WorksheetsPCA Biology Spring Final Review-Packet 1
Total questions: 77
Worksheet time: 39mins
Which of the following represents a similarity between RNA and DNA?
the presence of a double-stranded helix
the presence of uracil
the presence of an OH group on the 3’ carbon of the sugar
nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and a nitrogen base
RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
A. contains ribose as its sugar
B. is found only in the cytoplasm
C. contains uracil instead of thymine
D. both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
Nucleotides are connected to which Carbon within the DNA and RNA?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five
A triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AGT. The corresponding codon for the mRNA
A. AGT
B. UCA
C. TCA
D. AGU
The following sequence of nucleotides in DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-iso-val would be
A. 5’ TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3’
B. 3’ AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5’
C. 5’ AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3’
D. 3’ AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5’
E. 3’ AAA-AAT-TAA-CAA 5’
6. The phosphate within the backbone of the DNA is attached to which of the following Carbons on the ribose sugar?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fifth
E. C and D
7. What amino acid sequence will be generated based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 3’ AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 5’
A. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
B. met-glu-arg-arg-gln-leu
C. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
D. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
E. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
8. Which of the following is analogous to a frameshift of the sequence THECATATETHERAT?
A. THERATATETHECAT
B. THETACATETHERAT
C. THECATARETHERAT
D. THECATATTHERAT
E. CATATETHERAT
9. A frameshift mutation could result from
A. a base insertion only
B. a base deletion only
C. a base substitution only
D. deletion of three consecutive bases
E. either an insertion or a deletion of a base
10. When a nucleotide pair is lost from the middle of a gene during the process of transcription, what happens?
A. an enzyme corrects and then removes incorrect amino acids
B. the protein sequence terminates
C. the reading frame is shifted, producing a nonfunctioning polypeptide
D. a single-recognition particle moves in to correct coding errors
E. there is little effect on the protein being synthesized
11. What is the relationship among DNA, a gene, and a chromosome?
A. a chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of proteins
B. a chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of DNA
C. a gene contains hundreds of chromosomes, which are composed of proteins
D. a gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to the chromosome
E. a gene contains hundreds of chromosomes, which are composed of DNA
12. A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the maximum number of nucleotides in the DNA that codes for the amino acids in this protein?
A. 3
B. 100
C. 300
D. 900
E. 1800
13. If the triplet UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine in bacteria, then in plants UUU should code for
A. phenylalanine
B. leucine
C. valine
D. cystine
E. proline
14. What is the anticodon part of?
A. DNA
B. tRNA
C. mRNA
D. a ribosome
E. an activating enzyme
15. Which of the following elements are not present in DNA?
A. oxygen
B. nitrogen
C. carbon
D. sulfur
E. phosphate
16. What kind of chemical bonds are formed between paired bases of the DNA double helix?
A. hydrogen
B. ionic
C. covalent
D. sulfhydryl
E. phosphate
17. Griffith’s studies of Streptococcus pneumonia
A. showed that DNA is the genetic material of bacteria
B. showed that DNA is the genetic material of bacteriophages
C. demonstrated the phenomenon of bacterial transformation
D. proved that prokaryotes reproduce sexually
E. proved that protein is not the genetic material
18. Which of the following is not a difference between RNA and DNA?
A. RNA has uracil; DNA has thymine
B. RNA has ribose; DNA has deoxyribose
C. RNA has five bases; DNA has four
D. RNA is a single polynucleotide strand; DNA is a double strand
E. RNA is relatively smaller then human chromosomal DNA
19. All protein sequences begin with
A. the initiation sequence of AUG which codes for Lysol
B. the initiation sequence of AUG which codes for Methionine
C. the origin of replication
D. the initiation sequence of UAA which codes for Methionine
20. In 1928, the experiments of Griffith demonstrated transformation of
A. Harmless bacteria into disease-causing bacteria
B. Disease-causing bacteria into harmless bacteria
C. Heat-killed S bacteria into R bacteria
D. S bacteria into heat-killed R bacteria
21. In 1952, Hershey and Chase used a bacteriophage to determine that genetic material is made of which of the following?
A. Protein
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. 35S
Avery’s experiments showed that C. Bacteriophages are responsible for transformation
A. DNA is responsible for transformation
B. Proteins are responsible for transformation
C. Bacteriophages are responsible for transformation
C. Bacteriophages are responsible for transformation
In 1953, Watson and Crick built a model of the DNA with the configuration of a
A. Single helix
B. Double helix
C. Triple helix
D. Circle plasmid
During which phase of cell division does DNA replication occur?
A. G1
B. G0
C. G2
D. M
E. S
Which of the following represents a “Start” codon sequence for protein synthesis?
A. UGA
B. UTA
C. AUG
D. SMU
E. TCU
Within the diagram above, what does “F” represent?
A. The synthesis of a protein
B. The formation of messenger RNA
C. The replication of a new DNA strand
D. The translation of a messenger RNA codon sequence
E. Formation of an amino acid chain
Okazaki fragments are found in the discontinuous strand of the DNA during Transcription.
