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Life Science Advanced-End of Course Review

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 2hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SC.7.N.1.2

Scientists frequently repeat the experiments of others scientists. Why is this important in science?


a. Scientists often ask each other for help in performing experiments.

b. Replication of experiments helps to confirm and verify results.

c. Scientists frequently perform other scientists’ experiments in order to practice their technique.

d. Repeating experiments is an effective way to make sure a laboratory is in optimal condition.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

2.

SC.7.N.1.4

Jason states the following prediction: “As the air temperature increases, the air in a balloon will expand, increasing the circumference of the balloon.”

Some of Jason’s observations during his experiment are shown below. Which of the following is the outcome variable (dependent variable) for an experiment designed to test Jason’s prediction?


a. circumference of the balloon

b. material the balloon is made of

c. length of the balloon’s string

d. air temperature

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

3.

SC.6.N.1.2

Experiments are often repeated many times by the same or different scientists. What is the most important reason more than one scientist should conduct an investigation using the same methods?


a. If the results are the same, replication of the investigation helps to confirm the results.

b. The competition makes the scientists work more carefully.

c. More than one scientist is interested in the problem.

d. Different scientists might perform the experiment differently.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

4.
A testable explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested. 
a)
data
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
d)
fact
5.
Testing a hypothesis often involves a(n):
a)
answer
b)
experiment
c)
problem
d)
safety check
6.
Will a construction paper air plane fly faster than an airplane made from notebook paper? Choose the best hypothesis.
a)
If I make a paper airplane from notebook paper, then it will fly faster than construction paper.
b)
Yes.
c)
No.
d)
I think the construction paper air plane will fly faster.
7.
This step of the scientific method is an educated guess or a prediction. 
a)
Hypothesis
b)
Research
c)
Observation
d)
Conclusion
8.
This is the group that we will compare our experimental group to. This group stays "normal."
a)
Control Group
b)
Experimental Group
c)
 Normal Group
d)
Weird Group
9.
What is the first thing you do when performing the scientific method?
a)
Make a conclusion
b)
make an observation
c)
solve a problem
d)
experiment
10.
This step should be done more than once to ensure accurate results. 
a)
Conduct an experiment
b)
conclude
c)
record data
d)
clean up after an investigation
11.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
12.
A student is planning an experiment to find out how the height from which he drops a ball affects how high the ball bounces. The dependent variable is the _____.
a)
Diameter of the ball
b)
Force acting on the ball
c)
Height that the ball bounces
d)
Height from which the ball is dropped
13.
Mr. S set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. Identify the independent variable.
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
14.
Steve wanted to see if the type of fertilizer made sunflowers grow larger. What is the independent variable 
a)
Type of fertilizer
b)
Size of sunflower
c)
type of sun flower
15.
Molly investigated if the age of students caused them to be better drivers. What is the independent variable?
a)
Type of car
b)
Skill of driving
c)
Age of student
16.
Sam wanted to know if the color of the chair you sat in when taking a test affected your test grade. What is the dependent variable.
a)
Color or chair
b)
Grade on test
c)
Age of students
17.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Compound
18.

Which of these can change when new evidence is presented?

a)

theory

b)

law

19.

Which of these explain how a natural phenomenon works or happens?

a)

theory

b)

law

20.

Which of these describes a natural phenomenon or relationship that always occurs under specific conditions

a)

theory

b)

law

21.

Which of these can be represented mathematically and provide no explanation why a phenomenon occurs?

a)

theory

b)

