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life sciences ASSESMENT 2

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Students are observing particles moving against the concentration gradient in a lab investigation. Which type of transport are they observing?

a)

osmosis

b)

active Transport

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

diffusion

2.

Students are observing particles moving with the concentration gradient in a lab investigation. Which type of transport are they observing?

a)

using pumps to move things quickly

b)

passive transport

c)

osmosis

d)

endocytosis

3.
All cells come from___________ cells.
a)
pregnant
b)
pre-existing
c)
paternal
d)
pin size
4.
______________ are the basic unit of life.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Cells
d)
Takis
5.
Which of the following scientists was the first to observe bacteria?
a)
Anton van Leuwenhoek
b)
Matthais Schleiden
c)
Robert Hooke
d)
Theodor Schwann
6.
Organisms with differences/variations that are helpful will ______________________
a)
live longer
b)
become extinct
c)
show no change
7.

In recent years "SuperBugs" (bacteria that aren't effected by antibiotics) are becoming more and more common. How could natural selection explain this?

a)

Superbugs have developed resistance because they can survive antibiotics and reproduce

b)

Antibiotics cause bacteria to become superbugs

c)

We have always had the same amount of superbugs; modern media just discusses them more.

d)

There is no reliable data on the origin of super bugs.

8.

Which of these is an example of natural selection?

a)

The largest animal in a population will have more opportunities for reproduction.

b)

Several species of organisms work together so that they all succeed.

c)

One species takes all the resources in an environment leaving none for others.

d)

Organisms that are best suited to an environment tend to survive and reproduce more often.

9.
Which of the following explains adaptation.
a)
An individual organism changes to meet its needs in the environment. These changes pass down to their offspring.
b)
The species as a whole changes their characteristics.
c)
Beneficial traits allow organism to survive and pass on those traits
d)
New characteristics arise in a species as needed.  If these traits are helpful, they are passed down.
10.

A grizzly bear survives because he is well-adapted to his environment. When he reproduces he passes on those traits to his offspring. this process is called

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Random mutations

d)

Variations in a species

11.

This is a term for physical characteristics

a)

genotype

b)

trait

c)

fitness

d)

adaptation

12.

Humans selecting which traits are preferred in an organism, and then intentionally breeding organisms for those particular sets of characteristics is known as

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

adaptations

d)

macroevolution

13.

Which of the following is NOT an example of artificial selection?

a)

Farmers selecting particular cows to breed because they produce more milk.

b)

People choosing which dogs to breed because they are good scent hounds and good at tracking.

c)

Black mice increasing over time since they blend in with black rocks of the area and can hide from predators.

14.

Which of the following, found ONLY in plant cells, provides structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

15.

What is number 2?

a)

cell membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

vacuole

16.

 

Which organelle is #3?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Vacuole

d)

Chloroplast

17.

Chloroplast in cells do this

a)

Make food for the cells

b)

Keep all the organelles within the cell

c)

Protect the cell and give it support

d)

Make energy for the cell

18.

Plant and animal cells are examples of

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

19.

PROKARYOTIC cells do NOT have

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

20.

What is nutrition?

a)

build complex molecules using simple ones

b)

Removal of cellular waste produced by an organism

c)

The means by which a living organism uses molecules from its environment.

d)

An organism’s ability to produce an offspring

21.

What is transport?

a)

The means by which a living organism takes in nutrients.

b)

absorption and circulation of materials in organism

c)

Process by which organisms increase in size and/or number of cells.

d)

Removal of cellular waste produced by an organism

22.

What is Synthesis?

a)

To build complex molecules using simpler ones

b)

to absorb and circulate material

c)

convert food energy to ATP

d)

to remove metabolic wastes

23.

What is cellular respiration?

a)

Food energy changed to energy used for life processes (ATP)

b)

relies on the nervous and endocrine system

c)

removal of cellular waste

d)

ability to produce offspring

24.

What is regulation?

a)

how an organism maintains homeostasis

b)

ability to produce offspring

c)

Process by which organisms increase in size and/or number of cells.

d)

removal of metabolic wastes

25.

