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Semester 2 Final Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following organisms is considered an autotroph/producer?

a)

lion

b)

caterpillar

c)

grass

d)

bunny

2.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?

a)

soil

b)

trees

c)

birds

d)

humans

3.

Which of the following is a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a)

soil

b)

temperature

c)

water

d)

plants

4.

In ecology, a population is defined as all the

a)

members of a single species in the biosphere.

b)

members of a single species inhabiting a given area.

c)

abiotic and biotic factors in a given location.

d)

members of different species inhabiting a given area.

5.

The amount of energy lost as heat in an ecosystem as you go from one trophic level to another is...

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

100%

d)

0.1%

6.

The letters in the diagram represent the processes involved in the water cycle. Which letter represents the process of transpiration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

The letters in the diagram represent the processes involved in the water cycle. Which letter represents the process of precipitation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

8.

The numbers on the diagram represent the processes involved in the carbon cycle. Which number represents the process of photosynthesis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

6

9.

The numbers on the diagram represent the processes involved in the carbon cycle. Which number represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

10.

Which type of ecological succession does the diagram show?

a)

primary succession

b)

pioneer succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

climax succession

11.

Primary succession starts with ....

a)

bare rock

b)

soil

c)

shrubs

d)

small plants

12.

Which of the following is considered to be a pioneer species in primary succession?

a)

small plants

b)

moss and lichen

c)

large trees

d)

soil

13.

Which of the following would be considered a community?

a)

a worker bee

b)

a hive of bees

c)

bees, birds, wildflowers, trees

d)

rocks, soil, bees, birds, trees, pond

14.

The area in which an organism lives is its...

a)

niche

b)

habitat

c)

population

d)

community

15.

The role or the way an organism lives in its environment is known as its...

a)

niche

b)

habitat

c)

population

d)

community

16.

The movement of individuals out of an area is called ________.

a)

birth rate

b)

death rate

c)

immigration

d)

emigration

17.

The movement of individuals into an area is called ________.

a)

birth rate

b)

death rate

c)

immigration

d)

emigration

18.

Which two factors can cause a population to grow?

a)

birth rate and immigration

b)

death rate and emigration

c)

birth rate and emigration

d)

death rate and immigration

19.

Genetic drift is

a)

the movement of organisms between populations.

b)

changes in allele frequency caused by random events.

c)

physical isolation of a population by geography.

d)

immigration and emigration among populations.

20.

Which of the following is considered a decomposer in an ecosystem?

a)

plants

b)

soil

c)

bacteria

d)

a hawk

21.

The bar graph shows the relative biomass of four different populations of a particular food pyramid. Which of the following most likely represents the producers/autotrophs in this ecosystem?

a)

Population A

b)

Population B

c)

Population C

d)

Population D

22.

In a marine ecosystem, algae are able to use sunlight and inorganic materials to make their own food. Clams feed on the algae by filtering them out of the water. In this ecosystem, the clams act as

a)

carnivores

b)

primary consumers

c)

producers

d)

secondary consumers

23.

The diagram shows a food chain. Based on the food chain shown the fish can be classified as

a)

a producer.

b)

a primary consumer.

c)

a secondary consumer.

d)

a tertiary consumer.

24.

Based on the diagram of a biomass pyramid, which statement best explains why the total biomass of snakes is less than that of the other members of the ecosystem?

a)

The greatest amount of available energy is found at the top level of the pyramid.

b)

There is a decrease in available energy at each higher trophic level of the pyramid.

c)

The total energy of the producers is less than the total energy of the consumers.

d)

There is more energy available at the consumer level than at the producer level.

25.

The diagram shows a food chain. Based on the food chain which of the organisms would be considered a producer/autotroph?

a)

phytoplankton

b)

krill

c)

fish

d)

killer whale

26.

A heterozygous organism has

a)

three different alleles for a trait.

b)

two identical alleles for a trait.

c)

only one allele for a trait.

d)

two different alleles for a trait.

27.

A DNA molecule is a polymer composed of subunits known as

a)

nucleotides.

b)

amino acids.

c)

sugars.

d)

uracil molecules.

28.

An organism's expressed traits, such as hair color or shape, are called its

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

gametes

29.
  1. The appearance of a recessive trait in offspring of animals most probably indicates that

a)

one parent was homozygous dominant and the other parent was hybrid for that trait.

b)

neither parent carried a recessive gene for that trait.

c)

both parents carried at least one recessive gene for that trait.

d)

 one parent was homozygous dominant and the other parent was homozygous recessive for that trait.

30.
  1. Which pair of molecules, when bonded together, would most likely be found in a nucleotide of DNA?

a)

deoxyribose and uracil.

b)

ribose and thymine.

c)

ribose and adenine.

d)

deoxyribose and guanine.

31.
  1. In a population of dogs, curly hair is dominant over straight hair. If two parents are heterozygous for this trait what is the probability that any of their offspring will have straight hair?

a)

50%

b)

0%

c)

25%

d)

100%

32.