law

22.
Scientific theories can be tested.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
What is a theory?
a)
Describes what happens
b)
Explains a process
24.
What is a law?
a)
Describes what happens
b)
Explains a process
25.
Scientific theories are based on
a)
general assumptions of how systems work.
b)
mathematical principles that can be proven true.
c)
large amounts of data collected over time.
d)
observations from within only one scientific discipline.
26.
Scientific theories do not change once they have been written down.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
A scientific ____________ is a statement that describes what always happens under certain conditions in nature.
a)
law
b)
theory
c)
method
d)
variable
28.
Scientists __________________ test scientific theories.
a)
constantly
b)
rarely
c)
never
29.
Which of the following is true about theories and opinions?
a)
It is about right and wrong
b)
theories explain observations clearly and consistently
c)
A theory doesn't have to be repeatable
30.
The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagrams below show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?
a)
 It provides information about the organisms' habitats.
b)
 It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.
c)
It provides information to determine the organisms' ages.
d)
It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.
31.
According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?
a)
commensalism
b)
inbreeding
c)
migration
d)
evolution by natural selection
32.
 The diagram represents the relationship between beak structure and food in several species of finches found on the Galapagos Islands. The different beak structures observed in the diagram are evidence of
a)
 different species of finches adapting to different environments over many generations
b)
 finches changing their beak characteristics so that they could feed efficiently
c)
finch species with different beak structures coming to the Galapagos Islands from the mainland
d)
 finches mating with birds of other species and acquiring some of their traits
33.
Natural selection is best described as
a)
a change in an organism in response to a need of that organism
b)
a process of nearly constant improvement that leads to an organism that is nearly perfect
c)
differences in survival rates as a result of different inherited characteristics
d)
inheritance of characteristics acquired during the life of an organism
34.
Which occurrence represents an example of evolution?
a)
 Exposure to radiation reduces the rate of mutation in leaf cells.
b)
A mutation in a liver cell causes a person to produce an enzyme that is less efficient.
c)
 Cells in a zygote eventually change into bone cells or skin cells
d)
Some antibiotics are almost useless, because pathogens have developed a resistance to these antibiotics.
35.

Natural selection results in change in a population's _____________ traits over time.

a)

inherited

b)

acquired

36.

Brown mice survive and reproduce in their desert environment better than white mice because owls can see and eat the white mice more easily. In this situation, what part of the environment is doing the selecting?

a)

predator

b)

soil composition

c)

mouse fur color

d)

sexual preferences

37.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

38.

Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?

a)

People selectively breeding hamsters for size.

b)

Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.

c)

Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.

d)

Male birds of certain species inheriting colorful feathers that are more attractive to females.

39.

What is DNA

a)

donuts need algea

b)

did no algebra

c)

do not answer

d)

deoxyribonucleic acid

40.

Why is DNA important?

a)

It teleports cookies to my locker.

b)

It carries the instructions for our cells.

c)

It allows me to be invisible.

d)

It gave us a snow day in August.

41.
What kind of information does DNA carry?
a)
genetic
b)
nuclear
c)
cell structure
d)
it doesn't carry any info
42.

What does the notation TT mean to a geneticist?

a)

two dominant alleles

b)

heterozygous alleles

c)

at least one dominant allele

d)

one dominant and one recessive allele

43.

What is the probability of producing a tall pea plant from a genetic cross between two hybrid tall pea plants?

a)

one in four

b)

two in four

c)

three in four

d)

four in four

44.

What does a Punnett square show?

a)

all of Mendel’s discoveries about genetic crosses

b)

only the recessive alleles in a genetic cross

c)

only the dominant alleles in a genetic cross

d)

all the possible outcomes of a genetic cross

45.

An organism’s genotype is its

a)

stem height

b)

feather color

c)

genetic makeup

d)

physical appearance

46.

Factors that control traits are called

a)

parents

b)

genes

c)

purebreds

d)

recessives

47.

Scientists call an organism that has two different alleles for a trait a

a)

dominant

b)

purebred

c)

factor

d)

hybrid

48.

What does the notation Tt mean to geneticists?

a)

two dominant alleles

b)

one dominant and one recessive allele

c)

homozygous alleles

d)

two recessive alleles

49.

An organism’s physical appearance is its

a)

dominance

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

allele

50.

When sex cells combine to produce offspring, each sex cell will contribute

a)

twice the number of chromosomes in body cells.

b)

the normal number of chromosomes in body cells.

c)

half the number of chromosomes in body cells.

d)

one fourth the number of chromosomes in body cells.