What is reproduction?

a)

ability to produce offspring

b)

build complex molecules from simple ones

c)

move around materials

d)

means by which a living organism uses molecules from its environment

26.

What is excretion?

a)

move around material

b)

convert food energy to ATP

c)

removal of cellular (metabolic) waste

d)

ability to produce offspring

27.

Which is not a form of excretion?

a)

urine

b)

sweat

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

feces

28.

What type of organism produces its own food?

a)

reproduction

b)

autotroph

c)

heterotroph

d)

excretion

29.

What type of organism has to acquire and ingest food from its environment?

a)

heterotroph

b)

autotroph

c)

homeostasis

d)

metabolism

30.

What is metabolism?

a)

The sum of all chemical reactions (all 8 life functions) in an organism

b)

Condition of maintaining a stable internal environment

c)

process of producing offspring

d)

move things around

31.

What is homeostasis?

a)

Condition of maintaining a stable internal environment

b)

The sum of all chemical reactions (all 8 life functions) in an organism

c)

producing their own food through photosynthesis

d)

converting food energy to usable energy ATP

32.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
33.
Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
34.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
35.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

36.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
37.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
38.

This type of mutation in DNA alters just one base in a DNA sequence

a)

point mutation

b)

translocation

c)

inversion

d)

trisomy

39.

In this type of point mutation, one extra base pair is inserted into a sequence of DNA

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

translocation

40.

The bottom DNA sequence in the image has been altered by this type of mutation

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

translocation

41.

chromosomal mutations cause a segment of the chromosome to repeat itself during replication.

a)

inversion

b)

duplication

c)

translocation

d)

deletion

42.
mutations cause changes in traits because?
a)
mutations affect nucleosynthesis 
b)
Mutations affect gamete production 
c)
mutation affect meiosis
d)
mutations affect protein synthesis
43.
if a single nucleotide base is added or deleted the entire reading frame will?
a)
shift, causing a frameshift mutation
b)
move, causing a delection
c)
move, causing an addition
d)
shift, causing a deletion
44.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)

physical expression of the genes.

b)

the possible combination of alleles in a gene.

c)

whether an allele is dominant or recessive.

d)

how an organism will appear.

45.

Genes are

a)

sequences within histones that contain information in the sequence of nucleotide bases that encodes a product (RNA or a protein).

b)

sequences within chromatin that contain information in the sequence of nucleotide bases that encodes a product (RNA or a protein).

c)

sequences within genes that contain information in the sequence of nucleotide bases that encodes a product (RNA or a protein).

d)

sequences within chromosomes that contain information in the sequence of nucleotide bases that encodes a product (RNA or a protein).

46.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
47.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Yy
b)
Y
c)
yy
d)
YY
48.

Who is considered the "father" of modern genetics?

a)

Einstein

b)

Mendel

c)

Disney

d)

Washington

49.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
50.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
51.

What is the probability that the offspring will express the dominant trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

52.

What terms should replace X and Y in the table?

a)

elements; compounds

b)

abiotic; biotic

c)

microscopic; macroscopic

d)

natural; man-made

53.
A group of similar cells that come together to perform a specific function is a/an
a)
organ
b)
organism
c)
organ system
d)
tissue
54.
When a group of organs work together to perform a particular function they create a/an
a)
organ system
b)
organism
c)
tissue
d)
organ
55.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?
a)
a.  Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
b)
a.  Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism
c)
a.  Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
a.  Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
56.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
57.

Your body is too hot. What senses your body temperature?

a)

nerve cells

b)

sweat cells

c)

blood cells

d)

muscle cells

58.

When your bladder is full, a signal is sent to your brain to let you know to go to the bathroom.

What is the stimulus?

a)

the signal

b)

full bladder

c)

going to the bathroom

d)

your brain

59.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
60.

What body system takes nutrients and oxygen to and carbon dioxide and waste from the cells?

a)

circulatory system

b)

nervous system

c)

digestive system

d)

respiratory system

61.

What body system breaks down food?

a)

circulatory system

b)

nervous system

c)

digestive system

d)

respiratory system

62.

What body system controls movement of the human body?

a)

circulatory system

b)

nervous system

c)

digestive system

d)

respiratory system

63.

