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BB FINAL EXAM

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

American Association of Blood Bank Standards requires

that plateletpheresis products:

a)

Prepared in a closed system be transfused within 24 hours

b)

Contain 3x1011 platelets in ≥ 90% of the units teste

c)

Have a compatibility test performed before transfusion

d)

Have a pH of 6.2 or greater on the day of collection

2.

Therapeutic cytapheresis is used in patients with:

a)

Sickle cell disease to reduce the number of crises

b)

Systemic lupus erythematosus to remove immune complexes

c)

Leukemia to help increase granulocyte production

d)

Myasthenia gravis to increase antibody production

3.

The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis

component collection procedures is

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

7 days

d)

8 weeks

4.

In plasma exchange, the therapeutic effectiveness is:

a)

Greatest with the first plasma volume removed

b)

Affected by the type of replacement fluid used

c)

Enhanced if the unwanted antibody is IgG rather than IgM

d)

Independent of the use of concomitant immunosuppressive therapy

5.

The most common adverse effect of plateletpheresis collection is

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Citrate effect

e)

Air embolism

6.

Apheresis can be used to collect all of the following except:

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Hematopoetic progenitor cells

d)

Platelets

e)

Lymphocytes

7.

Transfused plasma constituents resulting in immediate erythema, itching, and hives best typify which of the following transfusion reactions

a)

HTR

b)

DHTR

c)

Allergic

d)

Iron overload

e)

Alloimmunization

8.

Which listed transfusion reaction may result from an anamnestic response following a secondary exposure to

donor RBCs?

a)

IHTR

b)

Alloimmunization

c)

Anaphylactoid reaction

d)

TACO

e)

TA-GVHD

9.

Patients at greatest risk of developing TACO may include:

a)

Children

b)

Elderly people

c)

Patients with chronic normovolemic anemia

d)

Patients with sickle cell disease

e)

All of the above

10.

Which listed transfusion reaction is most associated with transfused patients lacking IgA immunoglobulin?

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Hemolytic

c)

Febrile

d)

TACO

11.

A transfusion reaction that usually appears rapidly during the transfusion termed “warm” and that may result in fever, shock, or death is which of the following?

a)

Hemolytic

b)

Bacterial contamination

c)

TACO

d)

Allergic

e)

FNHTR

12.

After an IHTR, the recipient’s serum bilirubin may return to normal in:

a)

5 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

48 hours

d)

3 hours

e)

24 hours

13.

Which of the following antibodies is most responsible for IHTR?

a)

Anti-Lea

b)

Anti-N

c)

Anti-A

d)

Anti-M

e)

Anti-D

14.

When a suspected hemolytic reaction occurs, the first

thing to do is:

a)

Slow the transfusion rate and call the physician

b)

Administer medication to stop the reaction

c)

Stop the transfusion but keep the intravenous line open with saline

d)

First inform the laboratory to begin an investigation

e)

Begin technical checks

15.

Which of the following are symptoms of Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reaction?

a)

Shock, hemoglobinuria, hypotension

b)

Respiratory distress, vascular instability, shock

c)

DIC, renal failure, hemoglobinuria

d)

Temperature rise of 1C with transfusion

e)

Temperature rise of 2C or more with transfusion

16.

DHTRs from anamnestic responses usually occur within which time period?

a)

5 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

Several weeks after transfusion

d)

3–7 days after transfusion

e)

48 hours post-transfusion

17.

Pretransfusion irradiation of all blood products in certain patients is done to prevent which of the following?

a)

CMV

b)

TA-GVHD

c)

FNHTR

d)

PNH

e)

HTR

18.

A patient was suspected of having TA-GVHD as a result of transfusion therapy. What may cause TA-GVHD?

a)

Transfused contaminated blood components

b)

Functional T lymphocytes in cellular blood component

c)

Hypersensitivity reaction

d)

Results from platelet-specific antibody following transfusion

e)

Results from transfused serum proteins (IgE) reacting

with recipient antibodies

19.

Currently, which of the following does the AABB consider to be the most significant infectious threat from transfusion?

a)

Bacterial contamination

b)

CMV

c)

Hepatitis

d)

HIV

20.

Which transfusion-associated parasite may have asymptomatic carriers?

a)

Babesia microti

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Plasmodium species

d)

All of the above

21.

Reasons why syphilis is so rare in the United States blood supply include all of the following except

a)

4C storage conditions

b)

donor questionnaire

c)

short spirochetemia

d)

NAT testing

22.

What is the shipping temperature requirement for plasma?

a)

1–6F or higher

b)

1–6C or lower

c)

-18F or higher

d)

-18C or lower

23.

