wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

End of Year Review

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 3hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The gold foil experiment led to the conclusion that each atom in the foil was composed mostly of empty space because most alpha particles directed at the foil

a)

passed through the foil

b)

remained trapped in the foil

c)

were deflected by the nuclei in gold atoms

d)

were deflected by the electrons in gold atoms

2.

Which subatomic particles are located in the nucleus of a carbon atom?

a)

protons, only

b)

neutrons, only

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

protons and electrons

3.

A neutron has a charge of

a)

+1

b)

+2

c)

0

d)

-1

4.

Which particle has the least mass?

a)

alpha

b)

beta particle

c)

neutron

d)

proton

5.

A sample of matter must be copper if

a)

each atom in the sample has 29 protons

b)

atoms in the sample react with oxygen

c)

the sample melts at 1768 K

d)

the sample can conduct electricity

6.

The elements of the Periodic Table are arranged on order of increasing

a)

atomic number

b)

mass number

c)

number of isotopes

d)

number of moles

7.

Which element has the highest melting point?

a)

tantalum

b)

osmium

c)

rhenium

d)

hafnium

8.

In chemical reactions, there is a conservation of

a)

energy, volume and mass

b)

energy, volume and charge

c)

energy, charge and mass

d)

energy, charge and volume

9.

At STP, both diamond and graphite are solids composed of carbon atoms. These solids have

a)

the same crystal structure and same properties

b)

the same crystal structure and different properties

c)

different crystal structure and same properties

d)

different crystal structure and different properties

10.

The gram formula mass of a compound is 48 grams. The mass of 1.0 moles of this compound is

a)

1.0 g

b)

4.8 g

c)

48.0 g

d)

480 g

11.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:

Cl2 --> Cl + Cl

a)

A bond is broken and energy is absorbed

b)

A bond is broken and energy is released

c)

A bond is formed and energy is absorbed

d)

A bond is formed and energy is released

12.

Which atom has the weakest attraction for the electrons in a bond with an H atom?

a)

Cl atom

b)

F atom

c)

O atom

d)

S atoms

13.

Which substance cannot be broken down by a chemical change?

a)

ammonia

b)

mercury

c)

propane

d)

water

14.

At standard pressure, how do the boiling point and freezing point of NaCl(aq) compare to the boiling point and freezing point of H2O(l)?

a)

both the boiling point and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) are lower

b)

both the boiling point and the freezing point of H2O(l)are lower

c)

the boiling point of NaCl(aq) is lower and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) is higher

d)

the boiling point of NaCl(aq) is higher and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) is lower

15.

The temperature of a sample of matter is a measure of the

a)

average kinetic energy of its particles

b)

average potential energy of its particles

c)

total kinetic energy of it particles

d)

total potential energy of its particles

16.

According to the kinetic molecular theory, the particles of an ideal gas

a)

have no potential energy

b)

have strong intermolecular forces

c)

are arranged in a regular, repeated geometric pattern

d)

are separated by great distances, compared to their size

17.

In a chemical reaction, the difference between the potential energy of the products and the potential energy of the reactants is equal to the

a)

activation energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

heat of reaction

d)

rate of reaction

18.

For a given chemical reaction, the addition of a catalyst provides a different pathway that

a)

decreases the reaction rate and has a higher activation energy

b)

decreases the reaction rate and has a lower activation energy

c)

increases the reaction rate and has a higher activation energy

d)

increases the reaction rate and has a lower activation energy

19.

Which atom can bond with each other to form chains, rings or networks?

a)

carbon atoms

b)

hydrogen atoms

c)

oxygen atoms

d)

nitrogen atoms

20.

A molecule of an unsaturated hydrocarbon must have

a)

at least on single carbon-carbon bond

b)

at least one multiple carbon-carbon bond

c)

two or more single carbon-carbon bonds

d)

two or more multiple carbon-carbon bonds

21.

Which compounds are classified as electrolytes?

a)

alcohols

b)

alkynes

c)

organic acids

d)

saturated hydrocarbons

22.

Potassium hydroxide is classified as an Arrhenius base because KOH contains

a)

OH- ions

b)

O2- ions

c)

K+ ions

d)

H+ ions

23.

In which laboratory process is a volume of solution of known concentration used to determine the concentration of another solution?

a)

deposition

b)

distillation

c)

filtration

d)

titration

24.

