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WorksheetsST CH22
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 3hrs 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which instrument has the appearance of a misshapen pancake spatula?
a)
Allison lung retractor
b)
Bailey rib contractor
c)
Davidson scapula retractor
d)
Lovelace lung grasping forceps
2.
How many ribs are considered “true” ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage?
a)
three
b)
seven
c)
nine
d)
twelve
3.
For which of the following procedures would the rigid bronchoscope be preferred?
a)
visualization of the upper lobe bronchi
b)
removal of foreign body in children
c)
transbronchial lung biopsy
d)
bronchial washings
4.
Lung tissue has what kind of consistency?
a)
friable
b)
slimy
c)
calcified
d)
elastic
5.
Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm?
a)
accessory
b)
hypoglossal
c)
phrenic
d)
vagus
6.
In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope?
a)
bronchoscopy
b)
mediastinoscopy
c)
pectus excavatum via VATS
d)
video-assisted thoracic surgery
7.
Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior?
a)
bronchus
b)
diaphragm
c)
larynx
d)
trachea
8.
Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree?
a)
alveoli
b)
bronchi
c)
bronchioles
d)
lobes of the lung
9.
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are portions of the:
a)
ribs
b)
lungs
c)
sternum
d)
bronchial tree
10.
All of the following structures are found within the mediastinum EXCEPT:
a)
heart
b)
thymus
c)
esophagus
d)
diaphragm
11.
Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs?
a)
ciliated mucosa
b)
pericardium
c)
parietal pleura
d)
visceral pleura
12.
What is the medical term for coughing up blood?
a)
asthma
b)
bronchitis
c)
hemoptysis
d)
pneumonitis
13.
How many lobes are there in the right lung?
a)
two
b)
three
c)
four
d)
five
14.
In which part of the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
a)
alveoli
b)
bronchi
c)
bronchioles
d)
pulmonary vein
15.
Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct?
a)
right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left ventricle
b)
right ventricle, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium
c)
right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left ventricle
d)
right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium
16.
What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens?
a)
aerobic culture tube
b)
insufflation tubing
c)
myringotomy tube
d)
Lukens tube
17.
What is the medical term for visible changes in density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology?
a)
hemoptysis
b)
hilum
c)
infiltrate
d)
inspiration
18.
Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure?
a)
bronchoscopy
b)
laryngoscopy
c)
mediastinoscopy
d)
thoracoscopy
19.
Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope?
a)
suprasternal notch
b)
oropharynx
c)
subxiphoid
d)
umbilicus
20.
What is the name of an air-filled sac that has the appearance of a blister on the surface of lung tissue?
a)
alveolar sac
b)
bleb
c)
bronchiole
d)
germ cell
21.
In the event that a VATS procedure had to be converted to an open procedure, which open case would be performed?
a)
coronary artery bypass
b)
laparoscopy
c)
thoracotomy
d)
tracheotomy
22.
Which of the following will be required upon completion of any procedure in which the pleural cavity has been opened?
a)
passive wound drain such as a Penrose
b)
chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system
c)
active wound drain such as a Jackson-Pratt
d)
compression dressing with Ace or tensor bandages
23.
Which additional pain control measure is taken for patients undergoing pectus excavatum repair by VATS?
a)
Bier block
b)
epidural
c)
local with epinephrine
d)
topical Lidocaine jelly
24.
What is the name of the procedure performed to release constriction of the lungs by fibrin layers?
a)
pectus excavatum
b)
upper lobectomy
c)
pneumonectomy
d)
lung decortication
25.
The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is:
a)
COPD
b)
pleurisy
c)
empyema
d)
pneumonia
26.
Prior to the closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsalva maneuver to check for:
a)
air leakage from bronchial closure
b)
bleeding from the dissection bed
c)
functionality of the diaphragm
d)
perfusion of the unaffected lobes
27.
What is the term for a collapsed lung?
a)
atelectasis
b)
decortication
c)
emphysema
d)
pneumonitis
28.
Which type of incision is made for a pneumonectomy?
a)
Chevron
b)
McBurney
c)
epigastric
d)
posterolateral
29.
Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaw used on the bronchus?
a)
Bailey
b)
Doyen
c)
Mixter
d)
Sarot
30.
Which instrument is a rib shear?
a)
Alexander
b)
Bethune
c)
Davidson
d)
Satinsky
31.
