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APES Review Units 1-3

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 4hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of environmental science primarily considers

a)

interactions among human systems and those found in Earth

b)

the effect of human systems

c)

abiotic factors that influence the state of our environment

d)

factors that affect global climate change

2.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

3.

Which best describes the difference between an environmentalist and an environmental scientist?

a)

the difference is unimportant because both care about Earth

b)

an environmentalist follows a belief system; an environmental scientist is concerned with the methods of science

c)

an environmentalist studies the humanities; an environmental scientist has a background in biology and chemistry

d)

an environmentalist is concerned with abiotic factors; an environmental scientist studies biotic factors

4.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

5.

A tapeworm lives in the small intestines where it feeds and grows, robbing the human of essential nutrients. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

6.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

7.

A positive feedback loop occurs

a)

when a system responds to a change by returning to its original state

b)

when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

when a system is in a steady state

d)

when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

8.

Which is a biotic factor?

a)

producers

b)

pH

c)

energy

d)

humidity

9.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

10.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 10oC and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Temperate seasonal forest

b)

Temperate rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Tropical seasonal forest

11.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 4oC and 50 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate grassland/cold desert

d)

Woodland/shrubland

12.

What factors are used to classify a biome?

a)

average temperature

b)

average precipitation

c)

distinctive plants adapted to area

d)

all of these are correct

13.

Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?

a)

temperate seasonal forest

b)

woodland/shrubland

c)

tundra

d)

boreal forest

14.

Terrestrial biomes are defined by ____ and ____ variables.

a)

temperature; precipitation

b)

temperature; animals

c)

precipitation; plants

d)

animals; plants

15.

What is a herbivore?

a)

receives energy from the sun

b)

only eats meat

c)

only eats plants

d)

eats both plants and meat

16.

The direction of an arrow in a food chain represents

a)

the flow of energy from organism B to A

b)

the movement of organisms

c)

the directionality of the sun

d)

the flow of energy from organism A to B

17.

Which biome has warm temperatures, high precipitation, and little seasonal variation due to its location near the equator?

a)

Boreal forest

b)

Tropical rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Subtropical desert

18.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


The treatments planted with only wheat are the

a)

sample size.

b)

control.

c)

environmental variable.

d)

replication.

19.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


Which statement provides a hypothesis for this experiment?

a)

Wheat grows better when planted alone than when planted together with clover.

b)

Clover grows better when planted alone than when planted together with clover.

c)

Wheat grows better when planted together with soy beans.

d)

Clover grows better when planted together with wheat.

20.

An ecosystem contains

a)

only one species

b)

multiple species

c)

living and non-living components

d)

all the similar biomes across the world

21.

A community contains

a)

only one species

b)

multiple species

c)

living and non-living components

d)

all the similar biomes across the world

22.

A population contains

a)

only one species

b)

multiple species

c)

living and non-living components

d)

all the similar biomes across the world

23.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
24.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source. 
25.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in the producers gets passed to the herbivores?
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
90%
26.
A secondary consumer 
a)
eats primary consumers
b)
eats producers
c)
eats plants
27.
All the organisms on earth get their energy directly or indirectly from?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Water 
c)
Nitrogen
d)
The Sun
28.

What does a biomass pyramid compare?

a)

the amount of biomass at each trophic level

b)

the amount of energy available at each trophic level

c)

the amount of biomass consumed at each trophic level

d)

the amount of individuals at each trophic level

29.

Which of the following ecological levels of organization are arranged from largest to smallest?

a)

ecosystem, population, community

b)

biosphere, ecosystem, community

c)

community, population, ecosystem

d)

biosphere, population, ecosystem

30.

Compared with a population with low genetic diversity, a genetically diverse population is more likely to include individuals that

a)

are distributed over a large area.

b)

vary greatly by age.

c)

vary greatly by appearance and behavior.

d)

each carry a large number of genes.

31.

Which of the following is most likely to give an individual a larger range of tolerance than other members of its population?

a)

spending more time in extremely hot and cold conditions

b)

having a relatively large number of offspring

c)

genetic similarity to the rest of the population

d)

genetic difference from the rest of the population

32.

Genetic diversity, species diversity, ecological diversity, and functional diversity are best characterized as elements of

a)

cultural diversity

b)

abiotic resources

c)

biological diversity

d)

biospheres

33.

