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APES Review Game (for AP Test)

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A species that reproduces in large quantities multiple times per year
a)
Endemic
b)
r-selected
c)
k-selected
d)
 Extinct 
2.
A species that is only found on one location on the planet
a)
Endemic
b)
r-selected
c)
k-selected
d)
 Extinct 
3.
This organism usually has a survivorship III curve with many babies being born and only a few surviving to adulthood. 
a)
Endemic
b)
r-selected
c)
k-selected
d)
 Extinct 
4.
Humans are classified as this...
a)
Endemic
b)
r-selected
c)
k-selected
d)
 Extinct 
5.
Which of the following gives the major factors that determine a population's growth rate? 
a)
adaptation, competition, birth rate, emigration 
b)
survivorship, natural selection, mutation, extinction 
c)
Immigration, climate, emigration, biotic potential 
d)
growth rate, death rate, emigration, immigration 
6.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
7.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
8.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
9.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
10.
The deep, underlying non-soil materials
a)
B horizon
b)
E horizon
c)
O horizon
d)
Bedrock
11.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

12.
A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
13.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
14.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants and on farms. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
soil
d)
dirt
15.

Which of the following is an environmental problem associated with abandoned coal mines?

a)

Air pollution caused by smog from ozone formation

b)

Acid drainage due to leaching of spoil heaps by rainwater

c)

Alkaline solutions that pollute streams

d)

Released nutrients that cause eutrophication into streams

e)

Thermal pollution of streams in the area

16.

Which of the following is the best example of an energy storage element in a solar energy system

a)

The photovoltaic array in a solar electric system

b)

The overhang that blocks sunlight in a passively cooled home.

c)

The insulated windows in a passively heated solar home

d)

The sun-tracking mirrors in a power tower system

e)

The hot water tank in a solar hot water system

17.

The separation of the various components of crude oil in refineries is accomplished primarily by taking advantage of differences in which of the following?

a)

The densities of the components

b)

The boiling points of the components

c)

The solubility of the components

d)

The sulfur content of the components

e)

The viscosities of the components

18.

The majority of atmospheric mercury is produced by

a)

medical waste incinerators

b)

coal-burning power plants

c)

runoff from thermometer factories

d)

municipal waste incinerators municipal waste incinerators

e)

volatilization of lead-based paint

19.

Which of the following is the current recommendation of Congress for the permanent storage of high-level radioactive waste in the United States?

a)

Burial deep underground at sites remote from population centers

b)

Storage in huge pools of water at the nuclear plants where they are produced

c)

Storage in concrete and steel casks, above ground in air-cooled buildings, at nuclear plants where they are produced

d)

Storage deep in the Antarctic ice sheet and burial beneath the ocean floor

e)

Injection deep underground in remote areas between impervious layers of shale and clay

20.

The town of Fremont Center shares its power plant with the towns of West Fremont and East Fremont. Information about the three towns is shown in the table below. The maximum capacity of the existing power plant is 2,000 MW.


The number of years that the power plant will be capable of supplying all of the demand for energy in the three cities is nearest to

a)

0.5 years

b)

5 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

70 years

21.

Approximate percentage of electrical energy converted to heat in the average incandescent lightbulb

a)

100%

b)

95%

c)

30%

d)

15%

e)

1%

22.

Which of the following energy sources is not derived directly or indirectly from solar energy?

a)

Geothermal

b)

Photovoltaic

c)

Hydroelectric

d)

Biomass Biomass

e)

Wind

23.

Approximate efficiency of an average coal-fired power plant

a)

100%

b)

95%

c)

30%

d)

15%

e)

1%

24.

Which statement best describes the approximate global distribution of coal supplies?

a)

Brazil and South Africa together contain 33% of proven reserves.

b)

The United States contains 40% of proven reserves.

c)

Australia, Japan, and France together contain 45% of proven reserves

d)

The United States, the former Soviet Union, and China together contain 50% of proven reserves.

e)

Germany, Brazil, and India together contain 75% of proven reserves.