The nervous system is made up of which of the following organs?

a)

brain, nerves and spinal cord

b)

cells, lungs and heart

c)

heart, blood vessels and blood

d)

skin, tissues and muscles

64.
The major organs of this system allow movement in the body; there are three major types - cardiac, skeletal, and smooth.
a)
SKELETAL
b)
MUSCULAR
c)
INTEGUMENTARY
d)
DIGESTIVE
65.

The human body receives sensory information from its surroundings. The body knows when food is warm or cold and whether an object is smooth or fuzzy. The body sends signals to other parts of the body, which then respond to the information. Which organ processes the sensory information the body receives?

a)

brain

b)

skin

c)

heart

d)

stomach

66.

Which is NOT a process of the water cycle?

a)
precipitation
b)
freezing
c)
transpiration
d)
evaporation
67.

What is the largest reservoir for water?

a)

the ocean

b)

rocks and minerals

c)

the atmosphere

d)

glaciers

68.

What is the largest reservoir for nitrogen?

a)

the ocean

b)

rocks and minerals

c)

the atmosphere

d)

bacteria

69.

Where is the largest reservoir for the phosphorus cycle?

a)

rocks and minerals

b)

the ocean

c)

the atmopshere

d)

fossil fuels

70.

Photosynthesis is an important part of the ______ cycle

a)

Carbon

b)

Water

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Nitrogen

71.

Decomposition is part of all cycles except _______

a)

the carbon cycle

b)

the nitrogen cycle

c)

the water cycle

d)

the phosphorus cycle

72.
How do animals get nitrogen?
a)
the atmosphere 
b)
eating other organisms
c)
rainwater
d)
lightning 
73.

The only organisms that can fix atmospheric nitrogen into chemical compounds are what?

a)

virus

b)

bacteria and lightening

c)

carbon

d)

none of these

74.

Which biogeochemical cycle is occurring above?

a)

Carbon cycle

b)

Water cycle

c)

Rock Cycle

75.

What biogeochemical cycle is occuring?

a)

Water cycle

b)

Carbon Cycle

76.

Which type of Epidemiological Study does NOT have a hypothesis?

a)

Descriptive

b)

Experimental

c)

Analytic

d)

They all have a hypothesis.

77.

What are viruses, bacteria, and organisms in the environment that causes human health classified as?

a)

social hazards

b)

biological hazards

c)

chemical hazards

d)

physical hazards

78.

Infectious diseases are diseases caused by an organism such as a virus or a bacterium, which is called a:

a)

pathogen

b)

toxicant

c)

pandemic

d)

carcinogen

79.

The process of measuring the chance that an environmental hazard will cause harm is called what?

a)

toxicology

b)

epidemiology

c)

dose-response relationship

d)

risk assessment

80.

What is a vector?

a)

pathogen

b)

organism that carries pathogen

c)

type of infectious disease

d)

type of emerging disease

81.
A disease that has appeared in the human population for the first time or that has existed for a while, but is increasing rapidly or spreading around the world is called
a)
environmental
b)
pandemic
c)
emerging
d)
infection
82.
What is the purpose of photosynthesis?
a)
make glucose
b)
make ATP
c)
make light
d)
release carbon dioxide
83.
Cellular Respiration's goal is to
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
84.

The mitochondria is responsible for ...

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

85.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
86.
Which organisms perform Photosynthesis?
a)
Only Autotrophs
b)
Only Heterotrophs
c)
Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
87.

Aerobic cellular respiration produces about ____ ATP per glucose, but anaerobic cellular respiration only supplies about _____ ATP per glucose molecule.

a)

2, 36

b)

36, 2

c)

0, 15

d)

15, 0

88.

Which of the following depicts the central dogma of molecular biology?

a)

RNA→Protein→DNA

b)

DNA→RNA→Protein

c)

Protein→RNA→DNA

d)

RNA→DNA→Protein

89.

Which of the following organelles is found in plant cells, but not in animal cells?

a)

Golgi body

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Chloroplast

90.

Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a)

Chimpanzees are humans' most recent common ancestor

b)

Humans are chimpanzees' most recent common ancestor

c)

It is impossible to tell the evolutionary relationship between chimpanzees and humans without further fossil evidence

d)

Chimpanzees and humans share a recent common ancestor

91.

Which of the following statements about homeostasis is correct?

a)

Once a cell deviates from equilibrium it cannot be restored and must be destroyed

b)

Negative feedback is designed to maintain homeostasis

c)

Both positive and negative feedback are designed to maintain homeostasis

d)

Positive feedback is designed to maintain homeostasis

92.

Which of the following statements about bacteria is correct?

a)

Bacteria are considered by scientists to be alive

b)

Bacteria are neither alive nor dead

c)

All bacteria require a host organism to infect

d)

Bacteria cells have the same general structures and organelles as animal cells

93.

A food chain is a group or organisms related to each other in their feeding habits. One organism is eaten by a second one, which in turn is fed upon by a third one. The food chain starts with energy from the Sun. As each organism grows and is eaten, only about 10 percent of the Sun's energy is transferred at each step. People who live in areas of the world where food is scarce eat very little meat and depend on grains and other plants. Based on the ideas presented, which of the following statements best supports such eating habits?

a)

It is easier to grow plants than raise animals.

b)

Plants taste better than meat from animals.

c)

More than 90 percent of the energy in plants never reaches people who eat the animals raised on the plants.

d)

Plants store energy in sugar molecules.

94.

Scientist hypothesized that increased human activities in an area results to increased nutrient loading causing an increased frequency and severity of algal blooms in that area. Which hypothesis would be better for the researcher to use?

a)

If human activity increases in an area, less severe algal blooms will be expected.

b)

If the population increases in a certain area, higher frequency of algal blooms will be expected.

c)

If the population increases in a certain area, then more nutrients will be available for algae to grow.

d)

If the population increases in a certain area, then a larger area will be covered by the algal blooms.

95.

A physician discovers that he has cancer. His family urges him to begin drug therapy. The physician knows that cancer drugs act by killing cells that are dividing. He is reluctant to undergo treatment. His family does not understand why. Which one of the following statements indicates that his family may not fully understand how cancer drugs work?

a)

Drug therapy works against some types of cancers.

b)

Many drugs used in cancer therapy cause cells to die when they divide.

c)

The drugs kill cancer cells because they rarely stop dividing.

d)

A cell that divides often is more likely to be killed by the cancer drug

96.

Read the following list of organisms in the Alaskan marine food web:

I. rats

II. puffins

III. cephalopods

IV. sand lance

Based on the graphic, which of these organisms preys on the fox?

A food chain is simply "who eats what." A food web weaves together many food chains to form a complicated network of feeding relationships among different plants and animals. Many animals eat more than one thing, and each link in each chain is important and integral to the entire system.

Pictured here is an example of a marine food web in Alaska. Notice that this food web illustrates the relationships between producers (plants that make their own food using chlorophyll and the sun's energy) and consumers (animals that eat producers and other animals). It also shows the relationship between predators (animals that hunt and eat other animals) and prey (the animals which are hunted).

a)

I only

b)

IV only

c)

III and IV

d)

None of these organisms preys on the fox.

97.

How many lionfish were observed in the East Flower Garden Bank region of the Flower Garden Banks National Marine Sanctuary (FGBNMS) in 2013?

Invasive Lionfish

The common name “lionfish” refers to two closely related and nearly indistinguishable species that are invasive in US waters. Lionfish, which are native to the South Pacific and Indian Oceans, were first detected along Florida coasts in the mid-1980s, but their populations have swelled dramatically in the past 15 years. Lionfish are popular aquarium fish, so it is plausible that repeated escapes into the wild via aquarium releases are the cause for the invasion. Lionfish now inhabit reefs, wrecks, and other habitat types in the warm marine waters of the greater Atlantic.

As lionfish populations grow, they put additional stress on coral reefs already struggling from the effects of climate change, pollution, disease, overfishing, sedimentation, and other stressors. For example, lionfish eat herbivores and herbivores eat algae from coral reefs. Without herbivores, algal growth goes unchecked, which can be detrimental to the health of coral reefs.