According to one acid-base theory, an acid is an

a)

H+ acceptor

b)

H+ donor

c)

OH- acceptor

d)

OH- donor

25.

Energy is released during the fission of Pu-239 atoms as a result of the

a)

formation of covalent bonds

b)

formation of ionic bonds

c)

conversion of matter to energy

d)

conversion of energy to matter

26.

Atoms of I-131 spontaneously decay when the

a)

stable nuclei emit alpha particles

b)

stable nuclei emit beta particles

c)

unstable nuclei emit alpha particles

d)

unstable nuclei emit beta particles

27.

Compared to the atoms of a nonmetal in Period 3, the atoms of metals in Period 3 have

a)

fewer valence electrons

b)

more valence electrons

c)

fewer electron shells

d)

more electron shells

28.

Which elements are malleable and good conductors of electricity?

a)

iodine and silver

b)

iodine and xenon

c)

tin and silver

d)

tin and xenon

29.

Which atom in the ground state requires the least amount of energy to remove its valence electron?

a)

lithium atom

b)

potassium atom

c)

rubidium atom

d)

sodium atom

30.

What is the chemical formula of iron(III) sulfide?

a)

FeS

b)

Fe2S3

c)

FeSO3

d)

Fe2(SO3)3

31.

What is the percent composition by mass of sulfur in the compound MgSO4 (gram-formula mass =120. grams per mole)?

a)

20.%

b)

27%

c)

46%

d)

53%

32.

Which compound becomes less soluble in water as the temperature of the solution is increased?

a)

HCl

b)

KCl

c)

NaCl

d)

NH4Cl

33.

Given the two formulas representing the same compound:


Formula A --> CH3

Formula B --> C2H6


Which statement describes these formulas?

a)

Formulas A and B are both empirical.

b)

Formulas A nd B are both molecular.

c)

Formula A is empirical and Formula B is molecular.

d)

Formula A is molecular and Formula B is empirical.

34.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:


Zn(s) +H2SO2(aq) --> ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)


What type of reaction is represented by this equation?

a)

decomposition

b)

double replacement

c)

single replacement

d)

synthesis

35.

In a laboratory where the air is 22oC, a steel cylinder at 100.oC is submerged in water at 40.oC. In this system, heat flow from

a)

both the air and the water to the cylinder

b)

both the cylinder and the air to the water

c)

the air to the water and from the water to the cylinder

d)

the cylinder to the water and from the water to the air

36.

Which temperature change would cause a sample of an ideal gas to double in volume while the pressure is held constant?

a)

from 400.K to 200.K

b)

from 200.K to 400.K

c)

from 400.oC to 200.oC

d)

from 200.oC to 400.oC

37.

A 36-gram sample of water has an initial temperature of 22oC. After the sample absorbs 1200 joules of heat energy, the final temperature of the sample is

a)

8.0oC

b)

14oC

c)

30.oC

d)

55oC

38.

Which statement explains why Br2 is a liquid at STP and I2 is a solid at STP?

a)

Molecules of Br2 are polar, and molecules of I2 are nonpolar.

b)

Molecules of I2 are polar, and molecules of Br2 are nonpolar.

c)

Molecules of Br2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of I2.

d)

Molecules of I2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of Br2.

39.

Which balanced equation represents an oxidation-reduction reaction?

a)

Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 ==> BaSO4 + 2NaNO3

b)

H3PO4 + 3KOH ==> K3PO4 + 3H2O

c)

Fe(s) + S(s) ==> FeS(s)

d)

NH3(aq) + HCl(aq) ==> NH4Cl(s)

40.

Which solution reacts with LiOH(aq) to produce a salt and water?

a)

KCl(aq)

b)

CaO(aq)

c)

NaOH(aq)

d)

H2SO4(aq)

41.

Which volume of 2.0M NaOH(aq) is need to completely neutralize 24 milliliters of 1.0M HCl(aq)?

a)

6.0mL

b)

12mL

c)

24mL

d)

48mL

42.

Which type of reaction releases the greatest amount of energy per mole of reactant?

a)

combustion

b)

decomposition

c)

nuclear fusion

d)

oxidation-reduction

43.

