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Dr.NC Mock Test 1

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the mathematical relationships between the number of chromosomes and the number of homologous pairs?

a)

there is no mathematical relationship between the number of chromosomes and the number of homologous pairs

b)

the number of chromosomes is related directly to the age of the organism, so the number of homologous pairs changes

c)

there in only one chromosome in each homologous pair

d)

there are one half as many homologous pairs as there are chromosomes

2.

Hydra reproduce through ___________________, where the offspring grows from the body of the parent organism.

a)

budding

b)

DNA

c)

thymine

d)

mutations

3.

If fission takes place every 20 minutes in some bacteria, then starting with one bacterial cell, how many bacterial cells would be produced in the span of 4 hours?

a)

512

b)

360

c)

1024

d)

4096

4.

A sea star has one of its arms break off. That arm grows into its own separate organism through ____________________.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

regeneration

c)

spindle fibers

d)

chromosomes

5.

Which animals have developed capacity of regeneration ?

a)

Hydra, Starfish

b)

Plasmodium

c)

Earthworm

d)

Spongilla

6.

Bryophyllum daigremontianum reproduces by

a)

Vegetative propagation

b)

Budding

c)

Fission

d)

Fragmentation

7.

PARTHENOGENESIS OCCURS IN

a)

ROTIFERS

b)

HONEY BEES

c)

TURKEY

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

8.

IF THE NUMBER OF CHROMOSOME IN POTATO LEAF IS 48 THEN WHAT WILL BE THE NUMBER OF CHROMOSOME IN ZYGOTE,GAMETE AND ENDOSPERM RESPECTIVELY?

a)

24,24,72

b)

48,24,72

c)

24,48,72

d)

72,48,24

9.

Where are spermatozoa stored while they are maturing?

a)

In the prostate

b)

In the epidymis

c)

In the testes

d)

In the seminal vesicle

10.

Where is the genetic material (DNA) located in the spermatozoa?

a)

In the head

b)

In the tail

c)

In the middle piece

11.

The ovarian cycle lasts about

a)

14 days

b)

28 days

c)

one week

d)

2 days

12.

Which hormone stimulates follicle growth?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Oestrogen

13.

Which hormones cause the endometrium to grow?

a)

LH and progesterone

b)

FSH and LH

c)

Oestrogens and progesterone

14.

The diagram shows the changes in the thickness of the uterus lining of a woman during her menstrual cycle.


At which time is the woman most likely to be fertile?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

What are the functions of LH and FSH in the menstrual cycle?

a)

LH- causes ovulation,

FSH- causes menstruation

b)

LH- causes ovulation,

FSH- stimulates an egg to mature in an ovary

c)

LH- stimulates an egg to mature in an ovary, FSH -causes menstruation

d)

LH- stimulates an egg to mature in an ovary, FSH -causes ovulation

16.

After sexual intercourse, sperm can survive for 3 days in the uterus and oviducts.


Ovulation can occur any time from day 13 to day 15 and an egg cell can live for 2 days after ovulation.


How long is the longest possible fertile phase of the menstrual cycle?

a)

2 days

b)

3 days

c)

5 days

d)

7 days

17.

What hormones do ovaries make?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Oestrogen and Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH

18.

On what day of the cycle is ovulation?

a)

Day 14

b)

Day 7

c)

Day 1

d)

Day 28

19.

What is the role of FSH

(follicle-stimulating hormone)?

a)

Causes an egg to mature in an ovary. Stimulates the ovaries to release oestrogen

b)

Stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH.

c)

Triggers ovulation (the release of a mature egg)

d)

Maintains the lining of the uterus during the middle part of the menstrual cycle and during pregnancy.

20.

What is the role of Oestrogen?

a)

Stops FSH being produced (so that only one egg matures in a cycle). Repairs, thickens and maintains the uterus lining. Stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH.

b)

Causes an egg to mature in an ovary. Stimulates the ovaries to release oestrogen.

c)

Maintains the lining of the uterus during the middle part of the menstrual cycle and during pregnancy.

d)

Triggers ovulation (the release of a mature egg)

21.

What is the role of LH

(luteinising hormone)?

a)

Triggers ovulation (the release of a mature egg)

b)

Causes an egg to mature in an ovary. Stimulates the ovaries to release oestrogen

c)

Stops FSH being produced (so that only one egg matures in a cycle). Repairs, thickens and maintains the uterus lining. Stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH.

d)

Maintains the lining of the uterus during the middle part of the menstrual cycle and during pregnancy.

22.

What is the role of Progesterone?

a)

Maintains the lining of the uterus during the middle part of the menstrual cycle and during pregnancy.

b)

Causes an egg to mature in an ovary. Stimulates the ovaries to release oestrogen.

c)

Stops FSH being produced (so that only one egg matures in a cycle). Repairs, thickens and maintains the uterus lining. Stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH.

d)

Triggers ovulation (the release of a mature egg).