What is a commonly used rib self-retaining retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes?
a)
Balfour
b)
Bookwalter
c)
Finochietto
d)
Greenburg
32.
Which instrument is a lung-grasping forceps that resembles a very large Pennington?
a)
Doyen
b)
Duckbill
c)
Lovelace
d)
Langenbeck
33.
Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?
a)
pneumonectomy
b)
upper lobectomy
c)
decortication of the lung
d)
pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
34.
Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks?
a)
bronchoscopy
b)
laryngoscopy
c)
mediastinoscopy
d)
video-assisted thoracoscopy
35.
The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the:
a)
hilum
b)
trachea
c)
diaphragm
d)
mediastinum
36.
How many pulmonary veins are there?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
37.
Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection?
a)
AP chest x-ray
b)
CT scan
c)
MRI scan
d)
stress test
38.
Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT?
a)
It is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity.
b)
It is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side.
c)
It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.
d)
It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right side.
39.
Which structure is considered the “pacemaker” of the heart?
a)
AV node
b)
SA node
c)
bundle of His
d)
Purkinje fibers
40.
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery?
a)
left atrium
b)
right atrium
c)
left ventricle
d)
right ventricle
41.
Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the ascending aorta?
a)
left atrium
b)
right atrium
c)
left ventricle
d)
right ventricle
42.
The coronary arteries originate from the:
a)
ascending aorta
b)
descending aorta
c)
pulmonary artery
d)
subclavian artery
43.
What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction?
a)
hilum
b)
mediastinum
c)
pleural space
d)
pericardial window
44.
What is the thickest part of the heart?
a)
epicardium
b)
endocardium
c)
myocardium
d)
pericardium
45.
Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?
a)
superiorly on the right side
b)
inferiorly on the right side
c)
superiorly on the left side
d)
inferiorly on the left side
46.
Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves?
a)
aortic
b)
mitral
c)
septal
d)
tricuspid
47.
Which heart valve is also known as the bicuspid valve?
a)
aortic
b)
mitral
c)
pulmonary
d)
tricuspid
48.
The apex of the lung is located:
a)
inferiorly and laterally
b)
medially where the bronchus enters
c)
medially just above the diaphragm
d)
superiorly and just above the clavicle
49.
All of the following are components of the “heart-lung” machine EXCEPT:
a)
pump
b)
oxygenator
c)
defibrillator
d)
heat exchanger
50.
Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures?
a)
carotid artery and subclavian vein
b)
right atrium and ascending aorta
c)
right ventricle and descending aorta
d)
femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein
51.
Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs?
a)
hypothermia
b)
lung deflation
c)
left ventricular venting
d)
warming with heat exchanger
52.
Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and venous cannulae?
a)
figure of eight
b)
purse-string
c)
horizontal mattress
d)
vertical mattress
53.
The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system (CNS)?
a)
phrenic nerve
b)
vagus nerve
c)
Purkinje system
d)
medulla oblongata
54.
What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?
a)
accumulation of cholesterol and lipids
b)
collagen deposition and scar tissue formation
c)
growth of new smooth muscle tissue
d)
injury to endothelial lining
55.
Which of the following is the main underlying pathogenic cause of coronary atherosclerosis and clinical manifestations?
a)
age
b)
diet
c)
ischemia
d)
hypertension
56.
Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions?
a)
circumflex branch
b)
left anterior descending
c)
mammary
d)
right coronary
57.
What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac death?
a)
heart block
b)
atherosclerosis
c)
cardiac tamponade
d)
myocardial infarction
58.
Where is a Swan-Ganz catheter placed?
a)
ascending aorta
b)
coronary artery
c)
pulmonary artery
d)
vena cava
59.
Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?
a)
6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
b)
2-0 or 3-0 polyester
c)
6-0 or 7-0 polyglactin
d)
2-0 or 3-0 poliglecaprone
60.
Which instrument is used to make a small opening into the ascending aorta after the Satinsky partial occlusion clamp is placed?
a)
aortic punch
b)
Potts-Smith scissors
c)
#11 blade
d)
5 mm trocar
61.
With what is the median sternotomy closed?
a)
fine gauge polypropylene
b)
fine gauge surgical silk
c)
heavy gauge stainless steel wire
d)
heavy gauge chromic gut
62.
