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Unit 11 Test Review: Classification & Diversity of Life

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 15hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The scientific name for an organism is made from the:
a)
class and family name
b)
genus and species name
c)
domain and kingdom name
d)
kingdom and phylum name
2.
Term given to describe the 2 name naming system is:
a)
dichotmous key
b)
binomial nomenclature
c)
2 scientific names
d)
binomial key
3.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
4.
Who first proposed binomial nomenclature as a way of classifying organisms?
a)
Carolus Linnaeus
b)
Carl's Jr.
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Henry Groseclose
5.
What is the most specific level of classification?
a)
Family
b)
Domain
c)
Species
d)
Carolus Linnaeus
6.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
7.
A dichotomous key for insects is given. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Heteroptera
c)
Diptera
d)
Lepidoptera
8.
A student discovers an arachnid with a segmented abdomen, long legs, and a tail with no stinger. The student uses the dichotomous key below to identify it. Which arachnid has the student found?
a)
Whip Scorpion
b)
Wind Scorpion
c)
Daddy long legs
d)
Scorpion
9.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
10.
A labeled diagram of a fiddler crab is provided. Which of the following is an accurate observation of the structures of a fiddler crab? Fiddler crabs have -
a)
five pairs of walking legs on each side.
b)
an enlarged propodus on both front legs.
c)
a pair of eyes on stalks at the top of the body.
d)
two pairs or chelipeds for a total of four.
11.
What step do we always start with when using dichotomous keys?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
12.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
13.
The first part of a scientific name is an organism's _______________ and the second part is its ________________.
a)
species, genus
b)
phylum, order
c)
class, spices
d)
genus, species
14.
Tool used by a taxonomist to identify an unknown organism is a:
a)
dichotomous key
b)
binomial nmenclature
c)
scientific name
d)
binomial key
15.
In a dichotomous key, each question contains four choices.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
16.
Using this dichotomous key, identity the name of the circled fish.
a)
band-tail puffer
b)
spotted goat fish
c)
peacock flounder
d)
trumpet fish
17.
When using a dichotomous key to identify organisms, what do we look at?
a)
physical features
b)
weather patterns
c)
environment
d)
diet
18.
A dichotomous key for insects is given. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Heteroptera
c)
Diptera
d)
Lepidoptera
19.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
20.
What trait separates sharks from ray-finned fish?
a)
Vertebrae
b)
Bony skeleton
c)
Four limbs
d)
None
21.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
22.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
23.
Why do doctors suggest people get a flu vaccine every year?
a)
Flu viruses replicate more rapidly over time
b)
Flu viruses can mutate from year to year
c)
Vaccines are absorbed by the body after a year
d)
Vaccines get stronger over time
24.
Vaccines 
a)
Prevent people from coming in contact with viruses
b)
give the immune system a preview of the virus 
c)
Prevent all viral infections
d)
Only work on small children
25.
Viruses 
a)
have many cells
b)
are misfolded proteins
c)
are a protein coat around genetic material
d)
endospores
26.
Which of the following is one important difference between a virus and a bacterial cell?
a)
a virus is much larger in size than a bacterial cell
b)
a virus always causes more severe disease than a bacterial cell
c)
a virus can never reproduce on its own, but a bacterial cell can
d)
a virus does not contain genetic material, but a bacterial cell does
27.
Prokaryotes ___________ in that their cells.
a)
lack nucleus
b)
have membrane organelles
c)
have nucleus
d)
lack ncleic acids
28.
In this diagram the bacteria can move using it's ___________.
a)
psuedopod
b)
DNA
c)
flagella
d)
medusa hair
29.

Name this bacteria shape

a)

bacillus

b)

coccus

c)

spirillum

30.

Name this bacteria shape

a)

coccus

b)

bacillus

c)

spirillum

31.

Name this bacteria shape

a)

coccus

b)

spirillum

c)

bacillus

32.

True or False: Some types of bacteria eat and clean up oil spills

a)

True

b)

False

33.

A disease causing organism

a)

pathogen

b)

poison

c)

vaccine

34.
Bacteria reproduce asexually by 
a)
spores
b)
conjugation
c)
fixation
d)
binary fission
35.
Bacteria can help plants by trapping nitrogen in the soil through....
a)
conjugation
b)
sterilization
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
decomposition
36.
What happens in the lysogenic cycle? 
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus inject the nucleic acid into the host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant for a long time
d)
Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell
37.