From the 20 common amino acids, organisms build thousands of different proteins. This is because the

a)

each amino acid will have different properties.

b)

chemical make-up amino acids can change in different molecules.

c)

amino acids have numerous forms.

d)

sequence and number of amino acids vary.

33.

What is the site of protein synthesis in cells?

a)

chromosomes

b)

ribosomes

c)

nuclei

d)

vacuoles

34.

Unlike DNA, RNA contains

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

phosphate groups

d)

thymine

35.
  1. A mutation has occurred and a chunk of DNA has been lost, as shown below.  When repaired by an enzyme what would be the replacement?

C A T C C G A A T

G T A _ _ _ T T A 

a)

CCG

b)

TTA

c)

GCC

d)

GGC

36.

Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint for the genetic code (DNA)?

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

37.

Which type of RNA molecule carries amino acids?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

RNA Polymerase

38.

Mutations can be transmitted to the next generation only if they are present in

a)

brain cells

b)

muscle cells

c)

body cells

d)

sex cells

39.

Which of the following represents a genetically normal male's chromosomes?

a)

XXY

b)

XY

c)

XX

d)

YY

40.

Which genotype is heterozygous?

a)

Bb

b)

bb

c)

cc

d)

AA

41.

In eukaryotes, DNA

a)

is located in the nucleus.

b)

floats freely in the cytoplasm.

c)

is located in the ribosome.

d)

is circular.

42.

A pedigree can be used to

a)

determine whether a trait is inherited.

b)

show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.

c)
  1. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.

d)

all of the above

43.

A person who is a carrier for a trait is said to

a)

be homozygous for the trait

b)

be heterozygous

c)

have the trait

d)

all of the above

44.
  1. The correct order of molecules involved in protein synthesis is

a)

messenger RNA, transfer RNA, DNA, protein

b)

DNA, messenger RNA, transfer RNA, protein

c)

protein, transfer RNA, DNA, messenger RNA

d)

DNA, messenger RNA, protein, transfer RNA

45.
  1. The remains or impressions of organisms preserved in petrified form or as a mold or cast in rocks are called . . .

a)

footprints.

b)

cells.

c)

radioactive isotopes.

d)

fossils.

46.
  1. Which of the following is a method for determining which rocks or events are older or younger in relation to other objects or events?

a)

Absolute Dating

b)

Relative Dating

c)

Absolute Sequencing

d)

Relative Sequencing

47.

Any variation that can help an organism survive in its environment is called a(n) ______.

a)

characteristic

b)

mutation

c)

gene

d)

adaptation

48.
  1. Earth’s most recent era is the ____.

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Mesozoic Era

c)

Cenozoic Era

d)

Paleozoic Era

49.
  1. The time needed for half of a sample of a radioactive element to decay is called its

a)

Relative age.

b)

half-life

c)

absolute age

d)

isotope age

50.
  1. Evolution can best be described as

a)

a process of change through time.

b)

a process of growth in an organism.

c)

the change in size of body structures through use and disuse.

d)

the formation of fossils.

51.
  1. A population of finches that have three different beaks live on an island. Each beak type is adapted to one of three specific food sources. Two of the three food sources are eliminated during a drought. What will happen first to this finch population?

a)

The finch population that is best adapted to the remaining food source will survive.

b)

The food sources will adapt to the finches.

c)

All three finch populations will die.

d)

Only two of the finch populations will adapt to the remaining food source.

52.
  1. Which is the best example of natural selection?

a)

Organisms with beneficial genetic variations tend to survive and reproduce.

b)

The environment changes and the organisms migrate to a more favorable environment.

c)

Organisms of one species cooperate to force other species to migrate or become extinct.

d)

Organisms of one species cooperate to force other species to migrate or become extinct.

53.
  1. Genetic drift is …

a)

physical isolation of a population by geography.

b)

the movement of organisms between populations.

c)

changes in allele frequency caused by random events.

d)

 immigration and emigration among populations.

54.

Mutations within a cell’s DNA are

a)

naturally occurring and because they are harmful, they will limit genetic variation.

b)

 unnatural and are always harmful.

c)

naturally occurring and produce genetic variation.

d)

common and always change phenotypes.

55.

A change in DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variation is called a

a)

mutation

b)

nucleotide

c)

mistake

d)

frameshift

56.
  1. Which of the following mutations cause a frameshift?

a)

deletion and substitution

b)

substitution and insertion

c)

silent mutation

d)

 insertion and deletion

57.

Which type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein?

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

silent

d)

substitution

58.
  1. According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a)

the fewest number of offspring.

b)

 variations best suited for their environment.

c)

characteristics their parents acquire by use and disuse.

d)

characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.

59.
  1. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of natural evolutionary change?

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Mutations

d)

Artificial selection

60.

Scientists use radiometric dating (radioactive decay) to measure

a)

time of day.

b)

half-life.

c)

relative age.

d)

absolute age.