25.

The country with the highest population density is

a)

Australia

b)

Bangladesh

c)

China

d)

United States

e)

India

26.

In demographic transition,the greatest rate of population growth takes place during which phase

a)

The pre-industrial

b)

The pre-transitional

c)

The transitional

d)

The industrial The industrial

e)

The postindustrial

27.

Which of the following is a true statement about the total fertility of a society?

a)

The total fertility of a society is the difference between the crude birth rate and the crude death rate.

b)

The total fertility of a society is the number of children necessary for a couple to replace themselves in the next generation.

c)

The total fertility rate of a society is positively correlated with the average education of women.

d)

The total fertility rate of a society is negatively correlated with the number of women of child-bearing age.

e)

The total fertility of a society decreases as the society progresses through the demographic transition.

28.

If a city of population 10,000 experiences 100 births, 40 deaths, 10 immigrants, and 30 emigrants in the course of a year, what is its net annual percentage growth rate?

a)

0.4%

b)

0.8%

c)

1.0%

d)

4.0%

e)

8.0%

29.

The current global human population is about 7.6 billion and is growing at an annual rate of 1.1 percent. If world population were to grow at the current rate, how many people would be added next year?

a)

8 X 105

b)

8 X 106

c)

8 X 107

d)

8 X 108

e)

8 X 109

30.

A country's pop. grows at a rate of 5 percent per year,the number of years for it to double is

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

20 years

e)

25 years

31.

Which of the following is a true statement about replacement-level fertility?

a)

It equals the annual number of live births per 1,000 people

b)

It equals the natural increase of a population in one year

c)

It equals the average number of children a woman will give birth to during her child-bearing years.

d)

It is found by subtracting the number of emigrants from the number of immigrants in one year.

e)

It is greater in countries with high infant-mortality rates than in countries with low infant-mortality rates.

32.

At the current rate of growth, Earth’s human population will double in about 50 years. Which of the following is the LEAST viable strategy for ensuring adequate nutrition for a population of this size?

a)

Increasing the number of new crops from the great diversity of plant species

b)

Doubling the area of arable land on a global basis

c)

Developing systems for making the global distribution of food more equitable

d)

Increasing the area of land that is currently dedicated to grain production by reducing the area dedicated to meat production

e)

Assisting developing countries in using highly efficient crop irrigation systems

33.

A country with an age distribution like that shown in the figure above, is most likely a country that

a)

is experiencing rapid growth

b)

is experiencing slow or no population growth

c)

is experiencing a high death rate

d)

has 40% of the population under age 15

e)

is a less-developed country

34.

The phenomenon causing global warming occurs primarily in this region of the atmosphere

a)

Thermosphere

b)

Exosphere

c)

Troposphere

d)

Mesosphere

e)

Stratosphere

35.

The beneficial ozone layer is in this region of the atmosphere.

a)

Thermosphere

b)

Exosphere

c)

Troposphere

d)

Mesosphere

e)

Stratosphere

36.

Most often cited as the causative factor for acid deposition

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

37.

Considered harmful in the troposphere but beneficial in the stratosphere

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

38.

Region largely responsible for the weather experienced at the Earth’s surface

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

39.

Found in old plumbing pipes and fixtures and some ceramic glazes

a)

Asbestos

b)

Radon

c)

Lead

d)

Carbon Monoxide

e)

Formaldehyde

40.

Composed of fibers known to cause lung disease

a)

Asbestos

b)

Radon

c)

Lead

d)

Carbon Monoxide

e)

Formaldehyde

41.

Emitted from most manufactured building materials and furniture

a)

Asbestos

b)

Radon

c)

Lead

d)

Carbon Monoxide

e)

Formaldehyde

42.

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that is produced by domestic livestock?

a)

NO2

b)

CH4

c)

O3

d)

CO

e)

SO2

43.