What happens in the lytic cyle?

a)

Virus goes in and leaves the host cell

b)

Virus quickly causes the host cell to burst

c)

Virus sleeps inside of the host cell

d)

Virus stay dormant for a long time

38.

A retrovirus is different from other viruses because retroviruses have __________ at their core.

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Protein

39.

The outside shell of a virus is called a(n)

a)

capsid

b)

flagellum

c)

cell wall

d)

cell membrane

40.

Antibiotics are used to fight off

a)

viral infections

b)

bacterial infections

c)

HIV infections

d)

fungal infections

41.

Bioremediation involves microbes

a)

producing carbohydrates

b)

converting nitrogen to usable forms

c)

digesting pollutants

d)

break down food

42.

Which pathogen infects ONLY plants

a)

virus

b)

prion

c)

viroid

d)

bacteria

43.

Prions are infectious particles that

a)

cause other proteins to fold incorrectly

b)

duplicate DNA

c)

only infect plants

d)

fit into the wrong receptors, causing problems

44.

Chromosomes in a prokaryotic cell are

a)

linear

b)

circular

c)

small

d)

large

45.

How does the DNA of a bacteriophage enter the host cell?

a)

injection

b)

endocytosis

c)

binary fission

d)

conjugation

46.

Structures found in prokaryotic cells but NOT eukaryotic cells are

a)

ribosomes

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

circular chromosomes

d)

membrane bound organelles

47.

Scientists use Gram Staining to determine

a)

how big a bacterial cell is

b)

differences in cell wall structures in bacteria

c)

the rate that viruses reproduce

d)

if someone has a disease

48.

Patient Zero is

a)

the first person who became infected with a disease

b)

the last person who became infected with a disease

49.

Antibiotic resistance

a)

arises by mutation in an infected person

b)

may prevent bacteria from making new cell walls

c)

can be prevented by the widespread use of antibiotics

d)

arises naturally in bacteria

50.

The genetic material of a virus is

a)

DNA only

b)

DNA or RNA

c)

capsids

d)

proteins

51.

Viruses can be transmitted through

a)

sexual contact

b)

direct or indirect contact

c)

air

d)

all of these

52.

The main difference in the cell walls of bacteria is that they contain

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

sugars

d)

peptidoglycan

53.

What cell structures do prokaryotes and eukaryotes have in common?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nuclei

c)

ribosomes

d)

chloroplasts

54.
long and thin , tail-like appendage used by cell for movement
a)
Cilia
b)
Pseudopodia
c)
Flagella
55.
thin hair-like projections on the cell-membrane of a cell used for movement
a)
Cilia
b)
Pseudopodia
c)
Flagella
56.
 What amoeba structure is a finger-like projection of the cell membrane used for movement and obtaining food?
a)
Cilia
b)
Pseudopod
c)
Flagella
d)
Hair-like
57.
How are protists different than bacteria?
a)
Protists are eukaryotic and bacteria are prokaryotic
b)
Protists are prokaryotic and bacteria are eukaryotic
c)
There is no difference; protists and bacteria are the same thing
d)
Protists are always unicellular and bacteria are always multicellular
58.
What is the name of the structure shown in the model?
a)
cilia
b)
flagella
c)
amoeba
d)
pseudopod 
59.
A pseudopod literally means...
a)
small hair
b)
long tail
c)
no nucleus
d)
false foot
60.
Protists that are similar to plants are called...
a)
plants!
b)
protozoans
c)
algae
d)
mold
61.
A eukaryote that cannot be classified as an animal, plant, or fungus is called ...
a)
protist
b)
moneran
c)
virus
d)
Mr. Rosenberg
62.
What is the scientific word for an organism that has a nucleus in it's cells?
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
autotroph
d)
heterotroph
63.
animal-like protists are called...
a)
slime
b)
mold
c)
algae
d)
protozoans
64.
What is the nickname for Kingdom Protista?
a)
"Kingdom of Everything"
b)
"Junk Drawer Kingdom"
c)
"Crazy Kingdom"
d)
"Kingdom of Nonsense"
65.

The amoeba seen in the image engulfs large food particles through which process?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

66.

