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Released EOC Questions

Total questions: 178

Worksheet time: 3hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The amount of energy the producers in this energy pyramid provide the primary consumer is 54,000 joules. From this amount, 540 joules are provided to the tertiary consumers. Based on this model, how much of the energy was provided to secondary consumers?

a)

53,460 J

b)

5,400 J

c)

540 J

d)

54 J

2.

The 1918 influenza epidemic killed between 50 million and 100 million people worldwide. THis epidemic happened near the end of World War I. More people died from the influenza epidemic than were killed in the war. Which of the following explains why this virus was so deadly worldwide?

a)

Infected soldiers returning from the war spread the virus when they coughed.

b)

Food was scarce because of the war, so people were undernourished, and their immune systems were weakened.

c)

Medical personnel often became ill as a result of exposure to airborne virus particles.

d)

All of the above

3.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

4.

The green frog (Lithobates clamitans clamitans) is found in many parts of the United States. The table contains some information about this frog. Why does the ability to lay 1,000 to 5,000 eggs increase the fitness of the species L. clamitans clamitans?

a)

It increases opportunities for offspring to compete for limited resources.

b)

It increases the probability that some offspring will survive long enough to reproduce.

c)

It increases the probability that moving water will promote gene flow from one population to another.

d)

It increases the chance of the recombination of alleles, leading to genetic drift in the population.

5.

Food webs such as the one shown were first used in 1927 by the animal ecologist Charles Elton. The food web below represents the feeding relationships among organisms in an Alaskan ecosystem. An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?

a)

Auklets

b)

Foxes

c)

Salmon

d)

Zooplankton

6.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This exchange of genetic material

a)

increases the genetic variation

b)

reduces the diploid number to the haploid number

c)

increases the haploid number to the diploid number

d)

reduces the probability of mutations

7.

Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae. Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip. The family Camelidae originated in North America. The physical features of animals in this family and the family’s geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals

a)

live in the same type of ecosystem

b)

have slowly evolved to become herbivores

c)

have a common ancestor

d)

exchanged DNA at some point in the past

8.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

9.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands. Which process and product are represented in the diagrams?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

10.

Some relationships between different organisms are shown in the table. Which table correctly identifies each type of interaction described?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

12.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve a way the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutions to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

13.
Name the photosynthesizing organelle of the plant cell.
a)
G
b)
B
c)
J
d)
C
14.
What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
offspring are identical to parents
b)
offspring are resistant to viruses
c)
offspring are born live, rather thna from eggs
d)
offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information
15.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
16.
Colorblindness is a recessive, X chromosome sex-link disorder. Cross the parents to figure out which percentage of their offspring will be colorblind.
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
75%
d)
50%
17.

In the early 1900s a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of protein in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940s scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was the newly identified molecule?

a)

a gene

b)

mRNA

c)

ATP

d)

thymine

18.

In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormone. Which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?

a)

Human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli cells are prokaryotic.

b)

All living organisms share the same genome.

c)

The genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks.

d)

The human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. coli.

19.

The complex carbohydrates pictured below are made by linking molecules of glucose. In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely —

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

20.
When water leaves a plants' leaves in the water cycle
a)
evaporation
b)
transpiration
c)
precipitation
d)
condensation
21.
What is the structure in the picture?
a)
Stomata
b)
Leaves
c)
Roots
d)
Vascular tissue
22.
Which of the following lists these levels in the correct order of organization from the simplest to the most complex?
a)
cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms
b)
organisms, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
c)
tissues, cells, organs, organisms, organ systems
d)

organs, organ systems, organisms, cells, tissues

23.