Which of the following is part of a positive feedback mechanism associated with global climate change?

a)

Increased gas mileage in cars

b)

Increased cloudiness caused by more moisture in the atmosphere

c)

Metling of Arctic sea ice

d)

Increased acidity of seawater

e)

Increased growth of CO2-absorbing trees and grasses

44.

Which of the following factors is fundamentally responsible for seasons on Earth?

a)

The varying distance of Earth from the Sun

b)

The tild of Earth's axis of rotation

c)

The latitudinal variation in temperature and precipitation

d)

The tidal pull of the Sun and Moon

e)

The anthropogenic greenhouse effect

45.

The polar regions radiate away more heat energy than they receive from the Sun in the course of a year. However, they are prevented from becoming progressively colder each year primarily by the

a)

absorption of ultraviolet radiation by snow

b)

transport of heat through the atmosphere and oceans

c)

concentration of Earth’s magnetic field lines at the poles

d)

release of latent heat to the atmosphere when the polar ice caps melt

e)

generation of heat by glacial movement

46.

Which of the following actions would reduce global

greenhouse emissions?

a)

Increasing the use of automobiles

b)

Decreasing the number of nuclear power

plants

c)

Replacing coal-burning power plants with

wind farms

d)

Converting tropical forests to rice

paddies

e)

Switching from hydroelectric power

generation to power generation using natural gas as the primary fuel

47.

Stratospheric ozone depletion is most likely to result in which of the following?

a)

Increased growth of food crops due to increasing amounts of ultraviolet radiation

b)

Extended grazing season for cattle

c)

Disruption of photosynthesis in plants

d)

Increased movement of the human population toward equatorial regions

e)

A higher percentage of cloudless days

48.

The annual fluctuation in carbon dioxide concentration can best be explained by the

a)

seasonal use of fossil fuels

b)

regularity of volcanic activity

c)

deforestation in the tropics

d)

El Nino events

e)

seasonal photosynthetic activity of green plants

49.

Global climate change occurs because increasing concentrations of greenhouse gasses in

a)

the troposphere absorb outgoing IR radiation

b)

the stratosphere absorb outgoing IR radiation

c)

the troposphere absorb incoming UV radiation

d)

the stratosphere absorb incoming UV radiation

e)

neither the troposphere nor the stratosphere absorb incoming UV radiation

50.

Of the following cities, which regularly experiences the worst levels of photochemical smog that is enhanced by thermal inversions?

a)

New York City, New York

b)

Los Angeles, California

c)

Portland, Oregon

d)

Atlanta, Georgia

e)

Philadelphia, Pennsylvania

51.

Waste from which of the following is an example of nonpoint source pollution?

a)

Overflow from a sewage treatment plant

b)

Outgassing from a municipal landfill

c)

Dumping at a food-processing plant

d)

Drainage from an abandoned mine

e)

Runoff from agricultural fields

52.

Of the following, which constitutes the greatest percent of domestic use of water in the United States?

a)

Flushing toilets

b)

Drinking

c)

Cooking

d)

Washing dishes

e)

Washing clothes

53.

Of the following, which is the best example of a point source of water pollution?

a)

Factory effluent

b)

Storm water

c)

Acid precipitation

d)

Agricultural runoff

e)

Residential pesticide runoff

54.

Which of the following will result in accelerated eutrophication when introduced into streams, lakes and bays?

a)

Bacteria and viruses

b)

Pesticides

c)

Herbicides

d)

Phosphates

e)

Acid wastes and salts

55.

The graph above shows the effect of sewage on biological oxygen demand (BOD) and dissolved oxygen (DO) in a flowing stream. The smallest fish populations will most probably be found at point

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

56.

List the following steps of Water purification in the correct order

Step P: Water is passed through a screen to remove debris.

Step Q: Pathogenic organisms are killed by chlorination, UV, or ozone.

Step R: Suspended particles clump and settle out.

Step S: A flocking agent, such as alum, is added to the water.

a)

P, Q, R, S

b)

S, P, R, Q

c)

P, S, R, Q

d)

R, P, S, Q

e)

S, R, P, Q

57.

