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WorksheetsST CH14
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
HBV, HCV, and alcohol abuse are precursors to which of the following diseases?
a)
cirrhosis
b)
cholelithiasis
c)
diverticulitis
d)
duodenal ulcer
2.
During cholangiography, bubbles in the contrast media would likely:
a)
cause a pulmonary embolus
b)
give the appearance of a stone on x-ray
c)
pass undetected through the biliary system
d)
rupture the cystic duct from pressure exerted during injection
3.
A Whipple procedure is done for treatment of a tumor in which abdominal organ?
a)
liver
b)
pancreas
c)
rectum
d)
spleen
4.
Another name for a thyroid tenaculum is a:
a)
Braun
b)
Jacobs
c)
Lahey
d)
Schroeder
5.
Which potentially life-threatening disease or condition can result from untreated thyrotoxicosis?
a)
Crohn’s disease
b)
Grave’s disease
c)
Hashimoto’s disease
d)
thyroid storm
6.
Tetany is a serious potential post-op complication of which type of surgical intervention?
a)
appendectomy
b)
colon resection
c)
gastrectomy
d)
thyroidectomy
7.
What term describes a benign condition of breast enlargement in men?
a)
gynecomastia
b)
hypoplasia
c)
macromastia
d)
micromastia
8.
Which stage of breast cancer is characterized by evidence of distal metastasis?
a)
Stage I
b)
Stage II
c)
Stage III-b
d)
Stage IV
9.
Which anatomical structure is the largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body?
a)
axillary sentinel node
b)
palatine tonsils
c)
spleen
d)
thymus
10.
Which of the following is NOT a region of the pancreas?
a)
body
b)
capsule
c)
head
d)
tail
11.
The triangle of Calot is an anatomical space bounded by structures in which surgical procedure?
a)
appendectomy
b)
cholecystectomy
c)
herniorrhaphy
d)
thyroidectomy
12.
What is achieved by insufflation of carbon dioxide into the abdominal cavity?
a)
pneumocephalus
b)
pneumocystosis
c)
pneumoperitoneum
d)
pneumothorax
13.
Where is the gallbladder located in relation to the liver?
a)
inferior surface of the left lobe
b)
superior surface of the left lobe
c)
inferior surface of the right lobe
d)
superior surface of the right lobe
14.
What is the name of the fibrous and serous capsule that covers the liver?
a)
Bowman’s
b)
Glisson’s
c)
Tenon’s
d)
articular
15.
For which surgical procedure would the Buie pile forceps be used?
a)
appendectomy
b)
breast biopsy
c)
cholecystectomy
d)
hemorrhoidectomy
16.
A typical end-to-end bowel anastomosis is accomplished with which of the following suturing techniques?
a)
one-layer, continuous technique for seromuscular approximation with absorbable suture
b)
one-layer, interrupted technique for mucosal approximation only with silk suture
c)
two-layer, continuous technique for seromuscular approximation with absorbable, interrupted for mucosa with silk suture
d)
two-layer, interrupted technique for seromuscular approximation with silk; continuous for mucosa with absorbable suture
17.
In which of the following abdominal incisions would the linea alba be opened down to the peritoneum?
a)
Kocher subcostal
b)
McBurney
c)
median vertical
d)
transverse
18.
Which incision is traditionally used for open appendectomy?
a)
McBurney
b)
median vertical
c)
paramedian
d)
Pfannenstiel
19.
A Maloney bougie dilator is used in which anatomical structure?
a)
common bile duct
b)
esophagus
c)
urethra
d)
cervix
20.
Doyen, Kocher, Dennis, and Allen are names of which type of instrument?
a)
abdominal retractors
b)
intestinal clamps
c)
laparoscopic graspers
d)
tissue scissors
21.
What does TEP stand for in general surgery?
a)
totally endoscopic pancreatectomy
b)
totally endoscopic pyloroplasty
c)
totally extraperitoneal patch
d)
totally extraperitoneal prolapse
22.
What term is used for surgical opening of the abdominal or peritoneal cavity?
a)
gastrectomy
b)
gastrostomy
c)
laparoscopy
d)
laparotomy
23.
Which type of hernia occurs below the abdominocrural crease and more frequently in females?
a)
femoral
b)
epigastric
c)
direct inguinal
d)
indirect inguinal
24.
What is another way of saying “cephalad to caudad”?
a)
back to front
b)
front to back
c)
head to tail
d)
inside to outside
25.
Which fascial sheet is attached to the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubis?
a)
innominate
b)
interparietal
c)
Scarpa’s
d)
transversalis
26.
What is another name for an acquired ventral hernia through the linea semilunaris?
a)
epigastric
b)
femoral
c)
inguinal
d)
Spigelian
27.
A gastrostomy can be created by all of the following methods EXCEPT:
a)
open
b)
endovascular
c)
laparoscopic
d)
percutaneous
28.