23.

What do oestrogen and progesterone do in the menstrual cycle?

a)

They are involved in maintaining the uterus lining

b)

They stimulate the release of the egg

c)

They are involved in egg maturation in the ovaries

24.

What hormone(s) is responsible for thickening the lining of the uterus (endometrium)?

a)

estrogen

b)

progesterone

c)

FSH & LH

d)

LH only

25.

The hormone that stimulates the release of the egg.

a)

Luteinising hormone

b)

Oestrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

Follicle stimulating hormone

26.

oxytocin receptor formed during end of pregnancy induced by

a)

low level progesterone

b)

high level progesterone

c)

low level estrogen

d)

high level estrogen

27.

Which of the following structures is formed from ectodermal tissues?

a)

brain

b)

muscle

c)

testis

d)

small intestine

28.

formation of three germ layers during embryo known as

a)

gastrulation

b)

organogenesis

c)

cleavage

d)

fertilization

29.

The hormone that induces labor and controls labor via a positive feedback mechanism is __________.

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

oxytocin

d)

hCG

30.

Which hormone is the basis for pregnancy test?

a)

hCG

b)

estrogen

c)

LH

d)

FSh

31.

Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle

a)

at the mind secretory phase

b)

just before the end of the secretory phase

c)

at the beginning of the proliferative phase

d)

at the end of the proliferative phase.

32.

The immature male germ cell undergo division to produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to above.

a)

Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division.

b)

Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division.

c)

Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division.

d)

Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids.

33.
The female equivalent of glans of the penis is the
a)
vestibule
b)
hymen
c)
baculum
d)
clitoris
34.

Bulbourethral glands are situated –

a)

On either side of vagina in humans

b)

On either side of vas deferens in humans

c)

On either side of membranous urethra in humans

d)

Absent in humans

35.

The fluid that provides energy for the sperm cells comes from the ________.

a)

urethra

b)

bulbourethral glands

c)

prostate gland

d)

seminal vesicles

36.

Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by :

A. Male germ cells

B. Interstitial cells

C. Leydig cells

D. Sertoli cells

a)

A, B

b)

A, B, C

c)

A, D

d)

A, B, C, D

37.

which of the following is hormone releasing IUD

a)

cervical cap

b)

Vault

c)

multiload 375

d)

LNG 20

38.

Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below:

i. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester

ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method

iii. MTPs are always surgical

iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel

a)

ii and iii

b)

ii and iii

c)

i and iv

d)

i and ii

39.

Assertion: There is a statutory ban amniocentesis on sex determination in India.

Reason: Amniocentesis is used to determine sex of foetus for female foeticide.

a)

Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

b)

Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect

c)

Both assertion and reason are incorrect

d)

Both assertion and reason are correct

40.

Statement I: Infection or diseases transmitted through sexual intercourse are called sexually transmitted disease or venereal disease.

Statement II: Tuberculosis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by bacteria.

Statement III: Hepatitis B is transmitted by use of contaminated water.

a)

Only statement I is correct

b)

All statements are wrong

c)

Statement II and III are correct

d)

Both statement I and II are correct

41.

sex determination in humans is

a)

male XX and female XY

b)

male XY and female XX

c)

female X0 and male XX

42.

HCG , HPL , relaxin etc.. are ............

a)

pitiutary hormones

b)

placental hormones

c)

ovarian hormones

43.

____________ develop into pollensacs

a)

MIcrosporangia

b)

microsporophyll

c)

microgametocyte

d)

microspores

44.

the correct sequence of wall layers in a typical anther is

a)

endothecium, epidermis, middle layer, tapetum

b)

Epidermis , Middle layer, Endothecium, Tapetum

c)

Epidermis, Endothecium, middle layers, Tapetum

d)

Endothecium, Tapetum, Middle layer, Epidermis

45.

cells of sporogenous tissue under go which division to form microspore tetrad

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

amitosis

d)

cleavage

46.

size of pollen is approx _________ micrometers in diameter

a)

25-30

b)

25-50

c)

25-100

d)

25-45

47.

The outermost layer of pollengrain is made up of a resistant substance called

a)

sporogenous tissue

b)

calcium pectate

c)

sporopollenin

d)

pollinium

48.

intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and is made up of

a)

cellulose and pectin

b)

Calcium and pectin

c)

Hemicellulose and cellulose

d)

Hemicellulose and pectin

49.

in what % of species pollengrains are shed in 2 celled stage

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

50.

--------------is the cause of pollen allergy

a)

chenopodium

b)

amaranthus

c)

wild oats

d)

parthenium

51.

Pollens are stored in liquid nitrogen at a temperature

a)

-196 degree celcius

b)

-200 degree celcius

c)

-197 degree celcius

d)

-192 degree celcius

52.

