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AP Biology Sem. 2 Finals Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Using the cladogram:  a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
2.
The wing of a bat and a humans' arm have different functions and appear very different.  Yet, the underlying anatomy is basically the same.  therefore, these structures are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
analogous structures
c)
homology
d)
reproductive isolation
3.
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele a is .4.  What is the percentage of the population heterozygous for this allele?
a)
4 percent
b)
16 percent
c)
32 percent
d)
48 percent
4.
The differences in sparrow songs among sympatric species of sparrows are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
convergent evolution
c)
behavioral isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
5.
Two allopatric species of sparrows have very similar niches when compared to two sympatric species of sparrows.  What would be a good explanation for this?
a)
The allopatric species have no competition with one another so therefore can occupy similar niches
b)
The sympatric species are usually mechanically isolated from one another
c)
The sympatric species diverged from a common ancestor
d)
The allopatric species are behaviorally isolated from one another
6.
The establishment of a genetically unique population through genetic drift
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
7.
which of the following is NOT a requirement for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a)
small population
b)
no gene flow
c)
no mutations
d)
no selection
8.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
9.
Notice the two arrows in the image.  These arrows are emphasizing the antiparallel (going in opposite directions) nature of DNA.  The arrows are also pointing to the ______ end of DNA.
a)
5 prime
b)
3 prime
c)
wrong
d)
right
10.

Which two bases are pyrimidines?

a)

A & C

b)

G & C

c)

C & T

d)

A & G

11.

What type of bond connects bases together in DNA?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

Sulfur

12.

Adenine pairs with _________.

a)

Guanine

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

13.

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands

b)

One strand is positively charged and other is negatively charged

c)

The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand

d)

Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands

14.

Thymine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be cytosine?

a)

42%

b)

31%

c)

16%

d)

8%

15.

Name this structure.

a)

Deoxyribose sugar

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Double helix

16.

DNA has a slight ___________ charge.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

17.

Gel Electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on ________.

a)

Size

b)

Number of A's and G's

c)

Animal species

d)

Criminal suspects

18.

Transcription occurs in __________.

a)

the nucleus

b)

in the cytoplasm

19.

Translation involves taking a ______ message and matching it to the correct series of _______.

a)

mRNA; tRNAs

b)

DNA; mRNA nucleotides

c)

protein; vesicles

d)

mutated; codons

20.

Which of the following acts like a tiny pair of scissors and, when it recognizes a specific sequence, it cuts?

a)

Ligase

b)

Restriction Enzyme

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Helicase

21.

Why doesn't the leading strand of DNA have Okazaki fragments?

a)

Because DNA polymerase is able to attach new nucleotides in one continuous motion

b)

Okazaki fragments are only created when multiple DNA polymerases are used

c)

Because DNA polymerase only binds to the 5' end (phosphate) of a parental strand

22.

A unique series of DNA bands on a gel is known as a ________.

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

fingerprint

c)

DNA fingerprint

d)

criminal investigation

23.

Methyl groups land on ______ and cause _______.

a)

CG islands within the DNA strand; DNA to coil tightly around histones

b)

Histones; DNA to uncoil around histones

24.

In gel electrophoresis, short DNA fragments travel ______ the starting point.

a)

farther from

b)

closer to

25.

The Lac Operon in bacteria is an example of ______ gene control, because the repressor comes off when the substrate is ________.

a)

positive; present

b)

negative; absent

26.

Gene regulation looks a bit different in eukaryotes. Which of the following are unique to Eukaryotes? Select all that apply.

a)

Transcription factors

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA folds over onto itself

d)

Sections of DNA called enhancers (where transcription factors bind)

27.

in eukaryotes, transcription factors do all of the following EXCEPT ____?

a)

Allow RNA polymerase to land on the promoter

b)

Hold RNA polymerase in place

c)

Bind to enhancers which causes DNA to fold over onto itself

d)

Causes the repressor to come off

28.
Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Water Temperature
c)
Primary Producers
d)
Carnivores
29.
Which of the following terms best describes this group:   Hippos, Lions, Antelope, Grass, Acacia Trees...
a)
Community
b)
Species
c)
Population
d)
Ecosystem
30.
An ecosystem is very similar to a community, except ecosystems also include:
a)
abiotic factors
b)
biotic factors
31.
Which type of symbiosis is shown in the image?  Hint: The Remora fish get protection and food scraps from the shark.
a)
Parasitism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Mutualism
32.
Which type of symbiosis is shown in the image?
a)
Parasitism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Mutualism
33.
Which biome would most likely match the temperature and precipitation data for location B?
a)
Tundra
b)
Tropical Rainforest
c)
Desert
34.
According to the climate graph, which biome has average temperatures that span from 0 degrees Celsius to about 18 degrees Celsius and a maximum annual precipitation of 225 cm?
a)
Tropical Seasonal Forest
b)
Woodland/Grassland
c)
Temperate Forest
d)
Taiga
35.
Which of the following has the largest range of average temperatures?
a)
Tropical Seasonal Forest
b)
Desert
c)
Woodland/Grassland
d)
Temperate Forest
36.
Which of the following has the lowest range in annual precipitation?
a)
Tropical Seasonal Forest
b)
Desert
c)
Tundra
d)
Temperate Forest
37.
Kudzu has overgrown many parts of southern Missouri and native ground plants have disappeared from the area. This is an example of:
a)
Parasitism between kudzu and the native plants
b)
A predator prey relationship between ground plants and kudzu
c)
Competition occurring between the native and invasive species
d)
Commesalism occurring between the kudzo and native plants
38.
All cells are surrounded by a thin, flexible barrier called a(n)
a)
electron microscopy
b)
cell wall
c)
cell membrane
d)
photo cell
39.
What is the effect of a nucleotide-pair substitution that results in a nonsense mutation in a gene?
a)
it changes an amino acid in the encoded protein
b)
It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein
c)
it introduces  premature stop codon into the mRNA
d)
it alters the reading frame of the mRNA
40.
What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?
a)
After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.
b)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.
c)
None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.
d)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.
41.
 A frameshift mutation could result from 
a)
a base insertion only.
b)
a base deletion only. 
c)
a base substitution only. 
d)
either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
42.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
43.