The 1918 influenza epidemic killed between 50 million and 100 million people worldwide. THis epidemic happened near the end of World War I. More people died from the influenza epidemic than were killed in the war. Which of the following explains why this virus was so deadly worldwide?

a)

Infected soldiers returning from the war spread the virus when they coughed.

b)

Food was scarce because of the war, so people were undernourished, and their immune systems were weakened.

c)

Medical personnel often became ill as a result of exposure to airborne virus particles.

d)

All of the above

24.
According to the diagram, when did the common ancestor of giant pandas and spectacled bears exist? 
a)
5-10 mya
b)
10-15 mya
c)
15-20 mya
d)
20-25 mya
25.
Prokaryotes used to be classified as a single kingdom. New technology allowed them to be split into...
a)
Protista and Prokaryota
b)
Protista and Bacteria
c)
Eubacteria and Archaea
d)
Archaea and Eukarya
26.
Movement of materials down the concentration gradient through a protein channel is an example of 
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
respiration
d)
osmosis 
27.
Which list includes only structures that would be found in a prokaryotic cell? 
a)
Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria
b)
Central vacuole, cell wall, lysosome
c)
Cell wall, plasma membrane, cytoplasm
d)
Plasma membrane, nucleus, mitochondria
28.
What structures do protists and paramecium use to remove waste?
a)
Cillia
b)
Flagella
c)
Psuedopods
d)
Contractile Vacuole 
29.
Humans are made up of different cells that preform different functions. From which cells do nerve cells develop? 
a)
Muscle cells
b)
Stem cell
c)
Sperm cells
d)
White blood cells 
30.
In a cell, what does a buffer help maintain?
a)
A constant temperature
b)
A low temperature 
c)
A constant pH
d)
A low pH
31.
Which of the following statements vest describes the cell cycle? 
a)
Interphase is the reproductive phase, mitosis is the growth phase
b)
Interphase is the growth phase, mitosis is the reproductive phase
c)
Cytokinesis is the growth phase, S-phase is the reproductive phase
d)
Cytokinesis is the reproductive phase, S-phase is the growth phase
32.
Which uses cilia for movement?
a)
Euglena
b)
Amoeaba
c)
Paramecium
d)
Volvox
33.
What is the function of this molecule in organisms? 
a)
Storage of genetic information
b)
Structure and support
c)
Short term energy storage
d)
Long term energy storage
34.
Which best describes the function of enzymes?
a)
to speed up chemical reactions in a cell
b)
to produce cellular energy
c)
to produce proteins
d)
to speed up cell division
35.
Which factor determines the shape and function of a protein?
a)
The density of ribosomes in the cell
b)
The peptide bonds between amino acids
c)
The order of the amino acids in the peptide chian
d)
The sequence of the phosphate molecules in the DNA chain. 
36.
What are the products of photosynthesis? 
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
glucose and carbon dioxide
c)
glucose and water
d)
water, carbon dioxide, and energy
37.
Which process uses ATP to move materials across the plasma membrane against the concentration gradient?
a)
passive transport
b)
active transport 
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
osmosis
38.
Which process of the carbon cycle removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? 
a)
photosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
combustion of fossil fuels 
d)
death and decomposing organisms 
39.
In very hot or dry conditions, land snails may enter a state of inactivity and low metabolism. What is the name of this adaptation? 
a)
Hibernation
b)
Estivation
c)
Imprinting
d)
Migration 
40.
Which statement best describes how the use of antibiotics on certain bacteria affects natural selection? 
a)
Natural Selection is altered because bacteria are killed
b)
The rate of selection is decreased because antibiotics kill only young bacteria
c)
Antibiotics alter natural selection by causing bacterial DNA to mutate 
d)
The rate of selection is increased because antibiotics do not kill bacteria that are naturally resistant to them. 
41.
What type of growth is shown by the human population? 
a)
Carrying capacity
b)
Logistical
c)
Exponential
d)
Stabilizing 
42.
Which method would be most helpful in preventing eutrophication of lakes and waterways?
a)
recycling aluminum
b)
conserving fossil fuels 
c)
reducing run-off from farms 
d)
using less pesticide 
43.
Which statement describes how complementary strands of DNA are linked?
a)
each sugar in one strand is paired with a complementary base in the other strand. 
b)
Each sugar in one strand is pained with a complementary phosphate in the other strand
c)
Each phosphate in one strand is paired with a complementary phosphate in the other
d)
Each base in one strand is paired with a complementary base in the other 
44.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ Activation Energy.
a)
Increasing
b)
Decreasing
45.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
46.