Pollen deposits of another flower of same individual plant is called

a)

Geitonogamy

b)

Xenogamy

c)

Homogamy

d)

Cleistogamy

53.

A dioecious flowering plant prevents both

a)

Autogamy and Xenogamy

b)

Xenogamy and Geitonogamy

c)

Autogamy and Geitonogamy

d)

Cleistogamy and Xenogamy

54.

The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is

a)

Perisperm

b)

Pericarp

c)

Cotyledon

d)

Endosperm

55.

Attractants and rewards are required for

a)

Anemophily

b)

Entomophily

c)

Hydrophily

d)

Cleistogamy

56.

How many microspore mother cells are required to produce 1000 microspores/pollen grains?

a)

100

b)

150

c)

200

d)

250

57.

In a breeding experiment, the selected male parent is diploid and the female parent is tetraploid. What will be the ploidy level of the endosperm that will develop after double fertilisation?

a)

Diploid

b)

Triploid

c)

Tetraploid

d)

Pentaploid

58.

The number of meiotic divisions, required to produce 400 seeds in a pea plant, is

a)

100

b)

200

c)

400

d)

500

59.

A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause for the above situation is

a)

plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers.

b)

plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers.

c)

plant is monoecious.

d)

plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.

60.

What is the function of micropyle?

a)

Protects the seed

b)

Stores the food for germination

c)

Grows and develops into roots

d)

Allows air and water to enter the seed

61.

The process of formation of embryo without fertilization is known as

a)

(a) polyembryony

b)

(b) apomixis

c)

(c) amphimixis

d)

(d) vivipary

62.

The product of double fertilization is.

a)

(a) endosperm

b)

(b) embryo sac

c)

(c) nucellus

d)

(d) synergids

63.
Wind pollination is common in
a)
Orchids
b)
Legumes
c)
Lilies
d)
Grasses
64.
What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?
a)
21
b)
42
c)
63
d)
84
65.
In an angiosperm, male plant is diploid and female plant hexaploidy, endosperm will be
a)
2n
b)
3n
c)
6n
d)
7n
66.

The water of tender coconut is:

a)

Cellular endosperm

b)

Helobial endosperm

c)

Combination of cellular and helobial endosperm

d)

Free nuclear endosperm

67.

Which of the following is false about external fertilization?

a)

Organisms showing external fertilization exhibit great synchrony between the sexes and release gametes

b)

Gametes are produced in large number in water to enhance the chances of fertilization

c)

A large number of gametes are wasted

d)

A major advantage is that the offsprings are protected from predators and there is a great chance of their survival upto adult hood.

68.

Internal fertilization occurs in –

a)

Many fungi

b)

Reptiles; mammals

c)

Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms, angiosperms

d)

All

69.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

Asexual reproduction is an elaborate, complex and slow process as compared to sexual reproduction

b)

Cockroach is bisexual

c)

Strobilanthus kunthiana (neelakuranji) flowers every year in June

d)

Date palm and Papaya are dioecious plant

70.

Find out correct order of vegetative propagules of plants like Potato, Ginger, Agave, Bryophyllum and Water Hyacinth

a)

Offset, bulbil, leaf bud, rhizome and eyes

b)

Rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud, eyes and offset

c)

Eyes, rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud and offset

d)

Leaf bud, bulbil, offset, rhizome and eyes

71.

Which of the following is correct?

I. The period of growth between the birth of an individual upto reproductive maturity is called Juvenile phase.

II. The type of parthenogenesis in which parthenogenetic egg may develop into individual of any sex is amphytoky.

III. No individual is immortal except single celled organisms.

IV. Mango tree has a much shorter life span as compared to a peepal tree.

a)

I, II and IV

b)

II and III

c)

I, III and IV

d)

All

72.

___________ tissue is responsible for producing pollen grains in microsporangia.

a)

Endothecium

b)

Tapetum

c)

Epidermis

d)

Sporogenous

73.

Coleorrhiza protects

a)

Plumule

b)

Radicle

c)

Epicotyl

d)

Hypocotyl

74.

Residual and Persistant Nucellus is called

a)

Endosperm

b)

Perisperm

c)

Pericarp

d)

Endocarp

75.

Which of the following statements about fruit is false?

a)

Apple and strawberry are false fruits

b)

Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless

c)

True fruit develops from ovule after fertilisation

d)

In some cases thalamus also develops into fruit.

76.

