of deforestation?
a)
increased population in cities
b)
building of more infrastructure
c)
soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, loss of ability to remove CO2
d)
more mercury and cyanide released into rivers
72.
When looking at both private and public lands in the US, the most common use is:
a)
Timber production
b)
Grazing land
c)
Recreational
d)
Defense
73.
What kind of reasons do many people give to support urban growth?
a)
emotional
b)
economic
c)
health
d)
environmental
74.
What mode of transportation allowed city workers to live in far away suburbs and commute to their jobs?
a)
Streetcars
b)
Horses
c)
Cars
d)
Trains
75.
This is the rapid, often poorly planned spread of development from an urban area outward into rural areas
a)
Urban sprawl
b)
Metropolitan area
c)
Rural fringe
d)
Whooping cough
76.
The basic facilities of a country, region or city such as roads, bridges, sewers, and railroads ______________________________?
a)
Construction
b)
Public Utilities
c)
Non-Renewable
d)
Infrastructure
77.
The rapid spread of a city into adjoining suburbs and rural areas is called?
a)
Urban Sprawl
b)
Feast or Famin
c)
Population Bust
d)
Overgrowth
78.
A rapidly growing population can overwhelm the infrastructure, leading to traffic jams, substandard housing, and polluted air and water. This is called a(an)________________?
a)
Urban Crisis
b)
Urban Sprawl
c)
Antarchy
d)
County Commissioner
79.
A rapidly growing population can overwhelm the infrastructure, leading to traffic jams, substandard housing, and polluted air and water. This is called a(an)________________?
a)
Urban Crisis
b)
Urban Sprawl
c)
Antarchy
d)
County Commissioner
80.
__________________are materials, energy or assets that are used over time and when abused may become unavailable?
a)
Coal
b)
Renewable
c)
Resources
d)
Clean Water
81.
Provides high amounts of energy per gram
a)
Balanced Diet
b)
Efficiency
c)
Meat
d)
Vegtables
82.
Amount of food produced in a given area
a)
Efficiency
b)
Malnutrition
c)
Subsistence farming
d)
Yield
83.
How easily food is produced without causing harm to the environment.
a)
Efficiency
b)
Malnutrition
c)
Subsistence farming
d)
Yield
84.
Harmed by the green revolution.
a)
Efficiency
b)
Malnutrition
c)
Subsistence farming
d)
Yield
85.
Widespread starvation due to lack of food.
a)
Famine
b)
Hunger
c)
Malnutrition
d)
Yield
86.
When people do not consume enough quality calories.
a)
Famine
b)
Hunger
c)
Malnutrition
d)
Yield
87.
Malnutrition generally occurs because of
a)
poverty.
b)
War and political strife.
c)
transportation problems.
d)
all of the choices
88.
The human body depends on food to build and maintain
a)
vitamins and minerals.
b)
proteins.
c)
body tissues
d)
essential amino acids
89.
Drought, soil loss, and problems with food distribution in a region can cause
a)
famine.
b)
erosion.
c)
yield.
d)
poverty
90.
A plot of land can produce more food when it is used to grow _____ than when it supports _____.
a)
rice / corn
b)
plants / animals
c)
fish / poultry
d)
soybeans / grains
91.
People in developed countries (such as the United States) eat more _____ than people in less-developed countries.
a)
protein
b)
fat
c)
neither protein nor fat
d)
both protein and fat
92.
Negative effects of the green revolution include soil degradation as well as the overuse of water, _____, and fertilizers.
a)
carbohydrate plants
b)
pesticides
c)
crop varieties
d)
both carbohydrate plans and pesticides
93.
Not easily broken down in the environment
a)
Compost
b)
Genetically modified plants
c)
Persistent pesticides
d)
topsoil
94.
A result of land degradation
a)
Compost
b)
Desertification
c)
Salinization
d)
Surface litter
95.
The layer of soil that contains organic materials for organisms to grow
a)
Compost
b)
Desertification
c)
Surface litter
d)
Topsoil
96.
Can be caused by low rainfall or irrigation
a)
Biological pest control
b)
Desertification
c)
Salinization
d)
Surface litter
97.
When living organisms are used to control a pest population.
a)
Biological pest control
b)
Desertification
c)
Persistent pesticides
d)
Surface litter
98.
Plants with genetic material from another organism.
a)
Biological pest control
b)
Genetically modified plants
c)
Persistent pesticides
d)
Topsoil
99.
All of these are soil conservation methods EXCEPT
a)
Monocropping.
b)
No-Till farming.
c)
Contour plowing.
d)
Building terraces.
100.
_____ are NOT known as major crop pests
a)
Fungi
b)
Insects
c)
Weeds
d)
Amphibians
101.