Which particles are found in the nucleus of an argon atom?

a)

protons & neutrons

b)

protons & electrons

c)

positrons & neutrons

d)

positrons & electrons

44.

The mass of an electron is

a)

equal to the mass of a proton

b)

equal to the mass of a neutron

c)

greater than the mass of a proton

d)

less than the mass of a neutron

45.

Compared the energy of an electron in the second shell of an atom of sulfur, the energy of an electron in the

a)

first shell is lower

b)

first shell is the same

c)

third shell is lower

d)

third shell is the same

46.

In the ground state, an atom of which element has seven valence electrons?

a)

sodium

b)

phosphorous

c)

nitrogen

d)

fluorine

47.

Which information is sufficient to differentiate a sample of sodium from a sample of silver?

a)

the mass of each sample

b)

the volume of each sample

c)

the reactivity of each sample with water

d)

the phase of each sample at room temperature

48.

As the first five elements in group 14 are considered in order from top to bottom, there are changes in both the

a)

number of valence shell electrons and number of first shell electrons

b)

electronegativity values and number of first shell electrons

c)

number of valence shell electrons and atomic radii

d)

electronegativity values and atomic radii

49.

Which statement explains why NaBr is classified as a compound?

a)

Na and Br are chemically combined in a fixed proportion

b)

Na and Br are both nonmetals.

c)

NaBr is a solid at 298K and standard pressure.

d)

NaBr dissolves in H2O at 298K.

50.

Which two terms represent types of chemical formulas?

a)

fission and fusion

b)

oxidation and reduction

c)

empirical and structural

d)

endothermic and exothermic

51.

During all chemical reactions, charge mass and energy are

a)

condensed

b)

conserved

c)

decayed

d)

decomposed

52.

The degree of polarity of a covalent bond between two atoms is determined by calculating the difference in their

a)

atomic radii

b)

melting points

c)

electronegativities

d)

ionization energies

53.

Which substance can NOT be broken down by a chemical change?

a)

ammonia

b)

magnesium

c)

methane

d)

water

54.

Which statement describes the components of a mixture?

a)

Each component gains new properties.

b)

Each component loses original properties.

c)

The proportion of components can vary.

d)

The proportion of components cannot vary.

55.

Table sugar can be separated from a mixture of table sugar and sand at STP by adding

a)

sand, stirring, and distilling at 100.oC

b)

sand, stirring, and filtering

c)

water, stirring, and distilling at 100.oC

d)

water, stirring, and filtering

56.

Which statement describes the particles of an ideal gas, based on the kinetic molecular theory?

a)

The volume of the particles is considered negligible.

b)

The force of attraction between the particles is strong.

c)

The particles are closely packed in a regular, repeating pattern.

d)

The particles are separated by small distances, relative to their size.

57.

During which two processes does the structure of a substance release energy?

a)

freezing and condensation

b)

freezing and melting

c)

evaporation and condensing

d)

evaporation and melting

58.

Base of Table I, which compound dissolves in water by an exothermic process?

a)

NaCl

b)

NaOH

c)

NH4Cl

d)

NH4NO3

59.

At STP, which property of a molecular substance is determined by the arrangement of its molecules?

a)

half-life

b)

molar mass

c)

physical state

d)

percent composition

60.

Chemical systems in nature tend to undergo changes towards

a)

lower energy and lower entropy

b)

lower energy and higher entropy

c)

higher energy and higher entropy

d)

higher energy and lower entropy

61.

What is the general formula from the homologous series that includes ethene?

a)

CnH2n

b)

CnH2n-2

c)

CnH2n-6

d)

CnH2n+2

62.

When an F atom becomes an F- ion, the F atom

a)

gains a proton

b)

loses a proton

c)

gains an electron

d)

loses an electron

63.

In which type of nuclear reaction do two light nuclei combine to produce a heavier nucleus?

a)

positron emission

b)

gamma emission

c)

fission

d)

fusion

64.

Using equal masses of reactants, which statement describes the relative amounts of energy released during a chemical reaction and a nuclear reaction?

a)

The chemical and nuclear reactions release the same amount of energy.

b)

The nuclear reaction releases half the amount of energy of the chemical reaction.

c)

The chemical reaction releases more energy of the nuclear reaction.

d)

The nuclear reaction releases more energy of the chemical reaction.

65.