Uterine cycle consist of 3 phases. Which one is correct order of sequence?

a)

Proliferative > Menstrual flow > Secretory

b)

Menstrual flow > Secretory > Proliferative

c)

Secretory > Proliferative > Menstrual flow

d)

Menstrual flow > Proliferative > Secretory

77.
This contrceptive method prevents ovulation
a)
Barrier
b)
Hormonal
c)
Natural
d)
Surgical
78.
This contraceptive method is permanent.
a)
Barrier
b)
Hormonal
c)
Natural
d)
Tubal Ligation
79.
Least effective contraceptive method.
a)
Barrier
b)
Hormonal
c)
Withdrawl
d)
Surgical
80.
Pregnancy that happens OUTSIDE THE UTERUS
a)
Eritema
b)
Ectopic
c)
Exohisteric
d)
Ovarina
81.
This method of birth control has an 82% effective rate.
a)
Female Condom
b)
Condom
c)
Diamphram
d)
Sponge
82.
The birth control pill does all the following except?
a)
Prevent Ovulation
b)
Thins out the uterine lining causing lighter periods.
c)
Decreases the risk of certain STD's
d)
Thickens the mucous membranes of the cervix making it harder for sperm to reach the Fallopian tubes.
83.
10.  Oestrogen can be used in contraceptive pills because it
a)
inhibits the production of FSH therefore no ovum develops in the ovary
b)
inhibits the production of LH allowing ovulation but not fertilization to occur
c)
stimulates the production of FSH reducing the development of the endometrium
d)
a)  stimulates the production of LH therefore stopping ovulation
84.
Some couples select an intra-uterine device (IUD) as a contraceptive.  An IUD prevents
a)
ovulation
b)
fertilisation
c)
implantation
d)
conception
85.
Which of the following lists of contraceptives contains only barrier methods
a)
diaphragm, male condom, spermicide
b)
diaphragm, female condom, IUD
c)
implants, female condom, male condom
d)
female condom, male condom, diaphragm
86.
The combined female oral contraceptive pill is similar in its action to the hormone(s)
a)
oestrogen and progesterone
b)
follicle stimulating hormone
c)
oestrogen
d)
follicle stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone.  
87.
Of the following birth control methods, which also provides protection against STIs?  
i.  Condoms
ii.  Spermicide
iii.  Abstinence
iv.  Intra Uterine Devices
a)
i only
b)
i, ii, and iii only
c)
All of the above
d)
i and iii only
88.
Vasectomy is a preferred method of contraception for some couples.  The result of this procedure will result in the male producing
a)
no semen
b)
no sperm
c)
semen containing no sperm
d)
semen containing no seminal fluid
89.
Contraception can either be classed as hormonal, chemical or physical barriers. Which of the following correctly lists one of each method respectively
a)
Pill, Mini pill, diaphragm
b)
Pill, Spermacide, Condom
c)
Implanon, IUD, Diaphragm
d)
Mini pill, Implanon, Condom
90.

Which of the following describes the main advantages of sexual reproduction?

a)

requires lots of time/energy

b)

no new gene combos can arise

c)

genetic diversity

d)

looks identical to the parent

91.

What is the correct name for a sex cell?

a)

The noise

b)

Gamete

c)

Ovary

d)

Sperm

92.

which of the following point defects are shown by AgBr(s) Crystals?

a)

Schottky and impurity

b)

Frenkel and schottky

c)

Frenkel and impurity

d)

Non stoichiometric defect

93.

The percentage of empty space in a face centre cubic arrangement is

a)

74

b)

52

c)

68

d)

26

94.

The electrons are trapped in anionic vacancies in metal excess defect are called

a)

schottky defect

b)

Frenkel defect

c)

f-centre

d)

Impurity defect

95.

The Crystal having highest melting point is

a)

Ionic Crystal

b)

Covalent Crystal

c)

Molecular crystal

d)

Metallic Crystal

96.

The number of atoms per unit cell in simple, fcc and bcc unit cells are

a)

1, 4, 2

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

2, 1, 4

d)

2, 4, 1

97.

In 3D close packing the ABCABCABC.....pattern gives rise to which type of close packing?

a)

Hexagonal Close Packing (hcp)

b)

Cubic Close Packing (ccp)

c)

Face Centred Cubic Packing (fcc)

d)

Both ccp and fcc

98.

The packing efficiency in simple, fcc, bcc unit cells will be respectively

a)

74% 52.4% 68%

b)

52.4% 68% 74%

c)

68% 74% 52.4%

d)

52.4% 74% 68%

99.

The relationship between the atomic radius (r) and edge length (a) of a simple, fcc, bcc cubic unit cell will be respectively

a)

a2\frac{a}{2} 2a4\frac{\sqrt{2}a}{4} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4}

b)

a2\frac{a}{2} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4} 2a4\frac{\sqrt{2}a}{4}

c)

2a4\frac{\sqrt{2}a}{4} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4} a2\frac{a}{2}

d)

3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4} a2\frac{a}{2} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4}

100.

What type of material is this one?

a)

Crystal

b)

Amorphous

c)

Covalent Crystal

d)

Ionic Crystal

101.