A secondary consumer obtains X energy from eating a primary consumer with a total energy of Y. What is the relationship of X and Y?

a)

X > Y

b)

X < Y

c)

X = Y

d)

2Y = X

34.

Which of the following organisms is usually first to suffer when an ecosystem is disrupted?

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

tertiary consumers

d)

decomposers

35.

All of the following help determine an animal's niche EXCEPT

a)

physical damage it has sustained

b)

its temperature-range tolerance

c)

its adaptive traits

d)

species that act as its predators and prey

36.

Only 5% of a population of lizards survive a major flood, and by chance, the majority of the survivors are green. If the original population was composed mostly of brown individuals, what type of phenomenon has occured?

a)

evolutionary divergence

b)

a bottle-neck event

c)

parallel evolution

d)

natural selection

37.

A species is most likely to go extinct in a changing environment if it has

a)

high genetic diversity

b)

a large niche

c)

a narrow niche

d)

recent evolutionary adaptations

38.

One species benefits from its relationship with another species for whom the relationship does no harm nor good. This relationship is best described as

a)

commensalism

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

competitive exclusion

39.

During primary succession, which of the following organisms often serve as pioneer species?

a)

lichens

b)

grasses

c)

bushes

d)

trees

40.

Southeast Asian flying foxes are responsible for pollinating durian tree flowers and spreading durian seeds. Durian trees and fruit are critical for the survival of many species and a decline in the flying fox population would be devastating to the local ecology. Flying foxes can be considered

a)

an indicator species

b)

an invasive species

c)

a keystone species

d)

a pioneer species

41.

Coastal wetlands are ecologically important because they do all of the following EXCEPT

a)

harbor a high level of biodiversity

b)

reduce the impact of storms coming inland

c)

provide refuge for large marine mammals like blue whales

d)

help to cycle nutrients

42.

Wolves were reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park in 1995. This keystone species restored the park’s ecosystem. What is the ecological value of a keystone species?

a)

they influence the survival of many other species in an ecosystem.

b)

they prevent the ecosystem from changing and growing.

c)

they protect land and water resources within the ecosystem.

d)

They decrease the number of unwanted species in an ecosystem.

43.

A healthy forest ecosystem in the Northwest is home to elk, mule deer, chipmunks, ground squirrels, and a variety of plants. What is the relationship between biodiversity and available resources?

a)

Biodiversity is not affected by changes to available resources.

b)

Biodiversity decreases the amount of available resources.

c)

Biodiversity increases with abundant resources and decreases when resources are scarce.

d)

Biodiversity decreases with abundant resources and increases when resources are scarce.

44.

Sometimes when a bee pollinates a flower, this action is beneficial to humans. Bees are the main pollinators of many plants that humans eat, such as blueberries, potatoes, apples, celery, and strawberries. What are the benefits that humans receive from the ecosystem called?

a)

ecological restoration

b)

sustainability

c)

ecosystem services

d)

ecology

45.

Which of the following represents a cultural ecosystem service?

a)

timber

b)

water cycle

c)

pollination

d)

recreational opportunities

46.

Which of the following is true about island biodiversity?

a)

Small islands are more likely to have more immigrated species

b)

Small islands have higher biodiversity than large islands

c)

Small islands have more resources and as a result may have more species

d)

Small islands have fewer resources and as a result may have fewer species

47.

What prediction is correct about island biogeography?

a)

Smaller islands have more resources, and will have more biodiversity

b)

Larger islands have more space for resources, but will have less biodiversity due to competition

c)

Islands closer to mainland will be more diverse due to more successful dispersal.

d)

There is more diversity far away from the mainland because some species fly.

48.
Two savanna communities both contain 15 plant species. In community A, each of the 15 species is represented by 20 individuals. In community B, 10 of the species are each represented by 12 individuals; the remaining 5 species are each represented by 3 individuals. Which statement best describes the two communities?
a)
Community A has the same biodiversity as community B
b)
Both communities have the same species evenness
c)
Community B has a higher species richness
d)
Community A has higher species evenness
49.

Which is the best description of the two communities shown?

a)

Community 1 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 2.

b)

Community 1 has a higher evenness and equal richness to Community 2.

c)

Community 2 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 1.

d)

Community 2 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 1.

50.

The relative abundance of individuals within each species refers to the

a)

Species Richness

b)

Genetic Diversity

c)

Species Evenness

d)

Ecological Diversity

51.