Which of the following converts food into energy for the cell?

a)

vacuole

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

47.
What is something that prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have in common?
a)
They have a nucleus. 
b)
They are multi-cellular. 
c)
They have DNA. 
d)
They have organelles that are membrane-bound.
48.

The light independent reactions (Calvin Cycle) of photosynthesis happen where?

a)

stroma of chloroplast

b)

mitochondrial matrix

c)

stem

d)

thylakoid membrane

49.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
50.

Plant cells are able to produce their own food. This process happens in which structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

51.

These diagrams show a variety of cells from the same organism.

How can cells from the same organism have such different shapes and functions?As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different DNA once it reaches maturity.

a)

As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different

b)

Mutations in the cells’ nuclei lead to new combinations of DNA, resulting in different shapes and functions in the different types of cells.

c)

During differentiation, different parts of the DNA in each type of cell are activated, resulting in the different structure and function of the cells.

d)

During differentiation, different types of cells produce proteins which destroy the nonactive DNA, leading to cell specialization.

52.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells

b)

It regulates body temperature

c)

It maintains water balance

d)

It maintains sugar balance in cells

53.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

54.

Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products

55.

In some ecosystems, wolves have been eliminated due to their threats to humans. How can the reintroduction of wolves benefit the ecosystem?

a)

It can eliminate weak animals from a prey population, thereby decreasing competition for natural resources

b)

It can eliminate the most fit animals among the prey population, which will cause an increase in birth rates of the prey

c)

It can cause the prey population to migrate to other areas, resulting in more fit prey.

d)

It can cause the prey population to better blend in with their environment.

56.

What will most likely be the result as humans move into new areas, forests are clear cut and housing developments are built?

a)

Global temperatures will decrease because trees are removed.

b)

Many organisms will lose their homes because their habitats have been destroyed.

c)

Better sanitation in the area will reduce the amount of pollution.

d)

The rainfall in the area will increase because there will be increased runoff.

57.

What activity most contributes to the depletion of the ozone layer?

a)

burning of fossil fuels

b)

release of CFCs

c)

deforestation

d)

overuse of fertilizers

58.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape.

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen.

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water

59.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

60.
An illustration of two insects is below.
Which of the paired statements could be used to distinguish the insects, using a dichotomous key?
a)
six legs, eight legs
b)
large hind legs, small hind legs
c)
two pairs of spots on wing cover, three pairs of spots on wing cover
d)
antennae absent, antennae present
61.
A dichotomous key for insects is shown below. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Diptera
c)
Heteroptera
d)
Lepidoptera
62.
The diagram provided shows a breakdown of the genomes of humans, mice, chickens, and zebra fish. The numbers in overlapping regions indicate homologous sequences, similar genes that indicate shared ancestry. The data in the diagram best supports which of the following conclusions?
a)
There are no gene sequences that are common to all these animals.
b)
The common ancestor of the mouse and the chicken lived very recently.
c)
The mouse and the zebrafish share the closest relationship of all animals shown.
d)
Humans are more closely related to zebrafish than to chickens.
63.
An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram/evolutionary tree, such as the one shown below, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor.
Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram/evolutionary tree? 
a)
Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.
b)
Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.
c)
Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.
d)
The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.
64.
Below is the illustration of the bones of the forelimbs (wing or arm) of three animals. While only birds and bats have wings, the underlying skeletal structure is more similar in bats and humans.
What is the most reasonable conclusion one can draw from a comparison of these structures?
a)
Birds and bats are closely related to each other, while humans are unrelated to both.
b)
The common ancestor of birds and bats must have had wings and flown.
c)
Humans live in habitats very different from the habitats of both birds and bats.
d)
Humans and bats share a closer evolutionary history with each other than with birds.
65.

According to Darwin's theory on natural selection, the traits that survive and continue in future generations are –

a)

caused by response to stress

b)

made by environmental change

c)

already present in the population

d)

introduced by immigrating species

66.

Survival of the fittest can best be described as –

a)

the process by which only the strongest of a species will be able to survive and reproduce

b)

the process in which organisms that are better adapted to their environment will have a better chance of surviving and reproducing

c)

the reason the strongest of the species will not be able to reproduce as often as others

d)

the reason weaker organisms in a species will always be killed by predators

67.