51.
A factor that covers up another factor is _____
a)
Recessive
b)
Obsessive
c)
Dominant
d)
Combinant
52.
In a certain species of plant, the color purple (P) is dominant to the color white (p).
According to the Punnett Square, what is the probability of an offspring being purple?
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
100%
d)
50%
53.
Homozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
54.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
55.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
56.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
57.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
58.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
59.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
60.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
61.
What does an open circle represent?
a)
Not Affected Male
b)
Not Affected Female
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
62.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
63.
Which of the following cells is a gamete?
a)
egg
b)
bone
c)
heart
d)
muscle
64.
The fertilized egg is termed a/an _____.
a)
gamete
b)
allele
c)
homolog
d)
zygote
65.
In mitosis cells are genetically _______, but in meiosis cells are genetically ______.
a)
diverse, identical
b)
identical, diverse/different
66.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
67.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
68.
In meiosis, crossing over occurs in prophase 1. What is the significance of this event?
a)
This process ensures that chromosomes are evenly divided into daughter cells.
b)
This process can lead to genetic variation in daughter cells.
c)
This process can create gaps in the chromosome DNA for RNA to bind.
d)
This process allows for spindles to connect to the chromosomes in order to pull chromosomes apart.
69.
Creates VARIETY in living things
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
70.

Which of the following are involved in asexual reproduction?

a)

fertilization

b)

meiosis

c)

sperm

d)

zygote

e)

none of these are involved in sexual reproduction

71.

How does the DNA of the offspring formed from asexual reproduction compare to the parent?

a)

none of the DNA is transferred to the offspring

b)

half of the DNA is transferred to the offspring

c)

the DNA of the offspring is identical to the DNA of the parent

d)

none of these are correct

72.

When a new organism grows by mitosis and cell division on the body of its parent.

a)

budding

b)

fission

c)

regeneration

d)

vegetative reproduction

e)

mitotic cell division

73.

A type of asexual reproduction performed in a laboratory that produces identical individuals from a cell or from a cluster of cells taken from a multicellular organism.

a)

cloning

b)

regeneration

c)

fission

d)

budding

e)

vegetative reproduction

74.

Which of these IS a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?

a)

Results in too much genetic variation in a population

b)

Requires less time

c)

Enables organisms to produce large amounts of offspring

d)

Results in little genetic variation within a population

e)

Requires less energy

75.
Limiting factors are sometimes helpful because they can keep the population from getting too large.
a)
True
b)
False
76.

If a disease destroying barley plants swept through an ecosystem, what would happen to the bird population that eat barley plants?

a)

The bird population would stay the same

b)

The bird population would infinitely increase

c)

The bird population would decrease

77.

What is a producer?

a)

Organism that makes its own energy

b)

Organism that breaks down dead organisms

c)

Organism that eats other organisms for food & energy

d)

Organism that makes its own food

78.

What is a consumer?

a)

Organism that makes its own energy

b)

Organism that breaks down dead organisms

c)

Organism that eats other organisms for food & energy

d)

Organism that makes its own food

79.

What are some abiotic factors that could be limiting factors in the Iowa River ecosystem?

a)

Temperature, fertilizer runoff from fields, drought or flood

b)

Invasive species, floods

c)

Temperature, predators, droughts, floods, over fishing

80.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
81.

How do limiting factors in an ecosystem help keep the ecosystem sustainable?

a)

They limit the amount of change to the ecosystem

b)

They limit the growth of populations within the ecosystem

c)

They limit the factors that can affect the ecosystem

d)

They limit how fast populations change within the ecosystem

82.
What would happen if the population of hawks suddenly increased? How would it affect the other organisms in the ecosystem?
a)
The snakes would decrease due to more hawks eating them
b)
All of the population of organisms would increase
c)
The biotic factors in the ecosystem would increase
d)
The hawks predators would decrease
83.

In a large Maine forest with many animals and lots of space, there are only a small number of bears. Which of these most likely limits the population of bears in the forest?

a)

cloud cover in the atmosphere

b)

space

c)

supply of food

d)

types of trees in the area

84.
Cattle egrets foraging in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to food and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
85.
A tapeworm and a dog have this type of relationship.
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
competition
86.
Wrasse fish feed on the parasites found on the black sea bass's body (usually in the mouth). This is like dental floss for the fish and both species benefit.
This is an example of which type of symbiosis?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Predation
87.
Clown fish live among anemones, acting as a lure for the sea anemone's prey. The clown fish gets protection and shelter from the anemone.
This is an example of which type of symbiosis?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Parasitism
d)
IDK
88.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from the spruce tree to the detriment (ill effect) of the spruce.
This is an example of which type of symbiosis?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Parasitism
d)
IDK
89.
Oxpecker birds feed on the ticks found on a rhinoceros. Both species benefit since the oxpecker gets food and the rhino gets rid of a parasite.
This is an example of which type of symbiosis?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Parasitism
d)
IDK
90.