A shipment of platelets has been received, but transfusion is delayed for 1 hour. What is the best course of action to ensure optimal viability of the product?

a)

Refrigerate the units subsequent to confirmation of ABO and Rh type

b)

Incubate at 37C and perform compatibility testing

c)

Store at room temperature on a flatbed agitation

d)

Place the platelets in the 18C freezer until transfused

24.

Under what circumstances must the Rh type be confirmed

a)

Donor unit previously typed as Rh-positive

b)

Donor unit previously typed as Rh-negative

c)

Donor unit previously typed as A-, B-, or O-negative

d)

Donor unit previously typed as A-, B- or O-positive

25.

What factors determine the maximum number of components that may be derived from one unit of whole

blood

a)

Time and anticoagulant

b)

Time and collection container composition

c)

Temperature and collection container size

d)

Container composition and anticoagulant

26.

Which of the following presents with depressed or absent antigen expression due to the In(Lu) regulator gene?

a)

GE and DI

b)

KN and IN

c)

CROM and CH/RG

d)

IN and GE

27.

Mutations in the carrier molecule for this blood group system may result in changes of RBC shape in the forms of elliptocytosis, acanthocytosis, or ovalocytosis.

a)

DI

b)

DO

c)

CO

d)

SC

28.

According to the RBC surface antigen terminology by ISBT, all authenticated antigens may be assigned to a blood group system, provided they are:

a)

Controlled by a single gene or by two closely linked genes

b)

Inherited from multiple regulator genes

c)

Shown not to follow mendelian principles

d)

Shown to share serologic characteristics with other members of the blood group system

29.

The antibody to this RBC antigen in the 901 series demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

a)

Vel

b)

JMH

c)

Lan

d)

Sda

30.

The antibody to this RBC antigen in the 901 series has

been associated with causing severe immediate HTR

a)

Anti-JMH

b)

Anti-Bga

c)

Anti-Vel

d)

Anti-Sda

31.

The following antibodies are generally considered clinically insignificant because they have not been associated with causing increased destruction of RBCs, HDN, or HTR

a)

Anti-Doa and anti-Coa

b)

Anti-Ge3 and anti-Wra

c)

Anti-Ch2 and anti-Kna

d)

Anti-Dib and anti-Yta

32.

A woman wants to donate blood. Her physical examination reveals the following:

weight—110 Ib, pulse—73 bpm,

blood pressure—125/75 mm Hg,

hematocrit—35%. Which of the following exclusions applies to the prospective donor?

a)

Pulse too high

b)

Weight too low

c)

Hematocrit too low

d)

Blood pressure too low

33.

A potential donor has no exclusions, but she weighs only 95 pounds. What is the allowable amount of blood (including samples) that can be drawn?

a)

367 mL

b)

378 mL

c)

454 mL

d)

473 mL

34.

Donors who have received blood or blood products within 12 months of when they desire to donate are deferred to protect the recipient because the

a)

Blood could have transmitted hepatitis (HBV or HCV) orHIV

b)

Blood may have two cell populations

c)

Donor may not be able to tolerate the

blood loss

d)

Donor red cell hemoglobin level may

be too low

35.

Which of the following conditions would contraindicate autologous presurgical donation?

a)

Weight of 100 pounds

b)

Age of 14 years

c)

Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

d)

Mild bacteremia

36.

Which of the following donors would be deferred indefinitely?

a)

History of syphilis

b)

History of gonorrhea

c)

Accutane® treatment

d)

Recipient of human growth hormone

37.

Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes

a)

CMV

b)

HIV

c)

HBV

d)

HCV

38.

A donor indicates that he has taken two aspirin tablets per day for the last 36 hours. The unit of blood

a)

May not be used for pooled platelet concentrate preparation

b)

Should not be drawn until 36 hours after cessation of aspirin ingestion

c)

May be used for pooled platelet concentrate preparation

d)

May be used for red blood cells and fresh-frozen plasma production, but the platelets should be discarded

39.

Which of the following best describes what must be done with a unit of blood drawn from a donor who is found to be at high risk of contracting acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

a)

Hold unit in quarantine until donor diagnosis is clarified.

b)

Use the blood for research dealing with AIDS.

c)

Properly dispose of unit by autoclaving or incineration

d)

Use the plasma and destroy the red blood cells

40.

Which of the following is least likely to transmit hepatitis?

a)

Cryoprecipitate

b)

RBC

c)

Plasma protein fraction (PPF

d)

Platelets

41.

Although Cryoprecipitate has primarily been used for treatment of hypofibrinogenemia and hemophilia A, it contains other blood proteins useful in the treatment of coagulopathies. Which of the following is not found in Cryoprecipitate?

a)

Fibronectin

b)

Factor XIII

c)

Factor VIILvW

d)

Antithrombin III

42.

