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AP Biology Review Units 4-6

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

2.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

3.

Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?

a)

cell growth

b)

gene expression

c)

secretion of molecules

d)

all of the above are responses

4.

Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor.

a)

confirmation change in shape of receptor

b)

phosphorylation of ligand

c)

ligand passes through the membrane

d)

receptor binds additional ligands

5.

Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

6.

Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

7.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

8.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

9.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

10.

Which of the following is NOT a role of mitosis?

a)

gametes

b)

tissue repair

c)

growth

d)

asexual reproduction

11.

Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring nondisjunction does not take place?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

12.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

13.

What evidence is there that cell communication is a process that has evolved over billions of years?

a)

Only cells with a nucleus are able to communicate effectively

b)

The processes are very similar in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

c)

Eukaryotic cells have much more advanced signaling pathways

d)

Prokaryotic cells are much more efficient at communicating.

14.

A mutation in a cell membrane receptor would most likely have what effect on a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Reduce the response of the pathway

b)

An alternative response will be expressed

c)

Increase ligand binding

d)

Increase ligand release from the effector cell

15.

Glucagon causes the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose for cells. What conditions would trigger the release of glucagon?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood pH

c)

High heart rate

d)

Low cellular ATP concentration

16.

This diagram shows transduction of a signal. How is the signal being transduced to its target location in the cell?

a)

A hormone is binding to an intracellular protein receptor

b)

Transport vesicles are passing neurotransmitters to neighboring cells

c)

Enzymes are passing phosphate groups down a series of proteins

d)

cAMP is formed activating a desired response

17.

Why do hormones not affect every cell in the body when they are released?

a)

All cells are affected by a hormone when it is released

b)

A cell needs a specific receptor for the hormone to be affected

c)

A cell must have the proper ATP levels to activate a cellular response

d)

Cells need compatible DNA for the hormone to activate transcription of a gene

18.

Secondary messengers that can activate or deactivate enzymes in a cell are typically part of which step of cell signaling?

a)

Reception

b)

Transduction

c)

Response

19.

If a medicine works by blocking a secondary messenger, what effect would it have on that cell signaling pathway?

a)

It would increase the response if the pathway

b)

It would trigger the release of more ligands

c)

It would activate the transcription of a desired gene

d)

It would inhibit transduction, thus deactivating the response

20.

When we are dehydrated, ADH is released which causes more water to be absorbed into our bloodstream. What type of feedback does this represent?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

21.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

a)

Insulin lowering blood sugar

b)

Immune cells releasing inflammatory cytokines

c)

Breathing faster to release excess CO2

d)

Shivering to increase blood temperature

22.

What important event happens during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The mitotic spindle forms

b)

The nuclear membrane breaks down

c)

DNA replication

d)

Sister chromatids separate

23.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the greatest amount of time in?

a)

S phase

b)

Interphase

c)

M-phase

d)

Cytokinesis

24.

Mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle will most likely lead to what disease?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Diabetes

25.

What type of cells are produced by meiosis?

a)

Haploid Somatic Cells

b)

Haploid Gametes

c)

Diploid Somatic Cells

d)

Diploid Gametes

26.

If an organism's diploid cells contain 20 chromosomes, its gametes would contain how many?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

27.

Mitosis results in ________ cells, and Meiosis results in _______ cells.

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 1

c)

2, 4

d)

4, 2

28.

What separates when cells divide in Meiosis 1

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Analogous Chromosomes

29.

What separates when cells divide in Meiosis 2

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Analogous Chromosomes

30.

A pair of chromosomes that have genes for the same characters at corresponding loci (for example, both copies of chromosome #1) are called:

a)

homozygous

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

d)

heterozygous

31.

Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.

a)

100 percent yellow-green seeds

b)

100 percent yellow seeds

c)

50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds

d)

25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds

32.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
33.

One of the main reasons genes assort independent of one another is that

a)

they produce unrelated traits

b)

they produce related traits

c)

they are on the same chromosome

d)

they are on different chromosomes.

34.

Chromosomes that do NOT play a role in determining the sex of an individual are called

a)

sex chromosoems

b)

X and Y

c)

autosomes

35.

In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?

a)

The mother carries an allele for hemophilia

b)

The father carries an allele for hemophilia

c)

The father is afflicted with hemophilia

d)

both parents carry an allele for hemophilia

36.

A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome. Which of the following could cause this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Inversion mutation

d)

Substitution mutation

37.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
38.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
39.
What fraction of offspring from the cross AaBB x Aabb will be heterozygous for both traits?
a)
1/16
b)
4/16
c)
8/16
d)
3/16
40.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
41.

What is the genotype of the great-grandfather? (top row)

a)

A_

b)

aa

c)

Aa

d)

AA

42.
X-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because
a)
The genes associated with the  X linked conditions are linked to the X chromosome, which determines maleness.
b)
Men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed
c)
Women simply do not develop the disease regardless of their genetic composition
d)
The sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women
43.
How would the DNA in a horse muscle cell compare with the DNA in a horse sperm cell?
a)
The sperm cell would have twice the DNA as the muscle cell.
b)
The sperm cell would have half as much DNA as the muscle cell.
c)
The sperm cell and muscle cell would contain the same amount of DNA.
d)
The muscle cell would have four times the DNA as the sperm cell.. 
44.
Which genes would show the highest frequency of crossing over?
a)
A-B
b)
A-D
c)
D-C
d)
B-C
45.