Which process results in greater genetic diversity in offspring?

a)

genetic linkage

b)

recombination of DNA during meiosis

c)

crossing-over during mitosis

d)

rearrangement of chromosomes in germ cells

68.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms. Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

69.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram. Based on this cladogram, which statement best describes relationships among millipede orders?

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta.

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida.

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to Glomeridesmida.

70.
A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g. dropped the population from    8000 to 800).  In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 of the   remaining seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific   Ocean.  Which of the following statements would accurately describe the new   population?  
a)
The new seal population is genetically less diverse than the original population 
b)
The new seal population is genetically more diverse than the original population
c)
There is equal genetic variety compared  to the original population 
d)
None of the answers
71.
Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...
a)
random chance
b)
natural selection
c)
non-random mating (sexual selection)
d)
artificial selection
72.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
73.
Which of the following cannot introduce new alleles into a population's gene pool?
a)
Mutataion
b)
Natural selection
c)
Gene Flow
d)
All of the above introduce new alleles into the population
74.
The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is called
a)
the Hardy-Weinberg principle
b)
the founder effect
c)
directional selection
d)
the bottleneck effect
75.
What is this an example of?
a)
diversity of species
b)
variation
c)
vestigial structures
d)
DNA studies
76.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
77.
Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
78.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
79.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

80.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
81.
Which of these is not a way in which biotechnology can benefit agriculture?
a)
increase crop population
b)
reducing the loss of crops to insects
c)
producing better-tasting fruits
d)
improving farm machinery
82.

What are some abiotic factors that could be limiting factors in the Iowa River ecosystem?

a)

Temperature, fertilizer runoff from fields, drought or flood

b)

Invasive species, floods

c)

Temperature, predators, droughts, floods, over fishing

83.
The diagram below represents a cell. Which organelle is the site where amino acids are synthesized into proteins? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
84.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
85.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
86.

What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

membrane-bound organelles

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a nucleus

87.

Which of these cells in the human body is specialized to transport oxygen throughout the body?

a)
b)
c)
d)
88.

What would most likely be produced when a cell with eight chromosomes undergoes mitosis?

a)

two cells with four chromosomes each

b)

two cells with eight chromosomes each

c)

four cells with four chromosomes each

d)

four cells with eight chromosomes each

89.

This diagram shows a Paramecium, a unicellular protist. When a chemical is added to the pond water in which the Paramecium lives, the Paramecium stops moving. Which structure is most likely affected?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

90.

Which adaptation do ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms have that mosses do not have?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

flowers

c)

stomata

d)

vascular tissue

91.

Which graph best illustrates the growth of a population introduced into an environment with limited resources?

a)
b)
c)
d)
92.

Which will most likely result in a negative growth rate in the human population of a country?

a)

The death rate is higher than the birth rate

b)

The birth rate is higher than the death rate

c)

The country has improved economic conditions

d)

The country has made improvements in sanitation

93.

Why are many farmers encouraged to plant different types of crops on the same land throughout the year?

a)

It prevents insects from destroying crops

b)

It provides more food to other countries

c)

It allows for more genetic variation in palnts

d)

It helps preserve the quality of the soil

94.

During translation, what does the tRNA deliver to the ribosomes?

a)

amino acids

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

proteins

95.

Which will most likely cause an increase in the frequency of genetic mutations in humans?

a)

increased exposure to mold spores in the air

b)

increased exposure to the rising levels of atmospheric CO2

c)

increased exposure to bacteria in drinking water

d)

increased exposure to X-rays

96.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starches. What substance would humans have difficulty digesting with this enzyme?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

97.

Which best explains why the rate of a biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

The activation energy increases.

b)

The shape of the enzyme changes.

c)

The enzyme-substrate complex forms.

d)

The bonds between substrates are broken.

98.

A contractile vacuole helps protists eliminate excess liquid. This is a "pumping" process which reduces pressure inside the cell and prevents the cell from bursting. What is most likely the source of energy for this process?

a)

DNA

b)

lipids

c)

ATP

d)

ribosomes

99.

What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

membrane-bound organelles

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a nucleus

100.

