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Anatomy and Physiology Fall Final Review

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Explain the term 'ventral' in anatomical directions.

a)

Refers to the back side of the body.

b)

Refers to the front or belly side of the body.

c)

Refers to the upper side of the body.

d)

Refers to the lower side of the body.

2.

What does 'dorsal' mean in anatomical terms?

a)

Indicates the front side of the body.

b)

Indicates the back side of the body.

c)

Indicates the upper side of the body.

d)

Indicates the lower side of the body.

3.

Meaning toward the middle.

a)

Cephalic

b)

Caudal

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

4.

Meaning toward the side.

a)

Cephalic

b)

Caudal

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

5.

Above.

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

6.

Below.

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

7.

Which side is facing you?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

8.

Which side is facing you?

a)

Ventral

b)

Dorsal

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

9.

Which side is facing you?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

10.

Which side is facing you?

a)

Ventral

b)

Dorsal

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

11.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
12.

The chin is _____ to the eye.

a)

superior

b)

deep

c)

inferior

d)

lateral

13.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
14.

The head is _____ to the shoulders.

a)

proximal

b)

caudal

c)

superior

d)

inferior

15.
What body part is inferior to the chest?
a)
head
b)
neck
c)
heart
d)
hips
16.

The heart is ____________ to the hips

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

superior

d)

inferior

17.
The rib cage is _____ to the heart.
a)
proximal
b)
medial
c)
superficial
d)
distal
18.

Your elbows are proximal to your

a)

shoulder

b)

wrist

c)

humerus

d)

ears

19.

The diaphragm is ______ to the abdominal cavity.

a)

inferior

b)

superior

c)

superficial

d)

deep

20.

The pinky finger is ______ to the thumb in anatomical position.

a)

posterior

b)

superior

c)

lateral

d)

medial

21.

What tissue type is the spinal cord primarily composed of?

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

22.

Which tissue type functions and secretion, absorption, protection, and excretion

a)

Epithelial

b)

connective

c)

Arelolar

d)

muscle

e)

Nervous

23.

What tissue type are the biceps primarily composed of?

a)

epithelial

b)

connnective

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

24.

What tissue type is the heart primarily composed of

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

25.

Which tissue type is the brain primarily composed of

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

26.

Which tissue type covers body surfaces , covers and lines internal organs and composes glands

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

27.

There are four primary tissue types that interweave to form the "fabric" of the body, they are;

a)

epithelial,connctive,muscle,nervous

b)

skeletal,cardiac,smooth,adipose

c)

epithelial,skeletal,nervous,squamous

d)

cartilage,muscle,epithelial,areolar

28.

Collagenous and elastic fibers are found exstensively in

a)

epithelial

b)

nervous

c)

connective

d)

muscle

29.

Which of the following are all types of muscle tissue

a)

neurons, neuroglial, matrix

b)

blood, arelolar, reticular

c)

skeletal, smooth, cardiac

d)

stratisfied,

transitional, simple

30.

What is the function of the pancreas?

a)

To secrete insulin and break down sugars

b)

To absorb nutrients

c)

To secrete bile to break down fats and proteins

d)

To allow food to travel from the mouth to the stomach

31.

What is the function of the gallbladder?

a)

To store urine

b)

To store feces

c)

To store aliva

d)

To store bile

32.

Which organ absorbs nutrients from the food we eat?

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Small intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Esophagus

33.

What kind of digestion is CHEWING?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

c)

Accidental

d)

Haydraulic

34.

What kind of digestion happens with saliva?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

c)

Accidental

d)

Hydraulic

35.

What is the tube leading front he mouth to the stomach called?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Esophagus

c)

Small intestine

d)

Liver

36.

The stomach is where

a)

Nutrients are absorbed into the body

b)

Food is chemically and mechanically broken down

c)

Water is absorbed and released into the blood stream

d)

Bile is secreted and breaks down proteins

37.

Which organ secretes bile to break down fats and proteins?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Stomach

38.
The green part is the 
a)
rugae
b)
pyloric sphincter
c)
cardioesophageal sphincter
d)
stomach
39.

Involuntary muscle contractions that move food.

a)

Segmentation

b)

Flexion

c)

Swallowing

d)

Peristalsis

40.

The upper and lower esophageal (a)   control the entrance in/exit out of the esophagus.

41.

In the small intestine the __________ receives food from the stomach.

a)

jejunum

b)

ileum

c)

duodenum

d)

cecum

42.
Which are the tubes that carry urine from the kidney to the bladder?
a)
Adrenal tubes
b)
Kidneys
c)
Ureters
d)
Urethras
43.
There are two kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder, and one urethra.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
The _________ is/are responsible for urine storage.
a)
Bladder
b)
Kidneys
c)
Ureter
d)
Urethra
45.

What structure in the kidneys filters the blood?

a)

Ureters

b)

Nephrons

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

46.

Each kidney contains over 1 million of these microscopic units

a)

adrenal glands

b)

glomeruli

c)

neurons

d)

nephrons

47.