Which of the following is an amorphous solid?

a)

Copper(Cu)

b)

Quartz glass (SiO2)

c)

Silicon carbide (SiC)

d)

Sodium Chloride (NaCl)

102.

Which of the following is a network solid or covalent crystalline solid?

a)

Diamond (C)

b)

H2O (Ice)

c)

Calcium Fluoride (CaF2)

d)

Iron Metal (Fe)

103.

A. Ionic solids are hard and brittle.

B. Covalent solids are good conductors.

a)

A and B are correct.

b)

A is correct

c)

B is correct

d)

Both A and B are wrong

104.

The type defect observed in ionic crystals which large difference in the size of ions is:

a)

Interstitial defect

b)

Frenkel defect

c)

Schottky Defect

d)

Stoichiometric Defect

105.

A mixed oxide has ccp arrangement in which the cations 'X' occupy 1/3rd of octahedral voids and the cations 'Y' occupy 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids.The formula of oxide is:

a)

X 2Y 3O 2

b)

XY 3O

c)

X 2YO 3

d)

XY 2O 3

106.

An element with molar mass 64 gmol -1 and density 6.6 g cm -3 forms a cubic unit cell.The edge length of unit cell is 4 x 10 -8cm.The type of cubic unit cell formed is ?

a)

fcc

b)

ccp

c)

bcc

d)

hcp

107.

A solid is made up of 2 elements P and Q. Atoms Q are in ccp arrangement,while P atoms occupy all the tetrahedral sites.The formula of the compound is:

a)

PQ 2

b)

P 6Q 4

c)

P 2Q

d)

PQ

108.

A compound is formed by two elements X and Y. Atoms of the element Y (as anions) make ccp and those of the element X (as cations) occupy all the octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :

a)

X 2Y

b)

X 4Y

c)

XY

d)

XY 2

109.

An element with molar mass 2.7 x 10 -2 kg mol -1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. If its density is 2.7 x 10 3 kg m -3,the nature of cubic unit cell is :

a)

hcp

b)

ccp

c)

bcc

d)

fcc

110.
Decreasing the particle size increases the reaction rate because
a)
It makes particles move faster
b)
It increases the likelihood of collisions with the correct geometry
c)
It decreases the surface area available to react
d)
It increases the number of collisions
111.

Given the following rate law,

rate = k[A]2[B]

if [A] were doubled, what must happen to [B] to keep the rate constant?

a)

[B] must quadruple

b)

[B] must double

c)

[B] must be havled

d)

[B] must be quartered

112.

Which of the following are true of reaction rates?


I. The overall rate law is determined by the fastest step of a reaction


II. The presence of a catalyst will increase the number of molecules entering the transition state


III. An increase in temperature will increase the rate of a reaction


IV. Increasing the concentration of reactants will increase the rate at which products yield

a)

II+III+IV

b)

I+IV

c)

II + III

d)

I+II+III

113.
What is the parameter to measure the rate or speed of a reaction beside time?
a)
Change in volume
b)
Change in consentration
c)
Change in pressure
d)
Change in temperature
114.
Which of the following is expressions represents correctly rate of following reaction?
X + Y → Z + Q     ΔH = +22kj/mol
a)
Rate = +Δ[X] / Δt
b)
Rate = +Δ[Y] / Δt
c)
Rate = +Δ[Z] / Δt
d)
Rate = -Δ[Q] / Δt
115.
A+B →C+D    ΔH = -202kj/mol
How can above reaction be classified in terms of energy exchange during chemical change? 
a)
Combination reaction
b)
Endothermic reaction
c)
Transthermal reaction
d)
Exothermic reaction
116.
To measure rate of reaction, either decreasing mass of solid reactant or increasing volume of gaseous products are used.
Which of the following reactions uses increasing volume of gaseous product method to measure the its rate?
a)
Reaction between iron metal and air
b)
Reaction between sodium hydroxide and nitric acid
c)
Reaction between  table salt and water
d)
Reaction between hydrochloric acid and aluminum metal
117.

What letter represents the activation energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

118.

Given the following rate law,

rate = k[A]2[B]

if [A] were doubled, what must happen to [B] to keep the rate constant?

a)

[B] must quadruple

b)

[B] must double

c)

[B] must be havled

d)

[B] must be quartered

119.

Which of the following best describes why increasing temperature increase reaction rate?

a)

Activation energy is reduced.

b)

Collisions become more frequent.

c)

Collisions become more energetic.

d)

Collisions become more frequent and more energetic.

120.

What is the parameter to measure the rate or speed of a reaction beside time?

a)

Change in volume

b)

Change in concentration

c)

Change in pressure

d)

Change in temperature

121.

Bronze is an alloy of __________

a)

Cu and Sn

b)

Cu and Zn

c)

Cu and Fe

d)

Fe and Ni

122.