Which organelle is responsible making food (Glucose) using sunlight?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

91.

Which organelle stores water for use in photosynthesis?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Vacuole

d)

Nucleus

92.

Is Glucose (C6H12O6) a Raw Material (Ingredient) or Product of Photosynthesis?

a)

Product

b)

Raw Material

c)

Neither

93.

How does most of the water needed by the plant get into its leaves?

a)

It enters through the stomata

b)

The roots absorb it and then it travels up the stem

c)

It's made during a chemical reaction in the leaf

d)

The flowers capture water and deliver it to the leaves

94.
Why do plants conduct photosynthesis?
a)
To make light
b)
To make mitochondria
c)
To make glucose
d)
To release carbon dioxide
95.
Which of these conditions would decrease the rate of photosynthesis in a plant?
a)
Above average precipitation
b)
Changing the daylight hours from 14 hrs to 10 hrs
c)
Changing the CO2 concentration from 380 ppm to 410 ppm
d)
All of these choices
96.
Which choice correctly shows the gases that enter and exit plants during photosynthesis?
a)
Enter: Oxygen
Exit: Carbon dioxide
b)
Enter: Water vapor
Exit: Glucose
c)
Enter: Carbon dioxide
Exit: Oxygen
d)
Enter: Light
Exit: Water vapor
97.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

light + carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide + sugar + water --> oxygen + light

c)

oxygen + light + water --> carbon dioxide + sugar

d)

carbon dioxide + oxygen + water --> Light+ Sugar

98.
Fluid filled sac for storage of materials; stores food, water, and enzymes. 
a)
vacuole 
b)
centrosome 
c)
nucleus 
d)
chloroplast
99.
Bean-shaped organelle that supplies energy to the cell and has its own ribosomes and DNA. 
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
cell wall 
d)
smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
100.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ?
a)
energy
b)
oxygen
c)
sugar
d)
protein
101.
What is the energy organelle?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosomes
d)
lysosomes
102.
The waste gas given off by cellular respiration is?
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrogen
d)
methane
103.

Cellular Respiration occurs in what cell organelle?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

animal

104.

Which organism go through cellular respiration?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

both animals and plants

d)

none

105.

Cellular Respiration's goal is to

a)

make water

b)

make ATP

c)

make glucose

d)

make oxygen

106.

What are the products (what is released) of cellular respiration? (Mark all of them!)

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

e)

ATP (energy)

107.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, changed
d)
None of the above
108.
What is the Law of Conservation of mass?
a)
Mass is created in a chemical reaction
b)
Mass is created in a physical change
c)
New chemicals formed from a chemical reaction have a larger overall mass than the original reactants
d)
Mass is never created or destroyed
109.

How does photosynthesis and cellular respiration obey the Law of Conservation of Mass and Energy?

a)

Products and reactants are not created or destroyed, but do change forms

b)

Only photosynthesis obeys the Law of Conservation of Mass and Energy

c)

Only cellular respiration obeys the Law of Conservation of Mass and Energy

d)

Neither of them obeys the Law of Conservation of Mass and Energy

110.
When a collection of similar cells group together, they form what is called _________.
a)
Organs
b)
Tissue
c)
Organ system
d)
Organism
111.
A collection of tissue that is grouped together forms an ___________
a)
tissue
b)
organ system
c)
organism
d)
organ
112.

What part is missing in the hierarchy?

a)

cell

b)

organ

c)

tissue

d)

organism

113.

There are levels of cellular organization within multicellular organisms. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Tissues are made up of organs.

b)

Organ systems are made up of organs.

c)

Organs are made up of organisms

d)

Cells are made up of organ systems.

114.

The basic units or "building blocks" of life are called

a)

cells

b)

molecules

c)

organisms

d)

tissues

115.