Identical twin girls are separated at birth and cared for by two different families. After twenty years, the twins have different heights and weights. What is most likely the cause of these differences?

a)

One twin had a genetic condition that prevented her from growing tall.

b)

The DNA of one twin was different from the DNA of the other twin.

c)

Each twin was provided a different diet and physical activities.

d)

The proteins made by one twin were different that the proteins made by the other twin.

101.

Which molecules are joined together to make proteins?

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

amino acids

d)

acetic acids

102.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication 
103.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
104.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
105.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
106.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
107.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
108.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
109.
A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
competition
110.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
111.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
Mixed
112.

Having freckles is dominant over not having freckles. If two individuals heterozygous for freckles have a child, what is the probability the child will have freckles?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

113.

What is the function of a restriction enzyme?

a)

to control the movement of proteins into a cell

b)

to regulate blood sugar levels

c)

to produce hormones that regulate digestion

d)

to cut DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence

114.

Some marine worms and mollusks go through similar larval stages during development. Which can be inferred about their relationship?

a)

They share a common ancestor

b)

The mate with each other

c)

They compete for a habitat

d)

The share the same food source

115.

Which statement best describes natural selection?

a)

As the weather changes, organisms that are able to find shelter need less energy to live.

b)

Organisms that eat only plants need less food than organisms that eat animals.

c)

Organisms better adapted to their environment are more likely to reproduce and pass on their traits to their offspring.

d)

Small organisms are more likely to survive than larger organisms.

116.

Some scientists claim recent evidence suggests birds should be reclassified to share more taxonomic groups with dinosaurs. What type of evidence would provide the best support for this claim?

a)

evidence showing birds shared similar habitats with dinosaurs

b)

evidence showing birds shared similar nutritional requirements as dinosaurs

c)

evidence showing birds shared similar behaviors with dinosaurs

d)

evidence showing birds shared a common genetic history with dinosaurs

117.

This is a dichotomous key for selected arthropods. To which order does the caddis fly belong?

a)

Acarina

b)

Diptera

c)

Siphonaptera

d)

Trichoptera

118.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose → oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water → carbon dioxide + glucose

119.

How does the body of a runner keep up with the demand for energy when cellular oxygen levels are low?

a)

through energy production in the mitochondria

b)

through aerobic respiration in the plasma membrane

c)

through ATP produced directly from sunlight

d)

through anaerobic respiration in the cytoplasm

120.
According to the food web, which of these supply energy for all the other organisms?     
a)
snakes
b)
insects
c)
grasses
d)
cougars
121.
Deforestation by burning has been described as a "double whammy" to the environment, meaning it has 2 negative impacts. Why is this description accurate? 
a)
Forest burning releases CO2 while decreasing oxygen, which disrupts cycles
b)
Deforestation reduces the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere, which depletes the ozone layer
c)
Forest clearing is often followed by land development, which often leads to increased noise pollution
d)
Deforestation increases the number of plant and animal species by destroying habitat
122.
The number of species within a specific habitat.
a)
Conservation
b)
Sustainable development
c)
Biodiversity
d)
Preservation
123.
What is happening at 1?
a)
respiration: releasing CO2
b)
decomposing CO2 in the soil
c)
photosynthesis: absorbing CO2
d)
turning CO2 from the atmosphere into organic molecules
124.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
125.
The recycling of matter in ecosystems requires the breakdown of dead organic matter. This is accomplished by
a)
decomposers
b)
primary consumers
c)
secondary consumers
d)
primary producers
126.
In the food chain, how much energy will make it to the trophic level of the sharks if the producers have 100,000 calories?
a)
10 calories
b)
1 calorie
c)
100 calories
d)
1,000 calories
127.
How does the growth of hardwood trees affect the organisms in an ecosystem?
a)
grasses become fewer because the trees take up the light
b)
Trees provide shelter for a variety of mammals, birds, insects, etc.
c)
In autumn, the falling leaves provide nutrients for decomposers
d)
All of the above
128.
Which of the following are missing from the food web shown above?
a)
producers
b)
decomposers
c)
omnivores
d)
carnivores
129.
A student is studying the ecology of a playa lake, which forms after a rainfall in a dry lake bed. The table lists the organisms that the student observed.
Which level of biological organization has the student described in the table?
a)
 Biosphere
b)
Organelle
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Community
130.
The acacia ant (Pseudomyrmex ferruginea) lives in the bullshorn acacia plant, as shown above. The acacia ant nests and feeds in the plant’s hollow thorns. The ant helps protect the bullshorn acacia by attacking insects and grazing animals that come near the plant. The relationship between the acacia ant and the bullshorn acacia is an example of which of the following?
a)
 Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Neutralism
d)
Parasitism
131.