An alloy prepared from Fe, Ni and Cr is known as __________

a)

Brass

b)

Bronze

c)

Stainless steel

d)

amalgam

123.

Which Metal prevents the rusting of iron?

a)

Cu

b)

Zn

c)

Al

d)

Ag

124.

Which solution is used to react with bauxite as a first step in obtaining pure aluminum oxide

a)

Conc. H2SO4 soln.

b)

Dil. NaOH soln.

c)

Conc. HCl

d)

Conc. NaOH soln.

125.

Electrolyte used in Hall Heroult's process

a)

CuSO4 soln.

b)

Mixture of fused alumina, cryolite and fluorspar

c)

Molten lead bromide

d)

Acidified water

126.
How many grams of K2Cr2O7, are soluble in 100 g of water at 95 ºC?
a)
83 grams
b)
75 grams
c)
40 grams
d)
12 grams
127.
Which solute is the most soluble at 10 ⁰C?
a)
KI
b)
KClO3
c)
NH4Cl
d)
NH3
128.
Which solute is the least soluble at 90 ⁰C?
a)
SO2
b)
KClO3
c)
KI
d)
HCl
129.

How do you know when you have a saturated solution?

a)

You don't see anymore material in the solution. It has dissolved.

b)

The material dissolves and no more will dissolve because you see it collect at the bottom.

c)

The solution is bubbling and cloudy.

d)

The solution is clear and there is nothing at the bottom.

130.

rate = k[A]

The rate constant in the rate law above is 0.5 L/mol·s. If the initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, how long will it take for [A] to drop to 0.025 M?

a)

0.7 s

b)

1.4 s

c)

2.8 s

d)

There is not enough information given.

131.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a crystalline solid?

a)

Definite and characteristic heat of fusion.

b)

Long range order or perfect arrangement of constituent particles

c)

Isotropic in nature

d)

clean cleavage or smooth edges on cutting with a knife

132.

Schottky defect is observed when

a)

unequal number of cations and anions is missing from the crystal lattice.

b)

equal number of cations and anions is missing from the crystal lattice.

c)

an ion leaves its normal site and occupy interstitial site.

d)

density of the crystal increases.

133.

Iron oxide crystallises in a hexagonal close-packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by iron ions. What is the formula of the iron oxide?

a)

FeO

b)

Fe2O3

c)

Fe3O4

d)

None of these

134.

A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q are at the corners of the cube and P at the body-centre. What is the formula of the compound?

a)

PQ

b)

P2Q

c)

PQ2

d)

PQ4

135.

Gold (atomic radius = 0.144 nm) crystallises in a face-centred unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell?

a)

0.607 nm

b)

0.407 nm

c)

6.07 nm

d)

4.07 nm

136.
How much work must we do on an electron to move it from point A, which is at a potential of +50V, to point B, which is at a potential of -50 V, along the semicircular path shown in the figure? Assume the system is isolated from outside forces. (e = 1.60 × 10-19 C)
a)
1.60 × 10-17 J
b)
-1.6 J
c)
1.6 J
d)
-1.60 × 10-17 J
137.

Electric potential due to a point charge –q at distance x from it is given by:

a)

Kq/x2

b)

Kq/x

c)

-Kq/x2

d)

-Kq/x

138.

A positive charge  +Q  is placed a distance  dd  from a negative charge  −Q-Q . Note these charges have the same magnitude but different sign. Which of the following is true about the electric field and the electric potential at a point midway between the two charges? 

a)

The electric field is zero and the electric potential is zero

b)

The electric field is not zero and the electric potential is zero

c)

The electric field is zero and the electric potential is not zero

d)

The electric field is not zero and the electric potential is not zero

139.

A positive charge  QQ  is placed very close to the positive plate of a parallel plate capacitor that produces an electric field  EE . Once released, the positive charge reaches the negative plate a distance  dd  away with a kinetic energy of

a)

 EdEd  

b)

 QEdQEd  

c)

 2Ed2Ed  

d)

 2QEd2QEd  

140.
The electric potential in a region of space is given by the function V=3x2 + 2y3. what is the x-component of the electric field in this area?
a)
6x
b)
-6x
c)
x3
d)
-x3
141.

Electrostatic potential energy is recorded in units of electron-Volts (eV). What is equivalent to 1 eV?

a)

1.602×10−19 𝐽

b)

100 𝐽

c)

220 𝐽

d)

0.003 𝐽

142.
A tiny sphere carrying a charge of 6.5 µC sits in an electric field, at a point where the electric potential is 240 V. What is the sphere’s potential energy?
a)
2.7 x 10-8 J 
b)
6.5 x 10-6 J 
c)
1.6 x 10-3 J
d)
240 J 
143.
What is the voltage across   the plates of the capacitor if  the capacitance is 10 uF and the Charge stored is  30 uC?
a)
0.333 V
b)
3 V
c)
300 V
144.
If the capacitance is 47μF, and the voltage difference across the capacitor terminals is 6V, then the energy stored in that capacitor is:
a)
846×10-6Joule
b)
7.23×10-3 Joule
c)
6.76×10-5Joule
d)
5.94×10-2Joule
145.