Adult lionfish are primarily fish-eaters and have very few predators outside of their home range. Because lionfish feed on prey normally consumed by snappers, groupers, and other commercially important native species, their presence could negatively affect the well-being of valuable commercial and recreational fisheries.

Lionfish continue to expand at astonishing speeds and are harming native coral reef ecosystems in the Atlantic, Gulf of Mexico, and Caribbean. The first lionfish recorded in the Western Atlantic (east coast of the United States, Caribbean Sea and Gulf of Mexico) was a specimen captured near Dania, Florida in 1985. No other lionfish sightings were reported until 1992. The most likely source of these fish was the home aquarium trade.

At first, the spread of the lionfish population was rather gradual, but in 2000 the number of sightings began to increase exponentially. By 2009, lionfish were pretty well established along the Atlantic coast and throughout the Caribbea

In 2010, sightings were also recorded in the northwestern Gulf of Mexico, along the coasts of Alabama, Mississippi and Louisiana. In July 2011, the first lionfish was observed in the Flower Garden Banks National Marine Sanctuary (FGBNMS). By the end of 2015, over 2,600lionfish were observed within the sanctuary. About 1,500 of those were successfully removed and analyzed for important data.

Experts say it is unlikely that we will ever be able to completely eliminate lionfish from the Western Atlantic. So, the objective now is to minimize their impact on sanctuary resources. At this time, sanctuary policy is to remove any lionfish encountered. Research has shown that targeted removals in localized areas can be an effective control mechanism.

a)

89

b)

172

c)

323

d)

265

98.

The average germination rate of these five students, expressed as a percentage, is 67.2%. Is using the average appropriate in this scenario?

Growing Pea Plants

Mrs. Smith’s science class is growing pea plants. Each of her 25 students initially plants 30 pea seeds.

Once the plants start growing, Mrs. Smith asks her students to count the number of seeds that have germinated. She then selects five students to report their results to the class. They report their results as number of germinated seeds (out of 30) and as a percentage

a)

No. The average is not an appropriate measure, because it does not show the variation in germination rates.


b)

No. The average is not an appropriate measure, because none of the samples actually had a germination rate of 67.2%.


c)

Yes. The average is an appropriate measure, because it gives an overall picture of the germination rates for the sample.

d)

Yes. The average is an appropriate measure, because it shows that pea seeds will always have a 67.2% germination rate.

99.

According to the passage, which of the following best describes how a bottom-up cascade would reduce population size throughout the community?

Trophic Cascade

Trophic cascades occur when predators in a food web alter the behavior of their prey, thereby releasing the next lower trophic level from predation. For example, if the abundance of large piscivorous fish is increased in a lake, the abundance of their prey, smaller fish that eat zooplankton, should decrease. The resulting increase in zooplankton should, in turn, cause the biomass of its prey, phytoplankton, to decrease.

The trophic cascade is an ecological concept which has stimulated new research in many areas of ecology. For example, it can be important for understanding the knock-on effects of removing top predators from food webs, as humans have done in many places through hunting and fishing.

A top-down cascade is a trophic cascade where the food chain or food web is disrupted by the removal of a top predator, or a third or fourth level consumer. On the other hand, a bottom-up cascade occurs when a primary producer, or primary consumer is removed

a)

The removal of the piscivorous fish population would cause an increase in the size of the smaller fish population. The smaller fish would then eat more of the zooplankton, leading to an increase in the size of the phytoplankton community.

b)

The removal of the zooplankton population would allow phytoplankton to flourish. However, the smaller fish would no longer have a source of food, causing their population to decline rapidly. As the smaller fish died off, the piscivorous fish would also lose their food source, so their population size would also decline.

c)

A small increase in the piscivorous fish population would lead to a slight decrease of the smaller fish. With less smaller fish present, the zooplankton population would increase slightly, leading to a slight decrease in the phytoplankton population.

d)

The removal of the smaller fish would cause an increase in the size of the zooplankton population. With an excess of zooplankton, the phytoplankton population would decline rapidly. Additionally, without the smaller fish, the piscivorous fish would not have any source of food, and their population would also decline rapidly.

