wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology Exam 2021

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before a cell can proceed to mitosis from the gap 2 stage of the cell cycle, it must

a)

double in size

b)

complete a full cell cycle

c)

undergo cytokinesis

d)

pass a critical checkpoint

2.

During interphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and

a)

copies DNA

b)

divides the nucleus

c)

divides the cytoplasm

d)

produces a new cell

3.

Which statement best describes the chromosome shown in Figure 5.2?

a)

it is made up of two histones

b)

it is made up of two chromatids

c)

it is made up of two centromeres

d)

it is made up of two telomeres

4.

In a single-celled organism, mitosis is used for

a)

development

b)

reproduction

c)

growth

d)

repair

5.

Which organism is capable of reproduction through asexual reproduction?

a)

horse

b)

oak tree

c)

bacterium

d)

starfish

6.

Which of the following cell types is diploid?

a)

ovum

b)

sex cell

c)

somatic cell

d)

gamete

7.

A distinguishing characteristic that can be inherited is a(n)

a)

cross

b)

allele

c)

gene

d)

trait

8.

Which law states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate one copy to each of their offspring?

a)

law of genetic linkage

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

law of inheritance

9.

Which event takes place during anaphase II of meiosis II?

a)

nuclear membrane breaks down

b)

spindle fibers disassemble

c)

sister chromatids separate

d)

cytoplasm divides

10.

All of the genetic material that makes up an organism is its

a)

genome

b)

gamete

c)

phenotype

d)

testcross

11.

Mendel's second law, the law of independent assortment, is one explanation of the

a)

random fertilization of gametes

b)

genetic variation within species

c)

greater strength of dominant alleles

d)

final stages of gametogenesis

12.

The fusion of haploid gametes is called

a)

gametogenesis

b)

fertilization

c)

re-assortment

d)

meiosis

13.

In Mendel's monohybrid cross of a purebred white-flowered plant and a purebred purple-flowered, the F generation

a)

showed only the dominant trait

b)

showed only the recessive trait

c)

did not receive any recessive alleles

d)

remained purebred

14.

What does DNA polymerase do during replication?

a)

binds nucleotides together and corrects base pair errors

b)

transmits messages that are translated into proteins

c)

attracts amino acids to the ribosomes for assembly

d)

recognizes and points out new origins or replication

15.

When does replication occur?

a)

once in every cell cycle

b)

when nucleotides float in the nucleus

c)

during the cell's M phase

d)

when tRNA unzips DNA

16.

Crick's central dogma of molecular biology is essentially a summary of

a)

base pairing rules for all nucleotides

b)

genetic code stored in all start codons

c)

amino acid relationships to ribosomes

d)

replication, transcription, and translation

17.

How many amino acids are coded for in the following sequence of mRNA nucleotides? Assume the reading frame begins with the first nucleotide.

CGAUACAGUAGC

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

12

18.

When does mRNA processing take place?

a)

after replication

b)

after translation

c)

after transcription

d)

after protein synthesis

19.

What is the term for sections of messenger RNA that are spliced together during processing?

a)

operators

b)

promotors

c)

introns

d)

exons

20.

All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area are called a

a)

variation

b)

fossil

c)

population

d)

group

21.

What observations did Charles Darwin make about finches in the Galapagos Islands?

a)

the same species of finches lived on all the islands

b)

different species of finches lived on different islands

c)

various species of finches lived on just one of the islands

d)

identical species of finches lived in South America

22.

What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?

a)

natural selection

b)

inheritance of acquired characteristics

c)

artificial selection

d)

descent without modification

23.

Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce

a)

fewer mutations

b)

more offspring

c)

stronger genes

d)

better traits

24.

Which theory ties the fields of biology and geology together?

a)

evolution

b)

uniformitarianism

c)

catastrophism

d)

gradualism

25.

An increase in genetic variation is one advantage of

a)

rapid adaptation

b)

prokaryote photosynthesis

c)

endosymbiotic interaction

d)

sexual reproduction

26.

What primate group includes both gorillas and humans?

a)

prosimians

b)

hominids

c)

hominoids

d)

anthropoids

27.

Which phrase best describes biodiversity?

a)

the number of individuals in an ecosystem

b)

the amount of biomass in an ecosystem

c)

the amount of available energy in an ecosystem

d)

the number of species in an ecosystem

28.

Organisms that feed on dead or decaying matter are called

a)

herbivores

b)

carnivores

c)

omnivores

d)

detritivores

29.