Which of the following correctly lists the levels of biological organization from MOST complex to LEAST complex?

a)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

b)

cell organism organ system organ tissue

c)

organ system organism organ tissue cell

d)

organism organ system organ tissue cell

116.

There are three tenets of the Cell Theory. Which of the following is NOT a tenet?

a)

Cells are the basic structure and function of life.

b)

All living things are made of one or more cells.

c)

The cell is the basic unit of matter.

d)

All cells come from preexisting cells.

117.

Sometimes called the “powerhouse” of the cell, this organelle is where respiration takes place.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Vacuole

118.

Bacteria is classified as a what?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

119.

The _______ is the smallest structural and functional unit of a living thing. (this will be matching on the test)

a)

cell

b)

metabolism

c)

nutrition

d)

defense

120.

______ is keeping conditions in the cell balanced. (This will be a matching question on the test)

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Response

c)

Metabolism

d)

Nutrition

121.

Which choice is NOT part of the cell theory.

a)

All organisms are composed of cells.

b)

Cells are the basic unit of life.

c)

All cells come from previous cells.

d)

Cells are always the same size and shape.

122.
What does homeostasis mean?
a)
Temperature
b)
Water
c)
Cells
d)
Steady state
123.

Which two systems work together to maintain homeostasis while transporting oxygen throughout the body and removing carbon dioxide?

a)

circulatory and respiratory

b)

respiratory and excretory

c)

circulatory and digestive

d)

respiratory and digestive

124.

Which of the following is not regulated by homeostasis?

a)

body temperature

b)

blood sugar

c)

blood pH

d)

body movements

125.

What green pigment fills a leaf and is used to trap light energy from the Sun to be used for photosynthesis?

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Plant

c)

Eukaryotic

d)

Chloroplast

126.

All cells need to maintain ______________ to function (stay alive).

a)

Reproduction

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Photosynthesis

127.
Homeostasis is necessary for a cell to survive. What is the definition of homeostasis?
a)
the eleimination of wastes
b)
the division of cells to form new cells
c)
the maintenance of a stable internal environment
d)
the process by which energy from the sun is used to make food
128.
The survival of cells depends on maintaining homeostasis. What will happen to a cell if homeostasis is not maintained?
  
a)
The cell will immediately divide.
b)
Cell processes will continue unchanged.
c)
The cell will eliminate wastes more efficiently.
d)
Many chemical reactions in the cell will slow down or even stop.
129.
Which terms best describe heterotrophs?
a)
Plants; producers
b)
Animals; producers
c)
Plants; consumers
d)
Animals; consumers
130.
From where do autotrophs obtain their energy?
a)
The sun
b)
Other organisms
131.
Which structures are found in every living cell?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
132.
Which cell structure is found in plant and animals cells and controls what can come into or leave a cell?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
133.
What is one basic function of the vacuoles?
a)
circulating oxygen
b)
producing food
c)
controlling cell processes
d)
storing water
134.
What is the function of a cell wall?
a)
to protect and support the cell
b)
to perform different functions in each cell
c)
to prevent water from passing through it
d)
to prevent oxygen from entering the cell
135.

Who developed the scientific naming system still used today?

a)

Einstein

b)

Hershey & Chase

c)

Linnaeus

d)

Franklin

136.

The Binomial nomenclature has how many parts to its scientific naming system?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

137.

Levels get increasingly specific from?

a)

kingdom to species

b)

phylum to genus

c)

mammalia to family

d)

order to family

138.

Which 2 Latin names are used for the scientific name?

a)

Genus and family

b)

Kingdom and species

c)

Family and order

d)

Genus and species

139.

Organisms can be classified based on physical similarities, but modern molecular and genetic testing is better.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

What kingdom does an organism that is multicellular and heterotrophic fall into?

a)

Animalia

b)

Prokarya

c)

Eukarya

d)

Fungi

141.

The domain that has simple, single-celled organisms is...

a)

Prokarya

b)

Eukarya

142.

The order of the levels of classification are...

a)

Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b)

Domain, class, kingdom, phylum, order, genus, species, family

c)

Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, genus, family, species

d)

Domain, class, kingdom, phylum, order, genus, family, species

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