The disease malaria is caused by

a)

a fly infected with a protist

b)

a mosquito infected with a protist

c)

a mosquito infected with a virus

d)

a fly infected with a virus

67.

Giardiasis is caused by

a)

contaminated water through nose

b)

contaminated water through mouth

c)

mosquito

d)

fly

68.

A protist that caused the blight of potato crops and resulted in MANY deaths occurred in

a)

England

b)

Scotland

c)

Ireland

d)

Spain

69.
What part of a fungus is described as long, thread-like structures that absorb nutrients?
a)
roots
b)
fruit body
c)
hyphae
d)
spores
70.
What vocabulary word describes the breaking off of dead things and recycling it's nutrients through the food chain?
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Decomposing
c)
Budding
d)
Mycelium
71.

A collective mass of hyphae that are underground are referred to as ____________

a)

parasitic

b)

fruiting

c)

mycelium

d)

spores

72.
Any method of reproducing that create offspring identical to the single parent. 
a)
asexual
b)
budding
c)
sexual
d)
sporogenesis
73.
What do fungi use to reproduce?
a)
Hyphae
b)
Branches
c)
Spores
d)
They split apart
74.

Fungi produce spores in

a)

Hyphae

b)

Orange peels

c)

Sporangia

d)

Mycelium

75.

The molecule that is found in the cell wall of fungi AND in the exoskeleton of insects is

a)

cellulose

b)

peptidoglycan

c)

sugar

d)

chitin

76.

White nose syndrome occurs in

a)

bats

b)

frogs

c)

trees

77.

Chytrid fungus can be deadly to

a)

bats

b)

frogs

c)

trees

78.

Dutch elm disease is deadly to which organisms

a)

bats

b)

frogs

c)

trees

79.

The main role of a fungus in an ecosystem is to be a

a)

decomposer

b)

producer

c)

eat other animals

80.

Lichen are useful as environmental indicators and are made of

a)

protozoa & fungus

b)

protozoa & algae

c)

algae & fungus

d)

algae & mold

81.

The part of a fungi that grows above ground is called

a)

sporangia

b)

hyphae

c)

mycelium

d)

fruiting body

82.

When the ovules of a flowering plant are fertilized they become:

a)

fruit

b)

pollen

c)

petals

d)

seeds

e)

cones

83.

The number of cotyledons distinguishes:

a)

mosses and liverworts

b)

angiosperms from gymnosperms

c)

the classes of the angiosperms

d)

vascular from nonvascular

84.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ALL plants?

a)

composed of eukaryotic cells

b)

are multicellular

c)

produce seeds

d)

contain cellulose in the the cell wall

85.

Plants placed in the NONVASCULAR group are placed there because...

a)

they have no protection from dehydration

b)

they don't produce pollen or seeds

c)

they don't contain xylem and phloem

d)

they always have a dominant gametophyte generation

86.

What is the dominant generation in the vascular plants?

a)

sporophyte

b)

sporangium

c)

gametophyte

d)

prothallus

87.

In monocot STEMS the vascular bundles are usually arranged:

a)

in parallel lines

b)

in a random scatter

c)

in multiples of three

d)

in a ring

88.

In Vascular plants, the products of photosynthesis are transported by the:

a)

xylem

b)

phloem

c)

tracheids

d)

cuticle

89.

Which of the following is NOT common to ALL phyla of vascular plants?

a)

the development of seeds

b)

xylem and phloem

c)

alternation of generations

d)

the addition of lignin to the xylem cell walls

90.

In bryophytes, water passes from cell to cell by:

a)

absorption

b)

transpiration

c)

osmosis

d)

mitosis

91.

The following plant structures are all adaptations specifically for a terrestrial environment EXCEPT:

a)

roots

b)

xylem

c)

cell walls

d)

cuticle

92.

Which of the following was NOT a problem for the first land plants?

a)

animal predation

b)

support against gravity

c)

sperm transfer

d)

sources of water

93.

Plant spores give rise directly to:

a)

seeds

b)

gametophytes

c)

gametes

d)

sporophytes

94.

Bryophytes have all of the following characteristics except:

a)

mutlicellular

b)

spores

c)

specialized cells and tissues

d)

lignified vascular tissue

95.

Ferns are a Tracheophytes, but are still similar to the Bryophytes because..

a)

they require water for fertilization

b)

they don't have true roots, stems, or leaves

c)

they don't have a dominant sporophyte generation

d)

they don't have vascular tissue

96.