Which process is part of the hydrologic cycle?

a)

nitrification

b)

evaporation

c)

decomposition

d)

ammonification

30.

Which model shows the number of organisms at each trophic level in an ecosystem?

a)

biomass pyramid

b)

food web

c)

pyramid of numbers

d)

food chain

31.

A major regional or global community or organisms is called

a)

an ecosystem

b)

a biome

c)

a species

d)

a population

32.

Which two processes in the carbon cycle are also parts of the oxygen cycle?

a)

combustion and respiration

b)

photosynthesis and decay

c)

combustion and decay

d)

photosynthesis and respiration

33.

Which of the following parts in Figure 13.2 are biotic factors?

a)

soil, mushroom, tree

b)

soil, sunlight, river

c)

deer, mushroom, tree

d)

sunlight, river, deer

34.

Organisms are named and classified based on physical characteristics in

a)

evolutionary trees

b)

Linnaean taxonomy

c)

cladograms

d)

molecular clocks

35.

Which of the following is the most abundant group of organisms on Earth?

a)

protista

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

archaea

36.

In the Linnaean system of classification, which of the following is most commonly defined as a group of organisms that can breed and produce offspring?

a)

phylum

b)

species

c)

genus

d)

order

37.

In the blank cladogram in Figure 17.1, what type of information would go on the lines labeled A?

a)

clades

b)

outgroupings

c)

common ancestors

d)

derived characters

38.

How many domains are there in the most current tree of life?

a)

six

b)

five

c)

three

d)

two

39.

The modern classification system is mainly based on

a)

mutation rates

b)

common ancestry

c)

physical similarities

d)

binomial nomenclature

40.

Carl Woese divided the kingdom Monera into the kingdoms Bacteria and

a)

Plantae

b)

Fungi

c)

Protista

d)

Archaea

41.

Which of the following types of evidence is considered the most accurate in classifying organisms, according to the majority of scientists?

a)

anatomical

b)

Linnaean

c)

physiological

d)

molecular

42.

Prokaryotes reproduce by

a)

binary fission

b)

fermentation

c)

reverse transcription

d)

endocytosis

43.

The first true plants were probably most similar to modern

a)

ferns

b)

conifers

c)

mosses

d)

flowering plants

44.

Phyla of animals are defined by

a)

whether they are used for food and energy

b)

sexual or asexual mode of reproduction

c)

structural and functional characteristics

d)

colors, behaviors, and movement patterns

45.

Which animal is vertebrate?

a)

spider

b)

octopus

c)

snail

d)

lizard

46.

What are the four phases of mitosis and meiosis respectively?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

telophase, anaphase, prophase, metaphase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase

47.

Carl Linnaeus developed the two word system to name organisms known as

a)

genus

b)

binomial nomenclature

c)

species

d)

kingdom

48.

The first word of a scientific name is the ____ name and the second word is the ____ name.

a)

phylum, group

b)

class, order

c)

family, genus

d)

genus, species

49.

There are seven taxa in Linnaeus' system. Which of the following lists them in order from smallest to largest?

a)

kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b)

genus, order, family, class, phylum, kingdom, species

c)

species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom

d)

class, species, kingdom, phylum, family, order, genus

50.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four bases found only in DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

51.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four bases found only in RNA?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

cytosine

d)

thymine

52.

Humans have __ chromosomes in every somatic cell. This is known as the ____ number and is abbreviated by 2N.

a)

46, diploid

b)

23, haploid

c)

46, haploid

d)

23, diploid

53.

Humans have __ chromosomes in their sex cells. This is known as the ____ number and is abbreviated by N.

a)

46, diploid

b)

23, haploid

c)

46, haploid

d)

23, diploid

54.

Another name for sex cells is

a)

somatic cells

b)

gamete

c)

embryo

d)

zygote

55.

During meiosis, when these pairs don't separate properly, genetic disorders can occur. The failure to separate is known as

a)

homologous

b)

crossing over

c)

independent assortment

d)

nondisjunction

56.

If you cross a red flower and a white flower all the offspring are pink. This is an example of

a)

recessive

b)

codominance

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

crossing over

57.

Blood type is an example of

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

crossing over

58.

What type of evolution occurs when two unrelated species have similar form?

a)

analogous

b)

convergent

c)

homologous

d)

fossils

59.

Using the cladogram provided, answer the following question. The ancestor of all the other organisms is letter

a)

D

b)

A

c)

F

d)

B

60.

Using the cladogram provided, answer the following question. The two closest related organisms are

a)

C and F

b)

C and D

c)

D and E

d)

E and F