100.

Choose the phrase that best completes the following sentence:

There are two types of bone marrow, red and yellow. Yellow marrow functions in _____.

The Human Skeletal System

Humans are vertebrates, animals having a vertebral column or backbone. They rely on a sturdy internal frame that is centered on a prominent spine. The human skeletal system consists of bones, cartilage, ligaments and tendons and accounts for about 20 percent of the body weight.

The living bones in our bodies use oxygen and give off waste products in metabolism. They contain active tissues that consume nutrients, require a blood supply and change shape or remodel in response to variations in mechanical stress.

Bones provide a rigid framework, known as the skeleton, that support and protect the soft organs of the body. The skeleton supports the body against the pull of gravity. The large bones of the lower limbs support the trunk when standing. The skeleton also protects the soft body parts. The fused bones of the cranium surround the brain to make it less vulnerable to injury. Vertebrae surround and protect the spinal cord and bones of the rib cage help protect the heart and lungs of the thorax. Bones work together with muscles as simple mechanical lever systems to produce body movement.

Bones contain more calcium than any other organ. The intercellular matrix of bone contains large amounts of calcium salts, the most important being calcium phosphate. When blood calcium levels decrease below normal, calcium is released from the bones so that there will be an adequate supply for metabolic needs. When blood calcium levels are increased, the excess calcium is stored in the bone matrix. The dynamic process of releasing and storing calcium goes on almost continuously.

Hematopoiesis, the formation of blood cells, mostly takes place in the red marrow of the bones. In infants, red marrow is found in the bone cavities. With age, it is largely replaced by yellow marrow for fat storage. In adults, red marrow is limited to the spongy bone in the skull, ribs, sternum, clavicles, vertebrae and pelvis. Red marrow functions in the formation of red blood cells, white blood cells and blood platelets.

a)

fat storage

b)

production of red blood cells

c)

production of white blood cells

d)

production of blood platelets

101.

Which of the following examples best represents speciation?

Speciation

Speciation is the evolutionary process by which biological populations evolve to become distinct species. The biologist Orator F. Cook coined the term speciation in 1906, but Charles Darwin was the first to describe the role of speciation in his 1859 book The Origin of Species.

There are four geographic modes of speciation in nature, based on the extent to which speciating populations are isolated from one another: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric. Allopatric and peripatric are the two most observed modes of speciation.

During allopatric speciation, a population splits into two geographically isolated populations. The isolated populations then undergo genotypic or phenotypic divergence as they become subjected to dissimilar selective pressures and as different mutations arise. When the populations come back into contact, they have evolved such that they are reproductively isolated and are no longer capable of exchanging genes.

The Galápagos Islands are particularly famous for their confirmation of allopatric speciation. During Charles Darwin’s five weeks on the Galápagos Islands, he noticed that finches differed from one island to another. When he returned to England, his speculation on evolution deepened after experts informed him that these were separate species, not just varieties. Darwin's finches are now one of the most well-known examples of adaptive evolution and allopatric speciation discussed in biology today.

In peripatric speciation, a sub-form of allopatric speciation, new species are formed in isolated, smaller peripheral populations that are prevented from exchanging genes with the main population. Since this is a sub-form of allopatric speciation, it is often difficult to determine if peripatric speciation occurs. The biggest indicator of peripatric speciation is that the isolated species will be a much smaller group than the non-isolated population.

a)

Dogs across the world have similar characteristics.


b)

Galapagos finches on different islands developed different types of beaks.

c)

Pigeons around the United States were captured and found to have similar beaks.

d)

Wooly mammoth remains were found on four different continents

102.

Read the following statements that describe the circulation of blood in the human body:

I. Systemic arteries carry oxygenated blood from the left ventricle of the heart to the body tissues.

II. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.

III. Systemic veins carry blood with low oxygen content from the tissues of the body to the right atrium of the heart.

IV. Pulmonary arteries carry blood with low oxygen content from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs.

Which series of processes correctly lists the order that blood circulates through the body??