All of the following are advantages to life on land except:

a)

an abundance of available water

b)

abundance of available light

c)

carbon dioxide is plentiful

d)

soil is rich in mineral nutrients

97.

Plants that produce seeds

a)

Angiosperms

b)

gymnosperms

c)

both angiosperm and gymnosperm

d)

neither angiosperm or gymnosperm

98.

Include the cone bearing plants

a)

angiosperms

b)

gymnosperms

c)

both angiosperms and gymnosperms

d)

neither angiosperms or gymnosperms

99.

Include monocots and dicots

a)

angiosperms

b)

gymnosperms

c)

both angiosperms and gymnosperms

d)

neither angiosperms and gymnosperms

100.

Have motile gametes

a)

angiosperms

b)

gymnosperms

c)

both angiosperms and gymnosperms

d)

neither angiosperms and gymnosperms

101.

These plants are tied to a moist environment ONLY because of their reproduction.

a)

Ferns

b)

mosses

c)

both ferns and mosses

d)

neither ferns nor mosses

102.

These plants are tied to a watery environment because they lack vascular tissue

a)

ferns

b)

mosses

c)

both ferns and mosses

d)

neither ferns nor mosses

103.

These plants produce pollen and seeds.

a)

Ferns

b)

mosses

c)

both ferns and mosses

d)

neither ferns nor mosses

104.

These plants have a dominant gametophyte generation.

a)

ferns

b)

mosses

c)

both ferns and mosses

d)

neither ferns nor mosses

105.

The appearance of many new species in a relatively short period of time that occurs when ecological niches are made available.

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

alternation of generations

c)

adaptive selection

d)

evolution

106.

Root like structures that do not contain vascular tissue

a)

Tuber

b)

rhizoids

c)

cuticle

d)

apical meristem

107.

Openings in the leaf that allow for gas exchange...

a)

ligin

b)

cuticle

c)

stomata

d)

cotyledon

108.

Name given to the haploid phase of the life cycle.

a)

sporophyte

b)

gametophyte

c)

antheridia

d)

sporangium

109.

The movement of pollen by water, wind, or animal.

a)

fertilization

b)

ovulation

c)

pollination

d)

flower formation

110.

Monocot or Dicot leaf?

a)

Monocot

b)

Dicot

111.

Monocot or dicot flower?

a)

Monocot

b)

Dicot

112.

Monocot or Dicot stem?

a)

Monocot

b)

Dicot

113.

Monocot or Dicot Root?

a)

Monocot

b)

Dicot

114.

Monocot or Dicot Seed?

a)

Monocot

b)

Dicot

115.

Pollination occurs when the pollen is moved from the PISTIL to the STAMEN of the same flower or another flower of the same kind.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.

The MALE reproductive organ is the:

a)

Corolla

b)

Calix

c)

Stamen

d)

Pistil

117.

Pollen grains are produced by

a)

the anther

b)

the stigma

c)

the ovules

d)

the ovary

118.

When fertilization has occured the fertilized ovule changes and so does the ovary. What do they turn into?

a)

The fertilised ovule turns into the fruit and the ovary turns into the seed.

b)

The ovule grows bigger and the ovary withers.

c)

The fertilised ovule turns into a seed and the ovary turns into the fruit or pod.

d)

The fertilised ovule turns into honey and the ovary turns into nectar.

119.
The tip of the style that has sticky hairs to trap pollen is the ___.
a)
stamen
b)
stigma
c)
ovary
d)
style
120.
The part of the flower on which the pollen grains land.
a)
anther
b)
stamen
c)
style
d)
stigma
121.
The part of a flower that produces the male reproductive cells.
a)
anther
b)
style
c)
stigma
d)
filament
122.
Pollination can occur between flowers of the same plant. 
a)
True 
b)
False 
123.
Pollination is the process by which pollen
a)
causes people to sneeze
b)
is formed inside a plant
c)
moves from stamen to stigma
d)
moves from stigma to stamen
124.
Brightly colored parts of flowers that attract insects.
a)
petals
b)
pistils
c)
stamen
d)
filaments
125.
Small grains that contain a plant's male reproductive cells.
a)
stamen
b)
pollen
c)
anther
d)
stigma
126.
What is the female part of the flower used during reproduction?
a)
Pistil
b)
Petal
c)
Stigma
d)
Stamen
127.
The stalk connecting the ovaries and stigmas.
a)
filament
b)
pistil
c)
style
d)
anther
128.