The ________________ arteries supply the kidneys with blood.

a)

Renal

b)

Urethral

c)

Pulmonary

d)

Pelvic

48.
Place the following events in sequence:
A)  Urine passes through the ureters
B)  Urea enters the kidneys
C)  Urine enters the urethra
a)
B, A, C
b)
C, B, A
c)
B, C, A
d)
A, C, B
49.

Identify structure B

a)

Ureter

b)

Renal Medulla

c)

Renal Cortex

d)

Adrenal Gland

50.

Identify structure C

a)

Ureter

b)

Renal Medulla

c)

Renal Cortex

d)

Adrenal Gland

51.

Identify structure F

a)

Ureter

b)

Renal Medulla

c)

Renal Cortex

d)

Adrenal Gland

52.

Identify Structure B

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Glomerular Capsule

53.

Identify Structure C

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Glomerular Capsule

54.

Identify Structure D

a)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

b)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

c)

Nephron Loop (Loop of Henle)

d)

Collecting Duct

55.

Identify Structure E

a)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

b)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

c)

Nephron Loop (Loop of Henle)

d)

Collecting Duct

56.

Identify Structure F

a)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

b)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

c)

Nephron Loop (Loop of Henle)

d)

Collecting Duct

57.

Identify Structure G

a)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

b)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

c)

Nephron Loop (Loop of Henle)

d)

Collecting Duct

58.

_____________ is the first step of urine formation; water and certain dissolved substances are filtered out of capillaries into a glomerular capsule.

a)

Tubular Reabsorption

b)

Tubular Secretion

c)

Glomerular Filtration

59.

_____________ is the second step of urine formation; substances move from the tubular fluid back into the blood.

a)

Tubular Reabsorption

b)

Tubular Secretion

c)

Glomerular Filtration

60.

_____________ is the third step of urine formation; substances move from the blood into the fluid of the renal tubule

a)

Tubular Reabsorption

b)

Tubular Secretion

c)

Glomerular Filtration

61.

Hollow, distensible, muscular organ that stores urine:

a)

urinary bladder

b)

kidney

c)

urethra

d)

nephron

e)

ureter

62.

Main urinary system organ (blood is filtered, urine is formed and collected, metabolic processes are regulated).

a)

urinary bladder

b)

kidney

c)

urethra

d)

nephron

e)

ureter

63.

Tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder:

a)

urinary bladder

b)

kidney

c)

urethra

d)

nephron

e)

ureter

64.

Tube that carries urine from the urinary bladder to the outside:

a)

urinary bladder

b)

kidney

c)

urethra

d)

nephron

e)

ureter

65.

Which of the following is a major function of the Urinary System?

a)

Filter certain salts and nitrogenous wastes from the blood

b)

Bring oxygen to cells and carry carbon dioxide away

c)

Provide structure and protection of organs

66.

Which of the following are organs of the Urinary System? Check all that apply:

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Kidney

c)

Urinary Bladder

d)

Ureter

e)

Appendix

67.

Muscles are working in your body even when you are asleep and still.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Muscles contract when

a)

thin filaments slide past thin filaments

b)

thick filaments slide past thick filaments

c)

thin filaments slide past thick filaments

69.
The thick myofibril filament of a sarcomere is
composed of a protein:
a)
actin.
b)
myosin.
c)
sarcolemma.
d)
titin.
70.

What type of muscle tissue is found in the heart?

a)

skeletal

b)

smooth

c)

cardiac

d)

voluntary

71.
The thick filament is composed of: 
a)
Myosin
b)
Actin
72.

__________ from myosin filaments latch onto the ________ filaments. Their union causes muscles to contract.

a)

actin, globular heads

b)

G-actin, F-actin

c)

globular heads, actin

d)

F-actin, G-actin

73.
Chest and shoulder muscles that move the arm at the shoulder joint have insertions on the:
a)
humerus.
b)
scapula.
c)
clavicle and ribs.
d)
radius or ulna.
74.

__________________ anchors the the muscle to bone

a)

aponeurosis

b)

fascia

c)

tendons

d)

ligament

75.

Smooth Muscle is found in the?

a)

Heart

b)

Facial

c)

Organs

d)

Legs

76.

Movement away from the body

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

adduction

d)

abduction

77.

Smooth muscle is present in your:

a)

heart

b)

digestive system

c)

skeletal system

d)

skeletal muscle

78.
attached to bones
a)
cardiac
b)
smooth
c)
skeletal
79.

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle fasciculus is the

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

80.

How many types of muscles are there?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

d)

1

81.

Number 5 refers to a bundle of cells known as a:

a)

fascicle

b)

tendon

c)

muscle fiber

d)

myofilament

82.

Number 2 refers to a fibrous connective tissue lining that covers the muscle known as the:

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

tendon

83.