Which suturing technique is often used on the appendiceal stump?
a)
interrupted
b)
horizontal mattress
c)
vertical mattress
d)
pursestring
29.
Great care is taken to identify and preserve the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves in which surgical procedure?
a)
laparoscopic cholecystectomy
b)
laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication
c)
modified radical mastectomy
d)
subtotal gastrectomy
30.
Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?
a)
anterior midline
b)
posterior midline
c)
dorsal, superior and inferior
d)
ventral, superior and inferior
31.
What do the parathyroid glands regulate in the body?
a)
blood calcium concentration
b)
growth hormones
c)
immune response
d)
insulin release
32.
The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines?
a)
anterior axillary
b)
Langer’s
c)
midclavicular
d)
semilunar
33.
Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during thyroidectomy?
a)
Green
b)
Harrington
c)
malleable
d)
Weinberg
34.
What is the name of a gastric mass of indigestible vegetable fiber and hair that may require surgical excision?
a)
bezoar
b)
calculus
c)
polyp
d)
ulcer
35.
What type of hernia protrudes through the transversalis fascia in the area of Hesselbach’s triangle?
a)
direct
b)
femoral
c)
indirect
d)
umbilical
36.
What type of hernia results from a failure of the deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion into the scrotum?
a)
direct
b)
femoral
c)
indirect
d)
umbilical
37.
What is the name for the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present?
a)
diaphragmatic
b)
epigastric
c)
incisional
d)
pantaloon
38.
For which type of hernia repair could a Penrose drain be used as a method of gentle traction of the spermatic cord?
a)
laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication
b)
McVay inguinal herniorrhaphy
c)
totally extraperitoneal patch (TEP)
d)
ventral/incisional herniorrhaphy
39.
A vagotomy is a surgical treatment option for:
a)
appendicitis
b)
ductal carcinoma
c)
gastric ulcers
d)
pancreatitis
40.
Which type of intestinal obstruction involves a telescoping of a portion of the intestine into another portion?
a)
adhesive stricture
b)
fecal impaction
c)
intussusception
d)
volvulus
41.
Which type of surgical procedure is used to release abnormal tissue connections in the abdominal viscera and layers?
a)
anastomosis
b)
fundoplication
c)
herniorrhaphy
d)
lysis of adhesions
42.
End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side, and Roux-en-Y are techniques for:
a)
bowel anastomosis
b)
mastectomy wound closure
c)
mesh placement in herniorrhaphy
d)
surgical skin prep solution application
43.
In a laparoscopic appendectomy, all of the following methods could be used for dissection of the appendix EXCEPT:
a)
endoscopic linear stapler
b)
ligating loop instrument
c)
intraluminal circular stapler
d)
intracorporeal suturing instrument
44.
Which statement is CORRECT regarding polyps and diverticula in the colon?
a)
Both protrude inward into the lumen of the intestine.
b)
Both protrude outward from the lumen of the intestine.
c)
Polyps protrude inward, and diverticula protrude outward from the intestine.
d)
Diverticula protrude inward, and polyps protrude outward from the intestine.
45.
The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine?
a)
ascending
b)
descending
c)
sigmoid
d)
transverse
46.
“Bowel technique” refers to steps used by the surgical team to prevent postoperative:
a)
adhesion formation
b)
hemorrhage
c)
incisional hernia formation
d)
surgical site infection
47.
An intestinal stoma is created at a point below the costal margin, above the belt line, and at the lateral edge of which muscle?
a)
external oblique
b)
internal oblique
c)
rectus abdominus
d)
transversus abdominus
48.
Which of the following is the MOST common permanent colostomy?
a)
end
b)
loop
c)
end-loop
d)
sigmoid
49.
Which surgical position is used exclusively for anorectal surgical procedures?
a)
Kraske
b)
supine
c)
Trendelenburg
d)
reverse Trendelenburg
50.
Which type of viewing instrument would be used for surgical treatment of hemorrhoids?
a)
anoscope
b)
colonoscope
c)
laparoscope
d)
sigmoidoscope
51.
Due to the vascular and friable nature of the liver, a surgeon may choose to use suture on which type of needle?
a)
taper
b)
blunt
c)
spatula
d)
cutting
52.
What is the incision routinely used for open cholecystectomy?
a)
McBurney
b)
Pfannenstiel
c)
left subcostal
d)
right subcostal
53.
Which handheld retractor is specifically designed for use in open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver?
a)
Army-Navy (USA)
b)
Green
c)
Harrington
d)
Parker
54.
What is the reason for injecting saline through the cholangiogram catheter prior to the contrast media?
a)
The saline will dilute the contrast dye.
b)
The saline will dilate the common duct.
c)
The saline will push any stones in the cystic duct through.
d)
The saline will test patency of the cystic duct prior to injecting the contrast.
55.