Which of the following is NOT part of the "initiation complex" of translation?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

44.

Which of the following is NOT needed when turning pre-mRNA into mature mRNA?

a)

Intron splicing

b)

Addition of a Poly A Tail

c)

Addition of a GTP cap

d)

Changing all of the T's to U's

45.
Describe the bacteria phenotype in the +Plasmid  AMP/LB plate.
a)
The bacteria grew but did not glow in the dark
b)
The bacteria grew AND glowed in the dark
c)
The bacteria did not grow at all
46.
Describe the bacteria phenotype in the -Plasmid  LB plate.
a)
The bacteria grew but did not glow in the dark
b)
The bacteria grew AND glowed in the dark
c)
The bacteria did not grow at all
47.
Describe the bacteria phenotype in the -Plasmid  LB/AMP plate.
a)
The bacteria grew but did not glow in the dark
b)
The bacteria grew AND glowed in the dark
c)
The bacteria did not grow at all
48.
What ingredient in the agar causes the bacteria to fluoresce (glow in the dark)?
a)
LB
b)
Arabinose
c)
Ampicillin
d)
Agar
49.
E. Coli rely on which method of gene control (which results in glowing in the dark)?
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
50.
E. Coli rely on which method of gene control (which results in glowing in the dark)?
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
51.
What is the purpose of calcium in the bacteria transformation lab?
a)
It causes the plasmid DNA to be taken into the bacteria cells
b)
It binds to the negative charges on the phosphate heads in order to neutralize charge.
52.
Which of the following are examples of Postzygotic Reproductive Isolation? 
a)
Behavioral
b)
Low Hybrid Viability
c)
Hybrid Sterility
d)
Both B & C are correct
53.
Which of the following depends on reproductive structures being compatible between partners in breeding? 
a)
Mechanical
b)
Gametic
c)
Behavioral
d)
Temporal
54.

Which of the following reproductive isolation mechanisms depends on either songs or courtship dances of birds, or signaling between insects, or any other kind of learned or instinctual compatibility between mates?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Temporal

c)

Gametic

d)

Behaviroal

55.
What does the picture represent?
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Mutations
c)
Bottleneck effect
d)
Gene Flow
56.
What does the image represent?
a)
Founder effect
b)
Bottleneck effect
c)
Mutation
d)
Natural Selection
57.
What does the image represent?
a)
Gene flow
b)
Gene drift
c)
Mutation
d)
Adaptation
58.
What does the image represent?
a)
Founder effect
b)
Bottleneck effect
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Mutations
59.

Describes a pattern of long, stable periods interrupted by brief periods of more rapid change

a)

convergent evolution

b)

coevolution

c)

punctuated equilibrium

d)

adaptive radiation

60.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as
a)
speciation
b)
punctuated equilibrium
c)
gradualism
d)
microevolution
61.
The evolution of an ancestral species into an array of species that occupy different niches
a)
convergent evolution
b)
coevolution
c)
speciation
d)
adaptive radiation
62.
What is convergent evolution?
a)
evolution toward similar traits in unrelated species
b)
evolution toward different traits in closely related species
c)
elimination of a species from Earth
d)
the rise of two or more species from one existing species
63.
Sharks and dolphins both have streamlined bodies that allow them to move through water efficiently, this is an example of which type of evolution?
a)
Divergent
b)
Coevolution
c)
Convergent
d)
Artificial
64.
In convergent evolution, organisms share physical similarities because they 
a)
have a common ancestor
b)
live in similar environments
c)
develop homologous structures
d)
are closely related 
65.
Humans are causing extiction in which ways?
a)
By over hunting animals for food or products.
b)
By destroying the natural habitat of species.
c)
By polluting the environments of the world.
d)
All of the above.
66.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

67.

The parents of a new baby believe they brought the wrong child home from the hospital. Gel electrophoresis was performed using DNA samples from the parents and the child. A section of the gel

electrophoresis results is shown below. Which conclusion is valid based on the gel electrophoresis results?

a)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information is identical to that of the father.


b)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information does not match that of either parent.

c)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information came from both parents.


d)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information matches only that of the mother.

68.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
69.
Which mechanism of evolution is represented by the pinky finger?
a)
non-random mating
b)
natural selection
c)
population shrinks
d)
mutation
70.
Which mechanism shows genes leaving (immigration) or coming into (emigration) a gene pool?
a)
mutations
b)
natural selection
c)
gene flow
d)
non-random mating

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