A. True
B. False
What type of chemical bonds are formed between paired bases of the DNA helix?
A. Paired covalent bonds
B. Weak ionic bonds
C. Weak electromagnetic bonds
D. Weak Hydrogen bonds
E. James Bond
Adenine and Guanine are considered what type of Nitrogenous bases?
A. Part of the Base paring rule
B. Purines
C. Natural
D. Pyrimidines
E. Organic
Pairing Adenine with Thymine and Cytosine with Guanine is an example of which rule?
A. Markoff’s rule of base pairs
B. Law of Thermodynamics
C. Octet rule
D. 4 - square
E. Base paring rule
If you are presented with 75 codon sets in a sequence … but the amino acid for codon set 36 is not available …. How long will the protein chain be?
A. 75 amino acids
B. 74 amino acids
C. 36 amino acids
D. 35 amino acids
E. 225 amino acids
32. When did Wallace and Darwin present their paper on The theory of evolution by means of Natural Selection?
a. 1809
b. 1859
c. 1959
d. 1776
33. What is macroevolution?
a. evolution as it occurs on a large scale
b. it is a synonym for “stabilizing selection”
c. population-level changes in gene frequencies
d. a uniform change in the rate and pattern of evolution
e. change on the subspecies level
The ideas of Hutton and Lyell that Darwin incorporated into his theory pertained to
a. the age of Earth and gradual change
b. extinctions evident in the fossil record
c. adaptations of species to the environment
d. a hierarchical classification of organisms
e. the inheritance of acquired characteristics
In Science, the term THEORY generally applies to an idea that
a. cannot be tested
b. attempts to explain many related phenomena
c. is synonymous with what biologist mean by a hypothesis
d. is so widely accepted that it is considered a law of nature
36. The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is
a. a cell
b. an individual organism
c. a population
d. an ecosystem
The Galapagos Islands are off the west coast of
a. Brazil
b. Portugal
c. Canada
d. Ecuador
What was Darwin’s job while onboard the H.M.S. Beagle?
a. ship’s navigator
b. ship’s naturalist
c. ship’s captain
d. ship’s doctor
Darwin’s observations while with the Beagle led him to wonder why
a. organisms looked as they did
b. God created so many species
c. there were so few finch species
d. marine tortoises lived so long
e. he agreed to go on the voyage
What is the name of the person who devised a taxonomic system that used morphological (i.e., anatomical) features as the primary criteria for classifying organisms?
a. Charles Darwin
b. Alfred Wallace
c. Carolus Linnaeus
d. Charles Lyell
e. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
On which of the following did Linnaeus based his classification system?
a. morphology and anatomy
b. evolutionary history
c. the fossil records
Catastrophism was Cuvier’s attempt to explain
a. mechanical isolation
b. the fossil records
c. uniformitarianism
d. the origin of new species
Darwin’s mechanism of natural selection required long time spans in order to modify species. From whom did Darwin get the concept of the Earth’s ancient age?
a. Georges Cuvier
b. Charles Lyell
c. Alfred Wallace
d. Thomas Malthus
e. John Henslow
Which of the following is primarily responsible for determining the allele frequency within a specific population?
a. 2 nd Law of Thermodynamics
b. Hardy-Weinberg
c. Octet rule
d. Punnett square
e. Base-paring rule
To observe natural selection’s effects on a population, what must be true?
a. One must observe more than one generation of a population
b. The population must contain genetic variation
c. Members of the population must increase or decrease the use of some portion of their anatomy
d. Only A and C are correct
e. Only A and B are correct
When the genes of a different parent species interact and produce offspring, but the offspring will be impaired in development or are frail if they survive is an example of ...
a. reduced hybrid fertility
b. hybrid breakdown
c. reduced hybrid viability
d. gametic isolation
e. habitat isolation
Some first-generation hybrids are viable and fertile, but when they mate and produce offspring the next generation will be feeble or sterile. This is an example of ...
a. reduced hybrid fertility
b. hybrid breakdown
c. reduced hybrid viability
d. mechanical isolation
e. behavioral isolation
The theory of evolution in the scientific arena is most accurately described as
a. an educated guess of about how species originate
b. one possible explanation, among several alternatives, about how species have come into existence
c. an opinion that some scientist hold about how living things change over time
d. an overarching explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations change over time
e. an idea about how acquired characteristics are passed on to subsequent generations
Which of the following statements gives the LEAST support to the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ?
a. the appendix can be surgically removed with no apparent ill effects
b. the appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids
c. the appendix can have a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue in its wall
d. individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-sized appendix
e. in a million years, the human species might completely lack an appendix
When observing the evolutionary development of embryonic tissues of humans and bony fish, we notice that the same embryonic tissue of the fish develops int gills. But the same tissue in humans develops into a portion of the auditory system. This type of development is called
a. divergent evolution
b. convergent evolution
If you sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous for a particular gene and 18% express the homozygous dominate trait. What would be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?