The air surrounding the sphere loses its insulating properties, causing a spark, when the electric field exceeds 20 kV cm-1. By reference to an atom in air, which of the following is not the mechanism by which the electric field causes the air to become conducting.

a)

Electric field causes forces on the electrons and the nucleus in atoms of air to move in opposite directions.

b)

The field causes electrons to be stripped off the atom.

c)

We say the air breaks down.

d)

The nucleus move in opposite direction to the field.

146.

A capacitor of capacitance 30μF is fully charged from a 10 V d.c. supply. Calculate the charged stored by the capacitor

a)

3.0 mC

b)

0.30 mC

c)

300 mC

d)

330 kC

147.
a)

2.0 μF

b)

2.9 μF

c)

14 μF

d)

26 μF

148.

The capacitance of a sphere is 50 pF. The sphere is charged to a potential of 9.0x105V. A spark occurs, partially discharging the sphere so that its potential is reduced to 3.6x105V. What is the energy of the spark?

a)

0.014 J

b)

14 J

c)

17J

d)

2.4x103J

149.

An isolated metal sphere has a radius r. When charged to a potential V, the charge on the sphere is q. The charge may be considered to act as a point charge at the centre of the sphere.


What is the capacitance of this isolated sphere?

a)

q4πϵor\frac{q}{4\pi\epsilon_or}

b)

4πϵor4\pi\epsilon_or

c)

14πϵor\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_or}

d)

Vqr

150.

A potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected to a driver cell of emf 3 V as shown in the figure. When a cell of 1×5 V emf is used in the secondary circuit, the balance point is found to be 60 cm. On replacing this cell and using a cell of unknown emf, the balance point shifts to 80 cm.Calculate unknown emf of the cell.

a)

1 V

b)

1.5 V

c)

3 V

d)

2 V

e)

2.2 V

151.

The following graph shows the variation of terminal potential difference V, across a combination of three cells in series to a resistor, versus the current. Calculate the emf and internal resistance of each cell

a)

E = 6 V & r = 3 ohm

b)

E = 2 V & r = 1 ohm

c)

E = 6 V & r = 1 ohm

d)

E = 2 V & r = 3 ohm

e)

E = 1 V & r = 1 ohm

152.

Calculate the balance point of the cell. Resistance of the potentiometer wire is 20 ohm and length of the wire is 400 cm.

a)

0.75 m

b)

7.5 cm

c)

25 cm

d)

200 cm

153.

How would the equivalent resistance be determined?

a)

1 / Req = (1/5) + (1/8) + (1/3) Ω

b)

120 Ω

c)

1.5189873 Ω

d)

1 / Req = (1/5) * (1/8) * (1/3) Ω

154.
Graph shows that _____________
a)
Resistance is directly proportional to Area
b)
Resistance is inversely proportional to Area
c)
Resistance is a constant while Area changes.
d)
Area is a constant while resistance changes.
155.

A 1.5 m length of wire has a cross-sectional area 5.0 × 10–8 m2. When the potential difference across its ends is 0.20 V, it carries a current of 0.40 A. The resistivity of the material from which the wire is made is

a)

6.0 × 107 Ω m

b)

1.7 × 10–8 Ω m

c)

1.1 × 106 Ω m

d)

9.4 × 10–7 Ω m

156.

For the graph shown in the figure, what physical quantity does the slope of the graph represent for ohmic material?


a)

power

b)

resistivity

c)

resistance

d)

1/(resistance)

157.

An electrical junction has three wires A, B and C connected to it. Wire A carries 4.2 A going in, wire B carries 2.6 A going out. What does wire C carry?

a)

1.6 A going in

b)

1.6 A going out

c)

6.8 A going in

d)

6.8 A going out

158.

What is the current through R1?

a)

10 A

b)

5 A

c)

7 A

d)

2 A

159.

Points P and Q are connected to a battery of fixed voltage. As more resistors R are added to the parallel circuit, what happens to the total current in the circuit?

a)

increases

b)

remains the same

c)

decreases

d)

drops to zero

160.
The total resistance of this circuit is 
a)
25.7 ohms
b)
315 ohms
c)
324 ohms
d)
90 ohms
161.

Two, point charges 𝑞1 = +5.00 𝑛𝐶 and 𝑞2 = − 3.00 𝑛𝐶 are separated by 35.0 cm.

What is the potential energy of the pair of charges?

a)

-3.85 X 10-7 J

b)

+3.85 X 10-7 J

c)

+1.29 x 102 J

d)

-7.71 x 101 J

162.