Even though it is properly collected and stored, which of the following will freshfrozen plasma (FFP) not provide?

a)

Factor V

b)

FactorVIII

c)

Factor IX

d)

Platelets

43.

Blood needs to be prepared for intrauterine transfusion of a fetus with severe HDN. The red blood cell unit selected is compatible with the mother's serum and

has been leuko-depleted. An additional step that must be taken before transfusion is to

a)

Add pooled platelets and fresh-frozen plasma

b)

Check that the RBC group is consistent with the father's

c)

Irradiate the RBCs before infusion

d)

Test the RBC unit with the neonate's eluate

44.

The addition of adenine in an anticoagulant- preservative formulation aids in

a)

Maintaining ATP levels for red cell viability

b)

Maintaining platelet function in stored blood

c)

Reducing the plasma K+ levels during storage

d)

Maintaining 2,3-BPG levels for oxygen release to the tissues

45.

When 2,3-BPG levels drop in stored blood, which of the following occurs as a result?

a)

Red blood cell K+ increases

b)

Red blood cell ability to release O2 decreases

c)

Plasma hemoglobin is stabilized.

d)

ATP synthesis increases

46.

The last unit of autologous blood for an elective surgery patient should be collected no later than _______________hours before surgery.

a)

24

b)

36

c)

48

d)

72

47.

For which of the following patients would autologous donation not be advisable?

a)

Patients with an antibody against a high-incidence antigen

b)

Patients with uncompensated anemia

c)

Open heart surgery patients

d)

Patients with multiple antibodies

48.

It is generally asymptomatic but has a very high carrier rate (70-80% have chronic infections). About 10% of the carriers develop cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma. These statements are most typical of which of the following transfusion-transmitted infections?

a)

HAV

b)

HBV

c)

HCV

d)

HEV

49.

Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

a)

Increase in pH

b)

Increase in plasma K+

c)

Increase in plasma Na+

d)

Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

50.

It has been determined that a patient has posttransfusion hepatitis and received blood from eight donors. There is nothing to indicate that these donors may have been likely to transmit hepatitis. What action must be taken initially?

a)

Defer all donors indefinitely from further donations

b)

Repeat all hepatitis testing on a fresh sample from each donor

c)

Notify the donor center that collected the blood.

d)

Interview all implicated donors

51.

The temperature range for maintaining red blood cells and whole blood during shipping is

a)

0-4°C

b)

1-6°C

c)

1-10°C

d)

5-15°C

52.

Platelets play an important role in maintaining hemostasis. One unit of donor platelets derived from whole blood should yield platelets.

a)

5.5 X 106

b)

5 X 108

c)

5.5 X 1010

d)

5 X 1010

53.

The pH of four platelet concentrates is measured on the day of expiration. The pH and plasma volumes of the four units are as follows: pH 6.0, 45 mL; pH 5.5, 38 mL; pH 5.8, 40 mL; pH 5.7, 41 mL. What corrective action is needed in product preparation to meet AABB Standards for platelet production?

a)

No corrective action is necessary

b)

Recalibrate pH meter

c)

Increase final plasma volume of platelet concentrates

d)

Decrease final plasma volume of platelet concentrates

54.

During preparation of platelet concentrate, the hermetic seal of the primary bag is broken. The red blood cells

a)

Must be discarded

b)

May be labeled with a 21-day expiration date if collected in CPD

c)

Must be labeled with a 24-hour expiration date

d)

May be glycerolized within 6 days and stored frozen

55.

The blood bank procedures manual must be

a)

Revised annually

b)

Revised after publication of each new edition of AABB Standards

c)

Reviewed prior to a scheduled inspection

d)

Reviewed annually by an authorized individual

56.

Previous records of patients' ABO and Rh types must be immediately available for comparison with current test results

a)

For 6 months

b)

For 12 months

c)

For 10 years

d)

Indefinitely

57.

Which of the following weak D donor units should be labeled Rh-positive?

a)

Weak D due to transmissible genes

b)

Weak D as position effect

c)

Weak partial D

d)

All the above

e)

None of the above

58.

In order to meet the current A ABB Standards for leukocyte reduction to prevent HLA alloimmunization or CMV transmission, the donor unit must retain at least of the original red cells and leukocytes must be reduced to

less than

a)

85%, 5 X 108

b)

80%, 5 X 106

c)

75%, 5 X 105

d)

70%, 5 X 104

59.

Which of the following tests is/are not performed during donor processing?

a)

ABO and Rh grouping

b)

HBsAg

c)

HIV-l-Ag

d)

HBsAb

60.