According to the graph shown, what effect did the brown tree snake have on the birds in Guam?

a)

The snakes had no effect on the bird populations.

b)

The snakes caused a decline in the number of bird populations.

c)

The snakes formed a mutualistic relationship with the birds.

d)

The snakes caused an increase in the number of bird populations.

132.

A prey population consists of individuals with a variety of running speeds.


The adaptation that allows some of these animals to run fast would be an example of natural selection if it helps them —

a)

survive and undergo mutations in their DNA

b)

lower the mortality rates of the population

c)

produce offspring that run at average speeds

d)

reproduce and increase the frequency of their genes in the population

133.

The amount of energy the producers in this energy pyramid provide the primary consumers is 54,000 joules. From this amount, 540 joules are provided to the tertiary consumers.


Based on this model, how much of the energy was provided to secondary consumers?

a)

53,460 J

b)

5,400 J

c)

540 J

d)

54 J

134.

Which of the following is most likely to cause the greatest disruption to an ecosystem?

a)

Emptying an aquarium containing non-native species into a local waterway

b)

Cutting down a small cedar tree to make holiday decorations

c)

Cleaning the windshield of a car with an alcohol-based glass cleaner

d)

Mowing the lawn in a city park

135.
All of the living and nonliving things in an area that interact with each other are called a/an ______.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
136.

In the graph to the right, what is the population of deer at the carrying capacity of the environment?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

70

d)

40

137.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
138.
Provides support and protection for the cell, while also controlling the movement of materials in and out of the cell.
a)
Cellular Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Vacuole
139.
What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell? 
a)
It will be unable to carry out respiration. 
b)
It will lose water through osmosis. 
c)
It will break down the ribosomes in the cell. 
d)
It will be unable to photosynthesize
140.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
141.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
142.

In which cell below would a student likely observe a cell plate during mitosis?

a)

rat muscle cell

b)

alligator stomach cell

c)

onion root cell

d)

human lung cell

143.

Is the following cell diploid or haploid?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

144.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
145.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
146.

This is a structure that was inherited but has lost most of its original function

a)

homologous

b)

analogous

c)

vestigial

d)

homozygous

147.

These structures are similar from common ancestry

a)

homologous

b)

analogous

c)

vestigial

d)

homozygous

148.

These structures share a common function but not structure ex) the wing of a bird and the wing of an insect

a)

homologous

b)

analogous

c)

vestigial

d)

homozygous

149.

During which phase of the cell cycle does most cell growth occur

a)

cytokines

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

mitosis

150.

in nature ,which type of behavior causes animals to produce aggressive displays and sounds

a)

imprinting

b)

territoriality

c)

conditioning

d)

habituation

151.

what will most likely occur if the population of the world continues to increase at predicted rates

a)

there will be an increase in biodiversity as a result of improvement in technology

b)

there will be more rapid depletion of natural resources

c)

the human race will rapidly become extinct

d)

all human diseases will be eliminated

152.

what will most likely happen if a nonnative species is introduced into a stable ecosystem

a)

the native species will change their diet,and the ecosystem will remain stable.

b)

the native species is will move to another area ,and the ecosystem will remain stable

c)

the native species will have to compete for resources with the nonnative species,and the ecosystem will become unbalanced

d)

the native species will share their food with the introduced species and the ecosystem will become unbalanced

153.

why must dna replication have to occur before a cell can be divide by mitosis

a)

to maintain the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells as in the parent cell

b)

to cause one of the cell produced to have double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell

c)

to allow crossing over to occur in each of the cells produced

d)

to cause all of the cells produced to have half the numbers of chromosomes as the parent cell

154.

the section of dna has these bases:


TAG CAG TAC


which mRNA sequence is produced from this DNA section

a)

ATC GTC ATG

b)

AUC GUC AUG

c)

AUG CUG AUC

d)

UTC GTC UTG

155.

which process can occur in both mitosis and meiosis

a)

fertilization

b)

independent assortment

c)

gene mutation

d)

crossing over

156.