Number 6 is pointing to a connective tissue that surrounds the individual muscle cells. This is known as the:

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

tendon

84.
a)

Latissmius Dorsi

b)

Erectors

c)

Deltoids

d)

Abdominal

85.
a)

Rectus Abdominal

b)

External Oblique

c)

Erectors

d)

Pectoral

86.
a)

Tricep

b)

Deltoid

c)

Hamstring

d)

Biceps

87.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Gluteals
c)
Deltoid
d)
Hamstring
88.
a)
Hamstrin
b)
Quadricep
c)
Tibialis Anterior
d)
Gastrocenmius
89.
a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Hamstring

c)

Quadricep

d)

External Oblique

90.
a)
Pectoral
b)
Tricep
c)
Bicep
d)
Deltoid
91.
a)

Rectus Abdominus

b)

External Oblique

c)

Pectorals

d)

Trapezius

92.
a)
Latissimius Dorsi
b)
Trapezius
c)
Triceps
d)
Erectors
93.
a)
Biceps
b)
Triceps
c)
Occuli
d)
Trapezius
94.

Which is an example of a hinge joint

a)

knee and elbow

b)

shoulder and hip

c)

neck

d)

ankle and wrist

95.
Name this joint
a)
pivot
b)
saddle
c)
gliding
d)
hinge
96.

The skull is an example of what type of joint?

a)

Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis)

b)

Synovial (diarthrosis)

c)

Fibrous (synarthrosis)

97.
Name this joint
a)
gliding
b)
saddle
c)
condyloid
d)
pivot
98.
The knee joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
99.

Bones that have complex shapes are called...

a)

Flat bones

b)

Irregular bones

c)

Sesamoid bones

d)

Long bones

100.
This type of joint allows the your first two vertebrate to rotate as in shaking your head no
a)
condyloid
b)
gliding
c)
pivot
d)
saddle
101.
a)

ball-and-socket joint

b)

hinge joint

c)

pivot joit

d)

planar joint

102.

a)

ball-and-socket joint

b)

hinge joint

c)

pivot joint

d)

planar joint

103.

gliding movement ONLY

a)

ball-and-socket joint

b)

hinge joint

c)

pivot joint

d)

planar joint

104.

Axial bones includes

a)

scapula, clavicle, legs

b)

head, neck, trunk

c)

thigh, legs, arms

d)

arms, legs scapula

105.

Identify 1:

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

106.

Identify 2

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

107.

Identify 3

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

108.

Identify 4

a)

Articular Cartilage

b)

Proximal Epiphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

109.

Identify 5

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Articular Cartilage

d)

Epiphyseal Line

110.

Identify 6

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Articular Cartilage

d)

Epiphyseal Line

111.

Identify 7

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

112.

Identify 8

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

113.

Identify 9

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

114.
What is the central nervous system (CNS) made of?
a)
brain and spinal cord
b)
brain and cranial nerves
c)
spinal cord and spinal nerves
d)
cranial nerves and spinal nerves
115.
What are the 2 major divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
a)
Sensory & Motor
b)
Peripheral & Central
c)
Somatic & Autonomic
d)
Brain & Spinal Cord
116.
What is the purpose of the myelin sheath on the axon?
a)
To maintain temperature
b)
To improve conductivity
c)
To protect the axon
d)
To release neurotransmitters
117.
Sensory neurons carry nerve impulses from the sense organs and internal organs (like your stomach) to the
a)
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
b)
central nervous system (CNS)
c)
muscles
d)
sense organs
118.
What is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
a)
axons
b)
sensory receptors
c)
spinal cord
d)
motor neurons
119.
a signal molecule that transmits nerve impulses across synapses
a)
neuron
b)
neurotransmitter
c)
nerve
d)
action potential
120.
nerve impulse
a)
action potential
b)
resting potential
c)
membrane potential
d)
synapse
121.
part of a neuron that receives information from other neurons
a)
axon
b)
dendrites
c)
myelin sheath
d)
synapse
122.
Location at which a neuron can transfer an impulse to another cell with the use of neurotransmitters is called __________.
a)
myelin sheath
b)
axon
c)
threshold
d)
synapse
123.
The part of the neuron that takes information away from the cell body is called a(n) _____________.
a)
dendrite
b)
axon
c)
cell body
d)
Schwann cell
124.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "H" represent?
a)
Myelin Sheath
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Dendrite
125.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "F" represent?
a)
Myelin Sheath
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Dendrite
126.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
127.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "A" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Node of Ranvier
128.
These carry signals from tissues and organs to the brain and spinal cord
a)
Sensory Neurons
b)
Motor Neurons
c)
Efferent Neurons
d)
Glial Cells
129.
The long, fiber like part of a neuron which the cell sends information to receiving neurons
a)
axon 
b)
dendrite
c)
axon terminal
d)
gene
130.
This releases neurotransmitters which are sent into the synaptic cleft for receptors on the dendrite
a)
axon
b)
axon terminal
c)
gene
d)
neuron
131.

Neuron resting potential

a)

-70mV

b)

-55mV

c)

+30mV

d)

<70mV

132.

Threshold to initiate an action potential

a)

-70mV

b)

-55mV

c)

+30mV

d)

<70mV

133.
What number on the graph represents the Threshold phase
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
134.
What number(s) on the graph represents the Resting Potential?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 5
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 and 4
135.
What number on the graph represents the Repolarization phase?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
136.
What number on the graph represents the Hyperpolarization phase?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
137.
What number on the graph represents the Depolarization phase?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4

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