a. 0.09
b. 0.30
c. 0.49
d. 0.70
e. 0.63
Which of the following is not a requirement for maintenance of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. an increasing mutation rate
b. random mating
c. large population size
d. no migration
e. no natural selection
If the courtship rituals performed by one animal inhibits the possible mating by another species ... this would be an example of
a. temporal isolation
b. habitat isolation
c. gametic isolation
d. mechanical isolation
e. behavioral isolation
When the sperm of one species will not fertilize the eggs of another species you have an example of
a. mechanical isolation
b. behavioral isolation
c. gametic isolation
d. habitat isolation
e. temporal isolation
When morphological differences occur between two different species and these differences prevent successful mating this type of isolation is called ...
a. behavioral isolation
b. habitat isolation
c. mechanical isolation
d. temporal isolation
e. gametic isolation
What type of prezygotic isolation is exhibited when deer around Lubbock, Texas are not able to mate with deer near Houston, Texas?
a. gametic isolation
b. temporal isolation
c. behavioral isolation
d. habitat isolation
e. sexual isolation
What is a mutation?
a. a gene that causes a disease
b. a random change in a organism’s DNA
c. a chance change in the gene pool of a small population
d. the immigration of alleles into a gene pool
e. the emigration of alleles out of a gene pool
What is genetic drift?
a. chance changes in the gene pool of a small population
b. the entry of alleles into a population due to immigration
c. changes in the gene pool of a population that is due to differential reproductive success
d. a change in allelic frequencies due to mutation
e. the loss of alleles from a population due to emigration
A gene pool consists of
a. all the alleles exposed to natural selection
b. the total of all alleles present in a population
c. the entire genome of a reproducing individual
d. the frequencies of the alleles for a gene locus within a population
e. all of the gametes in a population
Selection acts directly on
a. phenotype
b. genotype
c. the entire genome
d. each allele
Two species of Brown trout that breed in different seasons would be an example of which type of reproductive isolation?
a. gametic
b. temporal
c. behavioral
d. habitat
e. mechanical
Two species of meadow larks with different mating songs would be an example of which type of reproductive isolation?
a. gametic
b. temporal
c. behavioral
d. habitat
e. mechanical
Two species of pine trees shed their pollen at different times. This would be an example of which type of which type of reproductive isolation?
a. gametic
b. temporal
c. behavioral
d. habitat
e. mechanical
Mating fruit flies recognize the appearance, odor, tapping motions, and sounds of their own species, but not any other species
a. gametic
b. temporal
c. behavioral
d. habitat
e. mechanical
If two species are able to interbreed but produce offspring that are sterile, their species integrity is maintained by
a. a postzygotic barrier
b. a prezygotic barrier
c. habitat isolation
d. mechanical isolation
The reproductive barrier that maintains the species boundary between horses and donkeys means that the hybrids are vigorous but sterile.
a. mechanical isolation
b. gametic isolation
c. reduced hybrid viability
d. reduced hybrid fertility
e. hybrid breakdown
The largest unit in which gene flow is possible is a
a. Dallas
b. species
c. genus
d. subspecies
e. phylum
Most copies of harmful recessive alleles in a population are carried by individuals that are
a. haploid.
b. polymorphic.
c. homozygous for the allele.
d. heterozygous for the allele
Evolution occurs at the level of
a. the individual genotype
b. the individual phenotype
c. environmentally based phenotypic variation
d. the population
70. What does natural selection act on?
a. the gene pool of the species
b. the genotype
c. the phenotype
d. multiple gene inheritance systems
Which of the following about Mendelian populations is not true? A Mendelian population must ...
a. consist of members of the same species
b. have members that are capable of interbreeding
c. show genetic variation
d. have a gene pool
Which of the following is primarily responsible for determining the probability of the outcome of an organism’s genetic make-up?
a. 2 nd Law of Thermodynamics
b. Hardy-Weinberg
c. Octet rule
d. Punnett square
e. Base-paring rule
When observing the evolutionary development of the human eye when compared to the eye of the octopus ... the would be an example of
a. divergent evolution
b. convergent evolution
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat? The
a. dorsal fin of a shark
b. tail of a kangaroo
c. arm of a human
d. tail fin of a fish
Which statement best describes how the evolution of pesticide resistance occurs in a population of insects?
a. individual members of the population slowly adapt to the presence of the chemical by striving to meet the new challenge
b. all insects exposed to the insecticide begin to use a formerly silent gene to make a new enzyme that breaks down the insecticide molecules
c. insects observe the behavior of other insects that survive pesticide application and adjust their own behaviors to copy those of the survivors
d. the number of genetically resistant pesticide survivors reproduce. The next generation of insects contain more genes from the survivors than it does from those killed by the insecticide
Commonly refers to an unusual abundance of the chemical element in a layer of rock strata at the Cretaceous–Paleogene (K-Pg) boundary. The unusually high concentration of this rare metal is often taken as evidence for an extraterrestrial impact event.
a. Convergent Evolution
b. Adaptive radiation
c. Sympathetic speciation
d. Divergent Evolution e. Iridium Anomaly
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing
of a bat? The
a. dorsal fin of a shark
b. tail of a kangaroo
c. arm of a human
d. tail fin of a fish