This zone has few organisms where the temperature is either too low or too high. The old and weak fish die in this zone.

a)

Zone of Physiological Stress

b)

Zone of Intolerance

c)

Zone of Optimum Range

d)

Zone of Invalidity

52.

Products obtained from nature that humans can use such as lumber, medicines and food crops are

a)

ecological benefits.

b)

provisions.

c)

supplies.

d)

services.

53.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
54.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
55.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
56.

What is an example of an area that is likely to undergo primary succession?

a)

Glaciers melt and leave exposed rock

b)

Plants die from drought and decompose

c)

Land is bulldozed and soil remains

d)

A forest fire occurs

57.

Which factor below is least likely to affect birth and fertility rates today?

a)

number of people 60 or older

b)

cost of raising and educating children

c)

religious beliefs

d)

educational and employment opportunities for women

e)

average age at marriage

58.

Which of the following pairs of indicators best reflects the availability of health care in a country?

a)

Crude death rate and growth rate

b)

Crude death rate and crude birth rate

c)

Growth rate and life expectancy

d)

Infant mortality rate and life expectancy

e)

Infant mortality rate and crude death rate

59.

Which of the following characteristics are typical of developed countries?

I High technology use

II Low GDP

III Small-scale sustainable agriculture

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

60.

Which of the following statements about total fertility rate is correct

a)

TFR is equal to the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate.

b)

TFR is the average number of children each woman must have to replace the current population.

c)

TFR is generally higher in developed countries than in developing countries

d)

TFR is equal to the growth rate of a country

e)

TFR is the average number of children each woman will give birth to during her childbearing years.

61.

At current growth rates, which country will probably be the most populous in the world after 2050?

a)

China

b)

Brazil

c)

India

d)

Indonesia

e)

United States

62.

Which of the following countries best exemplifies phase 4 of a demographic transition?

a)

Argentina

b)

China

c)

India

d)

Mexico

e)

Japan

63.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

17 years

d)

15 years

e)

not enough information to tell

64.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

65.

A particular country has a Total Fertility Rate equal to replacement level fertility and emigration equal to immigration. Which of the following must be true?

a)

The population will begin shrinking within ten years, based on the Rule of 70.

b)

The population must be stable.

c)

The population will begin growing as soon as TFR = 2.1.

d)

Infant mortality must also be less than Crude Death Rate.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

66.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
67.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
68.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
70.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

71.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
72.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
73.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
74.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
75.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
76.
Which is true about a population's carrying capacity?
a)
it is denoted as "C"
b)
it is usually used when studying ecosystems
c)
it depends on a limiting resource
d)
it is controlled by density-independent factors
77.
An r-selected species characteristically has
a)
a type I survivorship curve
b)
few offspring
c)
a population near carrying capacity
d)
a fast population growth rate
78.
Which is true of a population overshoot?
a)
it occurs when reproduction quickly responds to changes in food supply
b)
it is followed by a die-off
c)
it is most likely to be experienced by K-selected species 
d)
it rarely occurs in species with type III survivorship curves
79.

Identify two main contributors for the dramatic increase in the world population over the last century.

a)

increased access to birth control

b)

development of modern medicine

c)

increased immigration

d)

introduction of the Industrial Revolution

80.

Closest to the current world population

a)

1 million

b)

1.4 billion

c)

7 billion

d)

330 million

81.

According to the graph, what can have the greatest impact on reducing global TFR?

a)

increasing access to healthcare

b)

increasing access to immigration

c)

women empowerment

82.

What is the maximum number of individuals of one species that the environment can support?

a)

overload capacity

b)

top capacity

c)

population

d)

carrying capacity

83.

The part of the environlent that keeps a population's size at a level below its full potential

a)

limiting factor

b)

stopping factor

c)

carrying factor

84.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
85.

When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?

a)

Continues to grow

b)

The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity

c)

The population will go extinct due to lack of resources

86.

Which one is an effect of rural exodus?

a)

Overcrowded cities

b)

People eat better in rural areas

c)

There are more jobs in rural areas

87.

Which one shows the relation between population and square kilometres?

a)

Natural increase

b)

Life expectancy

c)

Population density

88.

What is the dispersion pattern of herding animals, birds that flock together, and fish that form schools?

a)

clumped

b)

random

c)

uniform

d)

unpredictable

89.

Which factor would be considered density independent?

a)

an intestinal parasite

b)

a fatal virus

c)

a severe drought

d)

severe overcrowding

90.