Blood Vessels

Blood vessels are the channels or conduits through which blood is distributed to body tissues. The vessels make up two closed systems of tubes that begin and end at the heart. One system, the pulmonary vessels, transports blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and back to the left atrium. The other system, the systemic vessels, carries blood from the left ventricle to the tissues in all parts of the body and then returns the blood to the right atrium. Based on their structure and function, blood vessels are classified as either arteries, capillaries, or veins.

Arteries carry blood away from the heart. Pulmonary arteries transport blood that has a low oxygen content from the right ventricle to the lungs. Systemic arteries transport oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body tissues. Blood is pumped from the ventricles into large elastic arteries that branch repeatedly into smaller and smaller arteries until the branching results in microscopic arteries called arterioles. The arterioles play a key role in regulating blood flow into the tissue capillaries.

Capillaries, the smallest and most numerous of the blood vessels, form the connection between the vessels that carry blood away from the heart (arteries) and the vessels that return blood to the heart (veins). The primary function of capillaries is the exchange of materials between the blood and tissue cells.

Veins carry blood toward the heart. After blood passes through the capillaries, it enters the smallest veins, called venules. From the venules, it flows into progressively larger and larger veins until it reaches the heart. In the pulmonary circuit, the pulmonary veins transport blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. This blood has a high oxygen content because it has just been oxygenated in the lungs. Systemic veins transport blood from the body tissue to the right atrium of the heart. This blood has a reduced oxygen content because the oxygen has been used for metabolic activities in the tissue cells.

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

IV, II, I, III

c)

II, I, IV, III

d)

III, I, IV, II

103.

Which quote from the passage supports the idea that speciation is generally incidental (likely to happen as a result of some event occurring)?

Hybrid Incompatibility

Speciation is the evolutionary process by which a biological population evolves to become two or more distinct species. These different species usually cannot reproduce with one another due to intrinsic reproductive barriers. If two species cannot successfully reproduce, they are said to have hybrid incompatibility.

So what causes speciation? In many cases, speciation occurs as populations adapt to different environments. Sometimes these adaptations cause the species to become reproductively incompatible. Two of the main reproductive barriers are hybrid sterility and hybrid lethality. Hybrid sterility means that two species are genetically incapable of producing an offspring. Hybrid lethality, on the other hand, means that two species are able to create an embryo, but the embryo will not fully develop into a viable offspring.


a)

“ populations adapt to different environments.”

b)

“ species usually cannot reproduce with one another due to intrinsic reproductive barriers.”​

c)

“ the embryo will not fully develop into a viable offspring.”​

d)

“ the main reproductive barriers are hybrid sterility and hybrid lethality.”​

104.

A scientist claims that she found evidence of mitosis and meiosis in human cells she has been observing. Is she correct? Why or why not?

Mitosis vs. Meiosis

Mitosis and meiosis are both forms of division of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. They share some similarities, but also exhibit distinct differences that lead to very different outcomes.

Mitosis is a single nuclear division of a non-germ cell that results in two nuclei partitioned into two new cells. The nuclei resulting from a mitotic division are genetically identical to the original nucleus, with the same number of sets of chromosomes. In most plants and all animal species, it is typically diploid cells that undergo mitosis to form new diploid cells. Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes, or two of each type of chromosome.

In contrast, meiosis consists of two nuclear divisions of germ cells resulting in four nuclei that are partitioned into four new haploid cells. The nuclei resulting from meiosis are not genetically identical and they contain only one chromosome set instead of two. This is half the number of chromosome sets in the original diploid parent cell.

a)

She is correct. All human cells go through the process of mitosis and meiosis throughout their life cycle.

b)

She might be correct. It depends on which types of cells she is observing.

c)

She is not correct. Human cells only go through the process of meiosis, not mitosis.

d)

She is not correct. Human cells only go through the process of mitosis, not meiosis.

105.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why cells divide mitotically?

Function of Mitosis


Mitosis is the process of cell division. There are three reasons why cells divide mitotically:

Mitosis is the process of cell division. There are three reasons why cells divide mitotically:

1. Cell Replacement

2. Growth

3. Asexual Reproduction

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

cell replacement

c)

growth

d)

sperm cell production