A T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely exit through:
a)
a left subcostal stab wound
b)
the umbilical port site incision
c)
one of the 5 mm right port site incisions
d)
the subxiphoid 10 mm port site incision
56.
Which of the following are endocrine-secreting glands of the pancreas that make up only 1% of the organ?
a)
acini
b)
ampulla of Vater
c)
islets of Langerhans
d)
uncinate process
57.
Pancreaticoduodenectomy is also known as which of the following procedures?
a)
Bassini-Shouldice
b)
McVay
c)
Nissen
d)
Whipple
58.
A needle-localization procedure may be performed in radiology for assistance in locating discrete masses in the:
a)
breast
b)
groin
c)
liver
d)
pancreas
59.
What type of incision is made for excisional biopsy of a centrally located breast mass involving the lactiferous ducts?
a)
circumareolar
b)
elliptical
c)
inframammary
d)
paramedian
60.
What is the name for the first lymph node in the axillary chain that is frequently biopsied in conjunction with a breast biopsy, lumpectomy, or mastectomy?
a)
attendant
b)
guardian
c)
leader
d)
sentinel
61.
The surgeon may request which of the following for irrigation to aid in destroying any residual tumor cells after dissection?
a)
heparin
b)
hydrogen peroxide
c)
normal saline
d)
sterile water
62.
Surgical removal of the entire breast without any lymph nodes is a(n):
a)
excisional biopsy
b)
simple mastectomy
c)
segmental mastectomy
d)
modified radical mastectomy
63.
If a mastectomy is scheduled to follow a breast biopsy and frozen section results indicate carcinoma, what is done?
a)
Protect the field until second procedure begins.
b)
Bring up a Mayo stand with new instruments for the mastectomy.
c)
Use same instruments, but be sure to change all gloves first.
d)
Re-prep, redrape patient; team changes gowns and gloves; and use new instruments.
64.
Bifurcated drains and fluffy pressure dressings are used following mastectomy primarily to:
a)
make the change in chest contour less obvious
b)
prevent formation of hematoma and seroma
c)
provide comfort for the patient when she moves
d)
keep adhesions from forming between the skin and muscle
65.
Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called:
a)
anal fissure
b)
fistula-in-ano
c)
hemorrhoid
d)
pilonidal cyst
66.
The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.
a)
true
b)
false
67.
The upper-hand and Thompson retractors are complex self-retaining retractors frequently used in major abdominal procedures.
a)
true
b)
false
68.
Conversion from a laparoscopic procedure to an open procedure is always a possibility that the surgical technologist should be prepared for.
a)
true
b)
false
69.
A surgical technologist may “run” or operate the laparoscopic camera during minimally invasive procedures to free up the hands of the surgeon and surgical first assistant.
a)
true
b)
false
70.
Surgical skin preps for breast procedures for carcinoma should be performed vigorously and thoroughly to prevent postoperative surgical site infections in immunocompromised patients.
a)
true
b)
false
71.
Difficulty swallowing or feeling of food sticking in the esophagus
a)
Rebound pain
b)
Dysphagia
c)
Strangulated
d)
Aponeurosis
72.
Discomfort or tenderness that occurs with sudden release of pressure; a clinical sign of appendicitis
a)
Ipsilateral
b)
Rebound pain
c)
Dysphagia
d)
Rebound pain
73.
Type of hernia in which tissues are caught within a fascial defect; may become strangulated if not reduced
a)
Strangulated
b)
Lithotripsy
c)
Strangulated
d)
Dysphagia
74.
Broad sheet of fibrous tissue or expanded tendon that holds muscles together or connects muscle to bone
a)
Aponeurosis
b)
Rebound pain
c)
Ipsilateral
d)
Aponeurosis
75.
Being on or affecting the same side of the body
a)
Dysphagia
b)
Aponeurosis
c)
Ipsilateral
d)
Strangulated
76.
Antrectomy: removal of distal stomach and pylorus with anastomosis to duodenum; preferred approach for treatment of ulcer or neoplasm
a)
Rebound pain
b)
Dysphagia
c)
Ipsilateral
d)
Billroth I
77.
Double-layer membrane of peritoneum attached to back wall of abdominal cavity that supports the small intestine
a)
Mesentery
b)
Ulcerative colitis
c)
Jaundice
d)
Dysphagia
78.
Inflammatory bowel disease that causes erosions in the lining of the large intestine
a)
Rebound pain
b)
Strangulated
c)
Ulcerative colitis
d)
Aponeurosis
79.
Yellowing of the skin and eyes due to buildup of bilirubin; visible sign of certain cancers and diseases of the organs of the biliary system
a)
Dysphagia
b)
Jaundice
c)
Billroth I
d)
Rebound pain
80.
Noninvasive electro-generated shock waves used to break up calculi in the urinary or biliary system
a)
Lithotripsy
b)
Ipsilateral
c)
Dysphagia
d)
Strangulated
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