Which factor would be considered density dependent?

a)

competition

b)

drought

c)

water quality

d)

pH of the soil

91.

What is the horizontal line on the graph called?

a)

exponential growth

b)

geometric growth

c)

carrying capacity

d)

straight-line growth

92.

What is the horizontal line on the graph called?

a)

exponential growth

b)

geometric growth

c)

carrying capacity

d)

straight-line growth

93.

If angel fish produce hundreds of young several times a year, which statement below is true?

a)

Angelfish have a k-strategy reproductive pattern

b)

Angelfish have an r-strategy reproductive pattern

c)

Angelfish probably have a low mortality rate

d)

Angelfish provide a lot of care for their young

94.

The size, density, and birth and death rates of human population are studied during

a)

age structure graphs

b)

demography

c)

exponential growth

d)

k strategist reproduction

95.

What term refers to the number of males and females in various reproductive age groups?

a)

age structure

b)

carrying capacity

c)

reproductive dispersal

d)

birth rates

96.

Type III survivorship is characterized by

a)

extremely high juvenile mortality

b)

mortality that is not age dependent

c)

most mortality occurring among the elderly

d)

most juveniles surviving to a critical age

97.
The highest natural increase rates are found in countries in which stage of the demographic transition model (DTM)?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
98.
The lowest crude birth rates (CBRs) are found in countries in which stage of the DTM?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
99.
The highest CDRs are found in countries in which stage of the DTM?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
100.
The population pyramid of Naples, Florida, is "upside down," because the city has a large percentage of:
a)
infants.
b)
females.
c)
elderly people.
d)
young people.
101.
Which section would see exponential population growth?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
102.
The human population is currently following roughly a j-shaped curve.  This means that the population is growing
a)
arithmetically.
b)
sigmoidally.
c)
at a decreasing rate.
d)
exponentially.
103.
Use Figure 7-1.  Population A would most likely be in which stage of demographic transition?
a)
Pre-Industrial
b)
Transitional
c)
Industrial
d)
Post-Industrial
104.
A country with an age distribution like that shown in the figure above, is most likely a country that
a)
Is expecting rapid growth
b)
Is experiencing slow or no population growth
c)
Is experiencing a high death rate
d)
Is a less-developed country
105.
The graph on the right best represents which country?
a)
USA
b)
Mexico
c)
Nigeria
d)
India
106.
Use Figure 10-1.  Urban populations increased approximately ____% from 1950 to 2000.
a)
3
b)
8
c)
40
d)
68
107.
Use Figure 10-1.  Urban populations increased approximately ____% from 1950 to 2000.
a)
3
b)
8
c)
40
d)
68
108.
The most critical factor in controlling human population growth is
a)
controlling reproductive lifespan.
b)
decreasing the age of first birth.
c)
decreasing the average number of births per woman.
d)
decreasing infant death.
109.
Use Figure 7-1.  Population A is most likely:
a)
rapidly growing
b)
rapidly declining
c)
stable or close to stable
d)
going to decline in a few decades
110.
Use Figure 7-1.  Population A would most likely be in which stage of demographic transition?
a)
Pre-Industrial
b)
Transitional
c)
Industrial
d)
Post-Industrial
111.
According to the theory of demographic transition, countries move through growth phases in which order?
a)
stable growth, rapid growth, slow growth, declining growth
b)
rapid growth, slow growth, stable growth, declining growth
c)
slow growth, declining growth, rapid growth, stable growth
d)
slow growth, rapid growth, stable growth, declining growth
112.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
113.
Over a long period of time, each pair of adults in a population had only two offspring and the offspring lived to reproduce, the population would...
a)
grow
b)
shrink
c)
remain the same
d)
disperse randomly
114.
Which of the following is NOT a strategy that could slow population growth?
a)
public advertising 
b)
economic incentives
c)
 legal punishments
d)
limiting education for women
115.
Which of the following is NOT a strategy that could slow population growth?
a)
public advertising 
b)
economic incentives
c)
 legal punishments
d)
limiting education for women
116.
If the death rate of a population is greater than the birthrate, the population decreases.
a)
True
b)
False
117.
Exponential growth is slow and gradual.
a)
True
b)
False
118.

What would promote a high Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?

a)

Elimination of tax benefits for families with more than two children

b)

Free public housing to families with more than two children

c)

Government advocacy of abstinence to discourage teen pregnancy