The pistil (or carpel) is the _______ part of the flower

a)

Male

b)

Female

129.

The stamen is the ______ part of the flower

a)

male

b)

female

130.
This is the top part of the pistil of a flower which receives the pollen grains; germination happens here.
a)
petal
b)
sepal
c)
filament
d)
stigma
131.

These are found inside of the ovary, they are tiny egg cells that will become seeds, also known as ______________

a)

ovaries

b)

ovules

c)

anthers

d)

sepals

132.
This is the stalk that holds the anther.
a)
stamen
b)
stigma
c)
filament
d)
pistil
133.

The arrow points to a long stalk that leads to the ovary. This stalk is called ______

a)

ovary

b)

ovule

c)

style

d)

stigma

134.

The arrow points to the green structures that enclose and protect the flower before it opens. These structures are called _____________

a)

stigma

b)

stamen

c)

sepals

d)

pistil

135.

The arrow points to the colorful part of a flower that attracts pollinators. These are called the __________

a)

pollen

b)

sepals

c)

petals

d)

style

136.

The yellow structures you see are pollen. Pollen is captured by the female, feathery structure called ___________. After it is captured it will travel down the style and into the ovary.

a)

stigma

b)

style

c)

ovary

d)

ovule

137.

The arrow points to the stalk that holds the anther up. This structure is called ____________

a)

stigma

b)

style

c)

anther

d)

filament

138.
The tip of the style that has sticky hairs to trap pollen is the ___.
a)
stamen
b)
stigma
c)
ovary
d)
style
139.
All of the following are examples of seed dispersal except:
a)
wind
b)
volcanic eruptions
c)
physical movement (rolling)
d)
animals droppings
140.
Which part of the flower is shown at letter G?
a)
anther
b)
stamen
c)
ovary
d)
ovule
141.
Which part of the flower is shown at letter C?
a)
anther
b)
pistil
c)
stamen
d)
sepal
142.

The stalk supporting the anther.

a)

stigma

b)

style

c)

sepal

d)

filament

143.

This will become the seed and is surrounded as it matures. In some plants, this becomes a fruit.

a)

ovary with ovules

b)

stem

c)

stigma

d)

anther

144.

These are modified leaves that surround the flower when it is still a bud.

a)

sepals

b)

stigma

c)

stem

d)

petal

145.

True or False: most animals are invertebrates.

a)

True

b)

False

146.
All of the below are found in Aves except for....
a)
endothermic
b)
wings
c)
scales
d)
warm blooded
147.
Which of the following is not found in Mammalia?
a)
fur
b)
4-chambered heart
c)
3-chambered heart
d)
mammary glands
148.
The "Cartilaginous fish" class is....
a)
Chondrichthyes
b)
Osteichthyes
c)
Amphibian
d)
Aves
149.
Echinodermata means ....
a)
spiny skin
b)
two lives
c)
jointed appendages
d)
two shells
150.
"jointed appendages" describes the Phylum...
a)
Porifera
b)
Arthropoda
c)
Nematoda
d)
Echinodermata
151.
Phylum Mollusca include all except:
a)
octopus
b)
clam
c)
snail
d)
jellyfish
152.
Birds are classified as......
a)
reptiles
b)
aves
c)
amphibians
d)
arthropods
153.
Segmented worms are in the Phylum:
a)
Annelida
b)
Nematoda
c)
Arthropoda
d)
Cnidaria
154.
Which rank contains the largest amount of organisms?
a)
Genus
b)
Species
c)
Class
d)
Order
155.
Which is always true of two organisms in the same taxonomic class?
a)
They can breed with each other
b)
They have certain physical features in common
c)
They evolved at the same rate
d)
They live in the same ecosystem
156.
How is the "domain" rank different from other ranks?
a)
It was created more recently
b)
It has existed longer
c)
It contains fewer organisms
d)
It does not include animals
157.
In contrast to prokaryotic organisms, all eukaryotic organisms:
a)
Are multi-cellular
b)
Reproduce sexually
c)
Have cell nuclei
d)
Breathe oxygen
158.
What is the binomial name of the organism pictured?
a)
house cat
b)
Felis catus
c)
Domestic cat
d)
Orcinus orca
159.
All animals in the phylum Chordata share which of the following features?
a)
Wings
b)
Lungs
c)
Spines
d)
Legs
160.
Scientific names are usually given in classical languages.  Which of the following can you infer is a true statement about classical languages?
a)
They were spoken in the ancient world
b)
They are only used within the scientific community
c)
They were invented by Carolus Linneaus
d)
They are only used by scientists in the United States and Europe
161.
Place the following taxonomic rank in order from most specific to least specific.  A) kingdom; B) phylum; C) domain
a)
B, C, A
b)
C, B, A
c)
A, C, B
d)
B, A, C
162.
Which is NOT a phyla of the animal kingdom?
a)
Chordata
b)
Porifera
c)
Arthropods
d)
Zygomycota
163.