Tools of biological pest control include
a)
pathogens
b)
plant defenses
c)
chemicals from plants
d)
All of the choices
102.
Genetic engineering of plants is a faster way of producing the same results as
a)
biological pest control.
b)
plant breeding.
c)
integrated pest management.
d)
soil conservation.
103.
Domesticated animals raised on a farm or ranch
a)
agriculture
b)
livestock
c)
Domesticated animals
d)
ruminants
104.
catching or removing more aquatic animals than the population can replace
a)
agriculture
b)
aquaculture
c)
overharvesting
d)
None of the choices
105.
Cud-chewing animals
a)
domesticated animals
b)
livestock
c)
poultry
d)
ruminants
106.
raising of aquatic animals for food
a)
domesticated agriculture
b)
aquaculture
c)
livestock
d)
poultry
107.
species bred or managed for human use
a)
agriculture
b)
domesticated animals
c)
livestock
d)
overharvesting
108.
Governments try to halt over-harvesting of their aquatic organisms have often created
a)
increases in fishing quotas.
b)
new fish markets.
c)
no-fishing zones.
d)
none of the choices
109.
Products obtained from livestock include
a)
leather, wool, eggs & meat
b)
cotton, linen, and nylon
c)
wood and plastic
d)
all of the choices
110.
Which livestock population has increased by the greatest percentage in the last 40 years?
a)
cattle
b)
chickens
c)
pigs
d)
goats
111.
Evaporites form in areas with high ____________.
a)
rainfall
b)
humidity
c)
volcanic activity
d)
rates of evaporation
112.
What type of mineral is valued for its economic worth?
a)
gangue
b)
native
c)
ore
d)
compound
113.
Which of the following is a native mineral?
a)
Kryptonite (LiNaSiB3O7(OH))
b)
Salt (NaCl)
c)
Quartz (SiO2)
d)
Silver (Ag)
114.
Which of the following is a compound?
a)
gold (Au)
b)
silver (Ag)
c)
quartz (SiO2)
d)
Uranium (U)
115.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of all minerals?
a)
naturally occuring
b)
usually inorganic solid
c)
orderly internal structure
d)
contains DNA
116.
Which characteristic is present in metals but not in nonmetals?
a)
shine
b)
conductivity
c)
opaqueness
d)
hardness
117.
What is the term for minerals that have little to no economic value?
a)
ore
b)
native
c)
compound
d)
gangue
118.
What is the first step in coal mining?
a)
take core samples
b)
remove overburden
c)
cut the coal for easier removal
d)
refining coal
119.
Acid mine drainage is cause by which element?
a)
carbon
b)
sulfur
c)
nitrogen
d)
boron
120.
Which of these is a type of surface mining?
a)
room and pillar
b)
longwall
c)
solution
d)
quarrying
121.
What is the term for surveying to determine where valuable ore minerals may be?
a)
mineral exploration
b)
smelting
c)
dredging
122.
What is the term for ore that has been concentrated by wind or water?
a)
placer deposits
b)
mineral deposits
c)
magma veins
d)
evaporite pools
123.
What is added to molten ores to isolate impurities?
a)
smelt
b)
slag
c)
flux
d)
ducttape
124.
What is the layer of impurities that forms during smelting?
a)
slag
b)
flux
c)
dredge
d)
sludge
125.
What is another term for a quarry?
a)
open pit
b)
longwall
c)
pillar
d)
solution mine
126.
Collapse of _________ can lead to subsidence (sinkholes).
a)
placer deposits
b)
coal
c)
pillars in abandoned mines
d)
magma seams
127.
What is the term for returning land to its original or better condition after mining?
a)
reformatting
b)
restoration
c)
subsidence
d)
reclamation
128.
Why is undersea mining historically unsuccessful?
a)
danger
b)
cost
c)
danger and cost
d)
Cthuhu
129.
From whom must mining companies obtain permits before opening a mine?
a)
state agencies
b)
federal agencies
c)
bond companies
d)
state and federal agencies
130.
Which of the following describes a metallic mineral?
a)
silver
b)
a mineral that conducts electricity, has a shiny surface and is opaque
c)
copper
d)
all the answer choices are correct
131.
Sand, gravel, and granite are examples of what?
a)
metallic minerals
b)
metallic elements
c)
nonmetallic minerals
d)
aluminum
132.
A company is likely to mine a site if the site...?
a)
is rich in minerals
b)
does not contain gangue minerals
c)
contains gold
d)
contains minerals that can be economically extracted
133.
What are the 3 main techniques used for mining?
a)
Strip Mining, Hard Mining, Above Ground mining
b)
Underground Mining, Strip Mining, Above ground mining
c)
Open pit mining, Strip Mining, Above ground mining
d)
Strip mining, Open pit mining, Underground mining
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