Which of the following is true of sewage treatment plants in the United States?

a)

They release wastewater before solids are removed from the sewage.

b)

They use stormwater runoff to assist in the treatment process.

c)

They are not designed to remove pharmaceutical chemicals from wastewater.

d)

They have largely eliminated cultural eutrophication in Chesapeake Bay.

e)

They release wastewater that is not regulated by the Clean Water Act.

58.

Which method introduces microorganisms to break down hazardous organic compounds?

a)

Sanitary landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Discharge to sewers, streams, and rivers

d)

Chemical treatment

e)

Biological treatment

59.

Which method would be best suited for neutralizing the acidic components of waste?

a)

Sanitary landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Discharge to sewers, streams, and rivers

d)

Chemical treatment

e)

Biological treatment

60.

Which one requires minimum safety standards for community water supplies.

a)

Safe Drinking Water Act

b)

Clean Water Act

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act

d)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

e)

Toxic Substances Control Act

61.

Mandates the restoration and maintenance of the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the nation’s waters

a)

Safe Drinking Water Act

b)

Clean Water Act

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act

d)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

e)

Toxic Substances Control Act

62.

Evidence of biodiversity is seen in

a)

genetic variation among human populations.

b)

number of species in a region.

c)

number of ecosystems and habitats in a region.

d)

genetic variation among plants and animals in a region.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

63.

Which is NOT a non-renewable resources?

a)

aluminum

b)

oil

c)

timber

d)

copper

e)

coal

64.

Which is an example of a sustainable practice?

I. Replanting a logged forest

II. Developing substitutes for nonrenewable resources

III. Banning the use of all fossil fuels without a planned transition to an alternative

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

65.

An ecological footprint considers

a)

per capita resource use of a nation.

b)

how much an individual consumes in terms of land area.

c)

average yearly consumption of resources.

d)

resources that an entire nation consumes in and average year.

e)

the ratio of resources consumed in developed nations to less developed nations.

66.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


The treatments planted with only wheat are the

a)

sample size.

b)

control.

c)

environmental variable.

d)

null hypothesis.

e)

replication.

67.

The study of environmental science differs from study of other natural sciences because it

a)

doesn’t use experiments.

b)

does not require any mathematical calculations.

c)

also includes politics, law, and economics.

d)

does not require an understanding of biology.

e)

uses the scientific process.

68.

Which pair of biogeochemical cycles are most associated with inorganic fertilizer and sewage waste?

a)

Carbon and Nitrogen cycles

b)

Carbon and Sulfur cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

69.

In which biogeochemical cycles are humans most affecting the natural greenhouse affect?

a)

Carbon, Nitrogen, and Water cycles

b)

Carbon and Phosphorous cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

70.

Which biogeochemical cycles are directly related to acid deposition?

a)

Carbon and Nitrogen cycles

b)

Carbon and Sulfur cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Carbon, Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

71.

A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kilograms C/m^2/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kilograms C/m^2/year. What is the NPP?

a)

6.2 kg C/m^2/year

b)

1.4 kg C/m^2/year

c)

1.0 kg C/m^2/year

d)

9.12 kg C/m^2/year

e)

1.58 kg C/m^2/year

72.

According to the law of conservation of matter,

I. matter can be created

II. matter can not be destroyed

III. after a chemical reaction, the original atoms remain

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

73.

Water is a good solvent. This statement explains which of the following phenomena:

I. High concentrations of dissolved ions in seawater

II. Capacity of living organisms to store many types of molecules in solution in their cells

III. Easy transport of toxic substances through the environment

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

I, II, III

74.

Most energy on Earth comes from

a)

volcanoes

b)

the sun

c)

trees

d)

water

e)

fire

75.

The difference between potential and kinetic energy is that

a)

kinetic energy can not be captured at a dam

b)

potential energy is measured in watts, whereas kinetic energy is measured in joules

c)

potential energy has not yet been released

d)

potential energy is measured in calories, whereas kinetic energy is measured in joules

e)

kinetic energy has not yet been released

76.

Greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere

a)

are in steady state

b)

are decreasing

c)

are increasing

d)

can not be measured

77.

A positive feedback loop

a)

is when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

b)

is when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

may be seen in some examples of population growth

d)

both a and c

78.

Extinctions of species can be the result of

a)

natural systems changing

b)

introduction of invasive species

c)

systems that are not in steady state

d)

human inputs

e)

All of these are correct

79.

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

a)

sunlight

b)

pH

c)

water temperature

d)

bacteria

e)

soil texture

80.

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem

a)

Herbivores --> producers --> carnivores --> scavengers

b)

Producers --> herbivores--> carnivores --> scavengers

c)

Producers --> carnivores --> herbivores--> carnivores

d)

Scavengers--> carnivores --> herbivores--> producers

81.
The geological layer, consisting of underground caverns and porous layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock, where groundwater flows, is called
a)
The zone of saturation
b)
Recharge point
c)
Aquifer
d)
bedrock
82.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
83.
Reverse osmosis is a process in which:
a)
Cells release water into the surrounding fluids.
b)
salt water is forced through a membrane to remove particulates. 
c)
solid wastes are removed from septic systems.
d)
storm water runoff is diverted into natural water sources.
84.
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sources of groundwater contamination?
a)
Industry
b)
Agriculture
c)
Mining
d)
Lawn fertilizers
85.

The 3 main anthropogenic sources of gaseous air pollutants in the US are

a)

soil erosion, volcanoes, and forest fires

b)

transportation, soil erosion, and energy production

c)

industry, transportation, and energy production

d)

industry, transportation and agriculture

86.
What three components have to be present to create photochemical smog?
a)
VOCS, PANS, Carbon Dioxide
b)
VOCS, Ozone, Nitrogen Monoxide
c)
Nitrogen Dioxide, Sunlight, and VOCS
d)
Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Dioxide, and Ozone
87.

Uranium 238 decays to make this carcinogenic gas found in the bedrock

a)

Asbestos

b)

Radon

c)

Lead

d)

Thalidomide

88.
The largest component of municipal solid waste in the US is:
a)
Paper
b)
Plastic
c)
Yard Trimmings
d)
Metal
89.

Endocrine disruptors cause the following impacts to organisms

a)

increased respiratory rate

b)

damage to the cardiovascular system

c)

increased size of individual organisms

d)

birth defects and cancer

90.
Which of the following is NOT used as a tertiary treatment to sanitize wastewater?
a)
Chlorine
b)
Ozone
c)
UV light
d)
CFC
91.
DDT is a POP (Persistent Organic Pesticide) that can act as an endocrine disruptor.  Which would it have the greatest effect on?
a)
Producers
b)
Primary Consumers
c)
Secondary Consumers
d)
Autotrophs
92.

Aquatic ecosystem that serves as a nursery for many species and suffers from pollution from city harbors like the Chesapeake Bay

a)

estuaries

b)

coral reefs

c)

open ocean

d)

wetlands

93.

Presence of fecal coliform bacteria suggests that

a)

a factory polluted the river

b)

a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the waste water

c)

the water is safe for drinking

d)

untreated animal waste contaminated the water

94.

Which water quality test will best determine the disruption of photosynthesis caused by cloudy water conditions from sedimentation?

a)

Temperature

b)

Salinity

c)

Dissolved oxygen

d)

pH

e)

Turbidity

95.

The process of human activities in urban or agricultural areas that load nutrients into surface bodies of water is known as

a)

artificial fertilization

b)

cultural eutrophication

c)

thermal pollution

d)

lake stratification

e)

synthetic primary productivity

96.

Which of the following is a point-source pollutant?

a)

Sediment loading from erosion

b)

Runoff of pesticides from croplands

c)

Animal wastes from feedlots

d)

Fertilizer runoff from urban areas

e)

A sewage treatment plant effluent pipe