Usual mode of reproduction: Sexual

Type of fertilization: External

Embryology: Blastopore contributes to the formation of anus; cleavage is radial

Symmetry: Immature form is bilateral; mature form is five-part radial

Body cavity: Lined with tissue derived from mesoderm

Segmentation: No evidence

Skeleton: Spiny exoskeleton secreted by the dermis and covered with a thin epidermis

Habitat: marine


Into what phylum should this organism be placed?

a)

Chordata

b)

Echinodermata

c)

Mollusca

d)

Nematoda

164.

Coelomate, exoskeleton and jointed appendages are characteristics of

a)

Annelida

b)

Arthropoda

c)

Mollusca

d)

Chordata

165.

Pharyngeal slits, endoskeleton derived from mesoderm and ventral heart are characteristics for

a)

Annelida

b)

Chordata

c)

Cnidaria

d)

Nematoda

166.

Which of the following is not an arthropod characteristic?

a)

Jointed appendages

b)

Nonsegmented body

c)

molting

d)

exoskeleton

167.

Which phylum is comprised of acoelomate, bilaterally symmetrical and tripoblastic organisms?

a)

nematoda

b)

chordata

c)

porifera

d)

platyhelminthes

168.

Which of the following group of animals is sessile?

a)

jellyfish

b)

cockles

c)

sponge

d)

coral

169.

Which phylum is comprised of coelomate, bilaterally symmetrical, non segemented and tripoblastic organisms?

a)

platyhelminthes

b)

mollusca

c)

cnidaria

d)

echinodermata

170.

Which of the following features could be used to distinguish between an earthworm (annelid) and a tapeworm (platyhelminth)?

a)

segmentation

b)

germ layer

c)

body coelom

d)

organization level

171.

The nematodes are also called _________________.

a)

flatworms

b)

roundworms

c)

tapeworms

d)

earthworms

172.

Which phylum and species that has these characteristics

  • triploblastic
  • acoelomate
  • specialized excretion cells called flame cell
  • has mouth but no anus
  • hermphrodite
a)

Platyhelminthes - Ascaris sp

b)

Annelida - Brugia sp

c)

Platyhelmintes - Taenia sp

d)

Annelida - Pheretima sp

173.

Which phylum and species that has these characteristics

  • bilateral symmetry
  • have chaetae/ setae
  • have paired of metanephridia
  • coelomate
a)

Annelida - Ascaris sp

b)

Nematoda - Acatina sp

c)

Arthropoda - Taenia sp

d)

Annelida - Pheretima sp

174.

This animal is classified under

a)

Nematoda

b)

Annelida

c)

Chordata

d)

Mollusca

175.

Name this species

a)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

b)

Achatina Fulica

c)

Ascaris lumbricoides

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

176.

The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence or the presence of

a)

a body cavity

b)

a complete digestive tract

c)

a circulatory system

d)

true tissues

177.

A radial symmetrical animal that has two embryonic tissue layers belongs to which phylum?

a)

Porifera

b)

Cnidaria

c)

Platyhelminthes

d)

Nematode

178.

Which phylum is comprised of acoelomate, bilateral symmetrical and tripoblastic organisms?

a)

Annelida

b)

Nematode

c)

Cnidaria

d)

Platyhelminthes

179.

This animal is a mollusc. Choose all the characteristics of a mollusc.

a)

mantle

b)

visceral mass

c)

bilateral symmetry

d)

muscular foot

180.

Which of the followings are NOT an echinoderm?

a)
b)
c)
d)

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