The F1 offspring of Mendelʹs classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties because

a)

one phenotype was completely dominant over another.

b)

each allele affected phenotypic expression.

c)

the traits blended together during fertilization.

46.

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests

a)

that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits.

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

that the parents were both heterozygous

47.

When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

48.

Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails

(t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt × BBtt will have black fur and long tails?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

3/8

d)

1/2

49.

A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is

a)

1

b)

1/2

c)

0

d)

1/6

50.

When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?

a)

The gene involved is on the X chromosome.

b)

The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.

c)

The gene involved is on an autosome.

51.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.

b)

The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 100%.

52.

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

53.

Describe the cause of a cross resulting in greater than 50% parental phenotypes and less then 50% recombinant phenotypes

a)

Genes are linked on the same chromosome

b)

Genes are located on different arms of the same chromosome

c)

Gene are on different chromosomes

d)

Gene are found in different gametes

54.

Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree.

a)

Sex-Linked

b)

Mitochondrial

c)

Autosomal

d)

Random

55.

Snowshoe hares are brown in summer and white in winter, describe this event.

a)

Hares undergo phenotypic plasticity & environment influences gene express

b)

Hares are white in winter due to the snow binding to hair follicles

c)

Hares are brown from exposed dirt in summer

d)

Hares remain hidden in the winter months inhibiting fur darken from sun

56.

Describe the process of nondisjunction.

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information

b)

The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate

c)

Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase

d)

The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote

57.

Which of the following is a predicted ratio of a dihybrid cross?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:3:4

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1:1:1

58.

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?

a)

The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.

b)

Each cell has 8 homologous pairs.

59.

Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Anaphase II

60.

Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

61.

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in the figure. If the cells were from a plant, which sample might represent a gametophyte cell?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

62.

Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

63.

Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell cycle?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

64.

A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?

a)

IAIA

b)

IBIB

c)

ii

d)

IAi

65.

SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

a)

A gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development

b)

An autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome

66.

In order for chromosomes to undergo inversion or translocation, which of the following is required?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Chromosome breakage and rejoining

67.

Which of the following are pyrimidines?

a)

adenine and cytosine

b)

adenine and guanine

c)

adenine and thymine

d)

cytosine and guanine

e)

cytosine and thymine

68.

A nucleic acid contains 35% adenine, 36% thymine, 14% guanine, and 15% cytosine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

69.

A nucleic acid consists of 29% cytosine, 35% uracil, 10% adenine, and 26% guanine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

70.

Which is not a component of DNA nucleotides?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar

71.

Double-stranded DNA has ________ bonds in-between base pairs, and _________ bonds that make up the sugar-phosphate backbone.

a)

hydrogen, covalent

b)

covalent, hydrogen

72.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
73.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
74.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

75.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
76.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
77.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
78.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
79.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
80.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
81.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
82.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
83.
Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes?
a)
elongation of the polypeptide
b)
base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c)
binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d)
the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5'cap
84.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
85.
Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides that transport amino acids to the ribosomes.
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
86.

Which site of the ribosome receives incoming tRNA during translation?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

C site

87.

In an operon, a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds prior to transcription.

a)

operator

b)

promoter

c)

initiator

d)

repressor

88.

In an operon, the sequence of DNA that serves as a binding site for a repressor, and thereby regulates the expression of structural genes.

a)

promoter

b)

inducer

c)

operator

d)

repressor

89.

Gene that codes for an enzyme in a metabolic pathway.

a)

regulator gene

b)

structural gene

c)

operon

d)

intron

90.

Molecule that binds to a repressor, allowing the repressor to bind to an operator in a repressible operon.

a)

inducer

b)

corepressor

c)

intron

d)

exon

91.

Mutation that arises as a result of anomalies in normal biological processes, such as mistakes made during DNA replication.

a)

Induced mutation

b)

spontaneous mutation

92.

Change of one base only in the sequence of bases in a gene.

a)

substitution

b)

point mutation

c)

frameshift mutation

d)

deletion

93.

Insertion or deletion of at least one base so that the reading frame of the corresponding mRNA changes.

a)

substitution

b)

point mutation

c)

deletion

d)

frameshift mutation

94.
Which of the following mutations would be MOST likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?
a)
a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene.
b)
a single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron.
c)
a single nucleotide deletion near the end of a coding sequence.
d)
a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence.
95.
What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?
a)
DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides to the 3' end of the preexisting strand.
b)
Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
c)
The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
d)
DNA ligase works only in the 3' to 5' direction
96.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
97.
Which enzyme is needed to start DNA replication?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
Topoisomerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
98.
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
a)
The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
b)
One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
c)
The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
d)
Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
99.
What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?
a)
After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.
b)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.
c)
None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.
d)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.
100.
Suppose a double-stranded DNA molecule was shown to have 15% adenine bases. What would be the expected percentage of guanine bases in that molecule?
a)
15%
b)
35%
c)
85%
d)
Not enough information
101.

The image shows part of a polypeptide. What determines the order in which the amino acids are connected to each other in the polypeptide?

a)

the chemical structure of each R-group in the amino acid

b)

the order of the the nitrogenous bases in a gene

c)

the random nature of ribosome function

d)

the sequence of amino acids that make up the gene

102.
Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism? 
a)
Nitrogen Bases
b)
Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
c)
Hydrogen bonds
103.
A certain gene codes for a polypeptide that is 120 amino acids long. Approximately how many nucleotides long is the mRNA that codes for this polypeptide likely to be?
a)
360
b)
480
c)
40
d)
30

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