Medtronic OCTOPUS® and Guidant Ultima OPCAB® are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off-pump?
a)
retractors
b)
stabilizers
c)
cannulae
d)
grafts
63.
What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass?
a)
intra-aortic balloon pump
b)
left ventricular vent
c)
cardiac pacemaker
d)
vena cava filter
64.
Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system?
a)
ventricular assist device
b)
left ventricular vent
c)
cardiac pacemaker
d)
vena cava filter
65.
What is the general term for incurable diseases of the heart for which the only treatment would be heart transplantation?
a)
atherosclerosis
b)
arrhythmias
c)
cardioplegia
d)
cardiomyopathies
66.
Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often as a result of :
a)
rheumatic fever
b)
tuberculosis
c)
heart block
d)
angina
67.
Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders?
a)
cardiac catheterization
b)
CT scanning
c)
electromyography
d)
MRI scanning
68.
A heart murmur is often heard with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure?
a)
aortic valve
b)
mitral valve
c)
right ventricle
d)
left ventricle
69.
What is the average lifespan of biologic and mechanical heart valve replacements?
a)
1 to 5 years
b)
5 to 10 years
c)
10 to 15 years
d)
indefinite
70.
What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient?
a)
coarctation
b)
stenosis
c)
prolapsed
d)
arteriosis
71.
Which singular congenital defect involves failure of closure of the connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta?
a)
atrial septal defect
b)
ventriculo septal defect
c)
patent ductus arteriosus
d)
tetralogy of Fallot
72.
What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients?
a)
Dacron patch
b)
porcine valve
c)
fascia lata
d)
fibrin glue
73.
Which congenital defect has four components and is characterized by cyanosis causing appearance of “blue babies”?
a)
coarctation of the aorta
b)
patent ductus arteriosus
c)
ventricular septal defect
d)
tetralogy of Fallot
74.
Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus?
a)
supine
b)
prone
c)
frog-legged
d)
posterolateral
75.
Commissurotomy is a surgical separation of the flaps of the:
a)
mitral valve
b)
left ventricle
c)
pulmonary valve
d)
right atrium
76.
The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein.
a)
true
b)
false
77.
Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distention.
a)
true
b)
false
78.
The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
a)
true
b)
false
79.
Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema.
a)
true
b)
false
80.
The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity.
a)
true
b)
false
81.
A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute
a)
Heart block
b)
Atrial fibrillation
c)
Ventricular tachycardia
d)
Bradycardia
e)
Ejection fraction
82.
Chaotic and disorganized stimulation of the ventricle, making it unable to effectively pump blood
a)
Ventricular fibrillation
b)
Echocardiography
c)
Asystole
d)
Perfusion
e)
Heart block
83.
Abnormally slow electrical impulses and heartbeat below 40 to 60 beats per minute
a)
Ventricular tachycardia
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Ventricular fibrillation
d)
Atrial fibrillation
e)
Echocardiography
84.
Disorganized stimulation of the atria that prevents atrial contraction and does not allow for ventricular filling
a)
Atrial fibrillation
b)
Ejection fraction
c)
Asystole
d)
Ventricular tachycardia
e)
Bradycardia
85.
Absence of a heartbeat; cardiac standstill
a)
Ventricular fibrillation
b)
Asystole
c)
Perfusion
d)
Heart block
e)
Atrial fibrillation
86.
Percentage of blood volume pumped out of the heart into the systemic circulation; indicator of ventricular function
a)
Echocardiography
b)
Ventricular tachycardia
c)
Bradycardia
d)
Ventricular fibrillation
e)
Ejection fraction
87.
Noninvasive study used to diagnose mitral valve stenosis or other valvular disorders
a)
Asystole
b)
Echocardiography
c)
Perfusion
d)
Atrial fibrillation
e)
Ventricular tachycardia
88.
Monitoring procedure that records electrical activity of the heart
a)
Bradycardia
b)
Ventricular fibrillation
c)
Heart block
d)
Echocardiography
e)
Asystole
89.
Electrical conduction disorder requiring permanent pacemaker
a)
Heart block
b)
Ejection fraction
c)
Ventricular tachycardia
d)
Atrial fibrillation
e)
Ventricular fibrillation
90.
The function accomplished by the cardiopulmonary bypass machine
a)
Bradycardia
b)
Perfusion
c)
Echocardiography
d)
Asystole
e)
Heart block
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