A 70-kg man has a platelet count of 15,000/uL, and there are no complicating factors such as fever or HLA sensitization. If he is given a platelet pool of 6 units, what would you expect his posttransfusion count to be?

a)

21,000-27,000/uL

b)

25,000-35,000/uL

c)

45,000-75,000/uL

d)

75,000-125,000/uL

61.

Which of the following tests on donor red blood cells must be repeated by the transfusing facility when the blood was collected and processed by a different facility?

a)

Confirmation of ABO group and Rh type of blood labeled D-negative

b)

Confirmation of ABO group and Rh type

c)

Weak D on D-negatives

d)

Antibody screening

62.

What is the required storage temperature of this component: Red blood cells (RBCs), liquid

a)

1-6°C

b)

20-24°C

c)

-18°C or colder

d)

-65°C or colder

63.

What is the required storage temperature of this component: Fresh-frozen plasma

a)

1-6°C

b)

20-24°C

c)

-18°C or colder

d)

-65°C or colder

64.

What is the required storage temperature of this component: Cryoprecipitate

a)

1-6°C

b)

20-24°C

c)

-18°C or colder

d)

-65°C or colder

65.

What is the shelf-life for this component: Fresh-frozen plasma, thawed

a)

24 hours

b)

5 days

c)

35 days

d)

1 year

66.

What is the shelf-life for this component: Fresh-frozen plasma

a)

24 hours

b)

5 days

c)

35 days

d)

1 year

67.

What is the component of choice for the patient based on the given situation: Patients with normovolemic anemia

a)

Platelet concentrate

b)

Packed RBC

c)

Leukocyte-reduced RBC

d)

Transfusion not indicated

68.

What is the component of choice for the patient based on the given situation: Patients requiring transfusion with RBC that will not transmit cytomegalovirus (CMV)

a)

Platelet concentrate

b)

Packed RBC

c)

Leukocyte-reduced RBC

d)

Transfusion not indicated

69.

What is the component of choice for the patient based on the given situation: Patients who are thrombocytopenic

secondary to the treatment of acute leukemia

a)

Platelet concentrate

b)

Packed RBC

c)

Leukocyte-reduced RBC

d)

Cryoprecipitate

70.

Most blood group antibodies are of what immunoglobulin classes?

a)

IgA and IgD

b)

IgA and lgM

c)

IgE and lgD

d)

IgG and lgM

71.

Which of the following blood groups reacts least strongly with an anti-H produced in an AjB individual?

a)

Group O

b)

Group A2B

c)

Group A2

d)

Group A1

72.

How many genes encode the following Rh antigens: D, C, E, c, e?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

73.

If a person has the genetic makeup Hh, AO, LeLe, sese, what substance will be found in the secretions?

a)

A substance

b)

H substance

c)

Lea substance

d)

Leb substance

74.

Lectins are useful in determining the cause of abnormal reactions in blood bank serology. These lectins are frequently labeled as anti-H, anti-Ap etc. The nature of these lectins is explained by which of the following?

a)

An early form of monoclonal antibody produced in nonvertebrates

b)

A plant substance that chemically reacts with certain RBC antigens

c)

Naturally occurring antibodies in certain plants

d)

The ability of plants to respond to RBC antigens by antibody production

75.

Which of the following sugars must be present on a precursor substance for A and B antigenic activity to be expressed?

a)

D-Galactose

b)

./V-Acetylgalactosamine

c)

Glucose

d)

L-Fucose

76.

An antigen-antibody reaction alone does not cause hemolysis. Which of the following is required for red blood cell lysis?

a)

Albumin

b)

Complement

c)

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

d)

Antihuman globulin (AHG)

77.

A white female's red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping: D+ C+ E- c+ e+. Which of the

following is the most probable Rh genotype?

a)

DCe/Dce

b)

DCe/dce

c)

DCe/DcE

d)

Dce/dCe

78.

A black patient has the following Rh phenotype: D+ C+ E+ c+ e+. Which of the following genotypes is the least

probable?

a)

DCE/dce

b)

DCe/DcE

c)

DCe/dcE

d)

DcE/dCe

79.

If a patient has the Rh genotype DCe/DCe and receives a unit of red blood cells from a DCe/dce individual, what Rh antibody might the patient develop

a)

Anti-C

b)

Anti-c

c)

Anti-d

d)

Anti-E

80.

If a D-positive person makes an anti-D, this person is probably

a)

Partial D

b)

D-negative

c)

Weak D as position effec

d)

Weak D due to transmissible genes

81.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Kidd system antibodies?

a)

Usually IgM antibodies

b)

Corresponding antigens are destroyed by enzymes

c)

Usually strong and stable during storage

d)

Often implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions

82.