Three charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 2.00 𝑚𝑚 as shown below. Calculate the electric potential energy associated with this configuration.

a)

8.9 x 10-4 J

b)

4.5 x 10-4 J

c)

8.9 x 10-6 J

d)

2.7 x 10-4 J

163.

Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as shown below. If the voltage across the battery is 30V, then:

a) what is the total charge flowing through the circuit?

b) what is the charge flowing through the first capacitor on the left? (Think about the rules used in series and parallel circuits for charge)

a)

a) 200 Micro Coulombs

b) 200 Micro Coulombs

b)

a) 66.7 Micro Coulombs

b) 66.7 Micro Coulombs

c)

a) 200 Micro Coulombs

b) 66.7 Micro Coulombs

d)

a) 66.7 Micro Coulombs

b) 200 Micro Coulombs

164.

Three capacitors of capacitances 3μF, 9 μF and

18 μF are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of the net capacitances in series to that in parallel is _____.

a)

1:1

b)

1:3

c)

1:15

d)

3:1

e)

15:1

165.

Which of the following equations represent the current I in the circuit?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
166.

A battery has an emf ε = 43.0 V and an internal resistance r = 8.0 Ω, as shown in the figure. When the terminal voltage Vab is equal to 34.0 V, the current through the battery, including its direction, is closest to ___

a)

1.1 A, from b to a.

b)

4.2 A, from b to a.

c)

1.1 A, from a to b.

d)

4.2 A, from a to b.

167.

What is the equivalent resistance of the resistors in the figure shown above?

a)

7.5

b)

10

c)

16

d)

18

168.

What is the equivalent resistance for the resistors in the figure shown above?

a)

1.3 Ω1.3\ \Omega

b)

2.2 Ω2.2\ \Omega

c)

3.0 Ω3.0\ \Omega

d)

12.0 Ω12.0\ \Omega

169.

Three resistors connected in parallel have individual values of 4.0  Ω\Omega  , 6.0  Ω\Omega  , and 10.0  Ω\Omega  , as shown above. If this combination is connected in series with a 12.0 V battery and a 2.0  Ω\Omega   resistor, what is the current in the 10.0  Ω\Omega   resistor?

a)

0.58 A

b)

1.0 A

c)

11 A

d)

16 A

170.

In any complex resistance circuit, the voltage across any resistor in the circuit is always

a)

less than the voltage source.

b)

equal to or less than the voltage source.

c)

equal to the voltage source.

d)

greater than the voltage source.

171.

Two resistors with values of 6.0   \Omega and 12 \Omega are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series with a 2.0   \Omega resistor and a 24 V battery. What is the current in the 2.0 \Omega resistor?

a)

2.0 A

b)

4.0 A

c)

6.0 A

d)

12 A

172.
In a parallel circuit if one of the light bulbs burns out the rest _________.
a)
stop the flow of electricity
b)
 can still light up
c)
 will go out
d)
of the light bulbs burn out also
173.

The energy of a charged capacitor is given by the expression (q= charge on the conductor and C = its capacity)

a)

q22C\frac{q^2}{2C}

b)

q2C\frac{q^2}{C}

c)

q2C2\frac{q^{ }}{2C^2}

d)

2qC

174.

Two condensers of capacity 0.3  \mu  F and 0.6  \mu  F respectively are connected in series. The combination is connected across a potential of 6 Volts. The ratio of energies stored by the condensers will be

a)

1/2

b)

2

c)

1/4

d)

4

175.

Three equal capacitors, each with capacitance are connected as shown in figure. Then the equivalent capacitance between and is

a)

C

b)

C/3

c)

3C

d)

3C/2

176.

The resultant capacitance between and in the following figure is equal to

a)

1 μ\mu F

b)

3 \mu F

c)

2 \mu F

d)

1.5 \mu F

177.

A 5uF, a 10uF and a 20uF capacitor are connected in SERIES to a 6V battery. Calculate the total equivalent capacitance of the circuit?

a)

35uF

b)

0,35uF

c)

2,857uF

d)

0,0286uF

178.
A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a cell of constant emf. The plates are moved further apart without disconnecting the cell. What happens to the capacitance and voltage across the plates?
a)
capacitance increases; voltage remains constant
b)
capacitance remains constant; voltage decreases
c)
capacitance decreases; voltage increases
d)
capcitance decreases; voltage remains constant
179.

Each of the four capacitors shown is 500 microF. The voltmeter reads 1000V. The magnitude of the charge on each capacitor plate is:

a)

0.2 C

b)

0.5 C

c)

20 C

d)

50 C

180.
If a p.d of 5V is across the combination, what is the total energy stored by the combination?
a)
68.8J
b)
1.71x10-3J
c)
8.59x10-4J
d)
4.00x10-3J

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