What is the difference between the DNA of a dog and the DNA of a fly?

a)

the type of sugar building blocks

b)

the sequence of nucleotides

c)

the strength of hydrogen bonds

d)

the strength of covalent bonds

157.

Which would be a desirable trait scientists may want to create in a transgenic plant?

a)

the ability to resist insects

b)

the ability to grow less fruit

c)

the ability to change color in the winter

d)

the ability to use a lot of water

158.

Which substance do biochemists often search for in fossils to help better understand the evolutionary relationships of the organism that formed the fossil?

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

iron

d)

oxygen

159.

Scientists believe that the polar bear in Alaska and the brown bear in Russia evolved

from a common ancestor. Which would be responsible for this evolutionary change?

a)

artificial selection

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

sexual reproduction

d)

geographic isolation

160.
A pond ecosystem is shown in the diagram below. Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
a)
The frogs make energy available to this ecosystem through the process of photosynthesis.
b)
The algae directly provide food for both the rotifers and the catfish.
c)
The green-backed heron provides energy for the mosquito larvae.
d)
The catfish population helps control the populations of water boatman and waterfleas.
161.
According to the food web, which of these supply energy for all the other organisms?     
a)
snakes
b)
insects
c)
grasses
d)
cougars
162.

A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in

direct light. What could the student most likely conclude?

a)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

c)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

d)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

163.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins.

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins.

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins.

d)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids.

164.

Waxes create a waterproof layer on the outside of some living organisms. To which group

of organic molecules do waxes belong?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

165.

These diagrams show a variety of cells from the same organism. How can cells from the same organism have such different shapes and functions?

a)

As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different DNA once it reaches maturity.

b)

Mutations in the cells' nuclei lead to new combinations of DNA, resulting in different shapes and functions in the different types of cells.

c)

During differentiation, different parts of the DNA in each type of cell are activated, resulting in the different structure and function of the cells.

d)

During differentiation, different types of cells produce proteins which destroy the nonactive DNA, leading to cell specialization.

166.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

167.

Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products.

168.

How mitosis and meiosis similar?

a)

both have two cell divisions

b)

both require DNA replication

c)

both produce gametes

d)

both involve crossing over

169.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose --> oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen ---> carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water ---> carbon dioxide + glucose

170.

Based on the DNA sequences shown, the unknown species is most closely related to ________.

a)

Species I

b)

Species II

c)

Species III

d)

Species IV

171.

Based on the map shown, which organisms are more closely related?

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 6

c)

7 and 8

d)

2 and 3

172.

Based on the table, which organisms are more closely related?

a)

G. atlantica and G. stehini

b)

G. galloti palmae and G. stehini

c)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. stehini

d)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti palmae

173.

Which beetles are more fit for the environment?

a)

Green beetles

b)

Brown beetles

174.

What is biological fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring.

d)

Being ale to survive long enough to reach adult age.

175.

Based on the cladogram, the chimp will be more closely related to the _________.

a)

Hagfish

b)

Salamander

c)

Lizard

d)

Mouse

176.

Based on the dichotomous key, which organism is purple and has a pointy hump?

a)

Deerus octagis

b)

Deerus humpis

c)

Derus purplinis

d)

Derus deafus

177.

Which two trees are the most closely related?

a)

Taiwan beech and Taiwan catkin yew

b)

Taiwan catkin yew and Lodgepole pine

c)

Lodgepole pine and Japanese maple

d)

Japanese maple and Taiwan beech

178.

Which organisms belong to the kingdom bacteria?

a)

Organisms 1 and 2

b)

Organisms 3 and 4

c)

Organisms 1 and 4

d)

Organisms 2 and 3