Which of the following statements is not true of anti-Fya and anti-Fyb?

a)

Are clinically significant

b)

React well with enzyme-treated panel cells

c)

Cause hemolytic transfusion reactions

d)

Cause a generally mild hemolytic disease of the newborn

83.

Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized with pooled human plasma

a)

Anti-Hy and anti-Ge: 1

b)

Anti-Cha and anti-Rga

c)

Anti-Coa and anti-Cob

d)

Anti-Doa and anti-Jsb

84.

Which of the following statements is not true about anti-U?

a)

Is clinically significant

b)

Is only found in black individuals

c)

Only occurs in S-s- individuals

d)

Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

85.

A patient's red blood cells are being typed for the Fya antigen. Which of the following is the proper cell type of choice for a positive control of the anti-Fya reagent?

a)

Fy(a+b-)

b)

Fy(a+b+)

c)

Fy(a-b+)

d)

Fy(a-b-)

86.

Which of the following antibodies has been clearly implicated in transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn?

a)

Anti-I

b)

Anti-K

c)

Anti-Lea

d)

Anti-N

87.

Which of the following antibodies does not match the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature?

a)

Anti-Fya

b)

Anti-Jkb

c)

Anti-N

d)

Anti-U

88.

Which set of antibodies could you possibly find in a patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy?

a)

Anti-I, anti-s, anti-P1

b)

Anti-Leb, anti-A1 anti-D

c)

Anti-M, anti-c, anti-B

d)

Anti-P1 anti-Lea, anti-I

89.

A group A, D-negative obstetric patient with anti-D (titer 256) is carrying a fetus who needs an intrauterine transfusion. Which of the following units should be chosen?

a)

Group A, D-negative RBC

b)

Group A, D-negative whole blood

c)

Group O, D-negative RBC

d)

Group O, D-negative whole blood

90.

Which of the following is generally detected at the antiglobulin phase of testing?

a)

Anti-Jka

b)

Anti-M

c)

Anti-P1

d)

Anti-I

91.

Which of the blood group systems is associated with antibodies that are generally IgM?

a)

Rh

b)

Duffy

c)

Kell

d)

Lewis

92.

Some antigens that are primarily found on white blood cells can occur on erythrocytes. Which of the following are the redblood cell equivalents of human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)?

a)

Lea,Leb

b)

Bga,Bgb,Bgc

c)

Kpa, Kpb, Kpc

d)

Doa,Dob

93.

The antibody that reacts at immediate spin is most likely

a)

Anti-D

b)

Anti-P1

c)

Anti-Lea

d)

Anti-Leb

94.

The antibody that reacts at 37°C and with AHG is

a)

Anti-C

b)

Anti-D

c)

Anti-CD

d)

Anti-K

95.

The crossmatch is performed using

a)

Donor's serum and recipient's red cells

b)

Donor's red cells and recipient's serum

c)

Donor's serum and reagent red cells

d)

Recipient's serum and reagent red cells

96.

Which of the following will the crossmatch do?

a)

Prevent immunization

b)

Prevent delayed transfusion reaction

c)

Guarantee normal survival of the red blood cells

d)

Frequently verify donor ABO compatibility

97.

Given that a patient's antibody screening test is negative, which of the following may cause a false positive result in a compatibility test?

a)

Incorrect ABO typing of the donor or patient

b)

An alloantibody against a low frequency antigen on the donor cells

c)

Prior coating of IgG antibody on the donor cells

d)

All the above

98.

The patient is group A. Which cryoprecipitate units would most appropriately be used to treat this patient?

a)

Group A only

b)

Group AB only

c)

Group A and Group O

d)

Group A and Group AB

99.

What is the component of choice for someone who needs a RBC transfusion when there is a history of febrile transfusion reactions?

a)

RBCs less than 5 days old

b)

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

c)

RBCs 30 to 35 days old

d)

Frozen RBCs that have been thawed and deglycerolized

100.

Four units of fresh-frozen plasma have been ordered to correct factor V deficiency in a group O patient. One should thaw and _______________issue plasma.

a)

Group O only

b)

Group O and/or group A

c)

Group O and/or group AB

d)

Any blood group available

101.

A transfusion of which of the following is least likely to transmit HIV, HCV, or HBV?

a)

Pooled plasma, solvent/detergent treated

b)

Cryoprecipitate

c)

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

d)

Platelets

102.

What antibody, labile both in stored serum and the patient's plasma, is a frequent cause of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-D

c)

Anti-Jka

d)

Anti-K