The ration of the mass of U-238 to the mass of Pb-206 can be used to

a)

diagnose thyroid disorders

b)

diagnose kidney function

c)

date geological events

d)

date once-living organisms

66.

Which electron configuration represents an atom of chlorine in an excited state?

a)

2-8-7-2

b)

2-8-7

c)

2-8-8

d)

2-7-8

67.

A student measures the mass and volume of a sample of aluminum at room temperature, and calculates the density of Al to be 2.85 grams per cubic centimeter. Based on Table S, what is the percent error for the student's calculated density of Al?

a)

2.7%

b)

5.3%

c)

5.6%

d)

95%

68.

Magnesium and calcium have similar properties because their atoms in the ground state have

a)

equal numbers of protons and electrons

b)

equal numbers of protons and neutrons

c)

two electrons in the first shell

d)

two electrons in the outermost shell

69.

As the elements in Period 2 of the Periodic Table are considered in order from left to right, which property generally decreases?

a)

atomic radius

b)

electronegativity

c)

ionization energy

d)

nuclear charge

70.

Given the balanced equation for the reaction between butane and oxygen:


2C4H10 + 13O2 --> 8CO2 + 10 H2O + Energy


How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced when 5.0 moles of butane react completely?

a)

5.0 mol

b)

10. mol

c)

20. mol

d)

40. mol

71.

What is the percent composition by mass of nitrogen in the compound N2H4 (gram-formula mass = 32 g/mol).

a)

13%

b)

44%

c)

88%

d)

93%

72.

Which ion in the ground state has the same electron configuration as an atom of neon in the ground state?

a)

Ca2+

b)

Cl-

c)

Li+

d)

O2-

73.

What is the amount of heat absorbed when the temperature of 75 grams of water increases from 20.oC to 35oC?

a)

1100J

b)

4700J

c)

6300J

d)

11000J

74.

Which sample of HCl(aq) reacts at the fastest rate with a 1.0-gram sample of iron filings?

a)

10. mL of 1 M HCl(aq) at 10oC

b)

10. mL of 1 M HCl(aq) at 25oC

c)

10. mL of 3 M HCl(aq) at 10oC

d)

10. mL of 3 M HCl(aq) at 25oC

75.

Given the equation representing system at equilibrium:


N2O4(g) <==> 2NO2(g)


Which statement describes the concentration of the two gases in this system

a)

The concentration of N2O4(g) must be less than the concentration of NO2(g).

b)

The concentration of N2O4(g) must be greater than the concentration of NO2(g).

c)

The concentration of N2O4(g) and the concentration of NO2(g) must be equal.

d)

The concentration of N2O4(g) and the concentration of NO2(g) must be constant.

76.

Which equation represents fermentation?

a)

C2H4 + H2O -> CH3CH2OH

b)

C2H4 +HCl --> CH3CH2Cl

c)

C6H12O6 --> 2CH3CH2OH + CO2

d)

2CH3CHO --> C3H5CHO + H2O

77.

Given the equation representing a reaction:


3CuCl2 + 2Al --> 3 Cu + 2 AlCl3


The oxidation number of copper changes from

a)

+1 to 0

b)

+2 to 0

c)

+2 to +1

d)

+6 to +3

78.

Given the equation representing a reversible reaction:


CH3COOH + H2O <=> CH3COO- + H3O+


According to one acid-base theory, the two H+ donors in the equation are:

a)

CH3COOH and H2O

b)

CH3COOH and H3O+

c)

CH3COO- and H2O

d)

CH3COO- and H3O+

79.

How do the energy and the most probable location of an electron in the third shell of an atom compare to the energy and the most probable location of an electron in the first shell of the same atom?

a)

In the third shell, an electron has more energy and is closer to the nucleus.

b)

In the third shell, an electron has more energy and is farther from the nucleus.

c)

In the third shell, an electron has less energy and is closer to the nucleus.

d)

In the third shell, an electron has less energy and is farther from the nucleus.

80.

Which element has both metallic and nonmetallic properties?

a)

Rb

b)

Rn

c)

Si

d)

Sr

81.

Matter that is composed of two or more different elements chemically combined in a fixed proportion is classified as

a)

a compound

b)

an isotope

c)

a mixture

d)

a solution

82.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:


2CO(g) + O2(g)<==> 2CO2(g)


What is the mole ratio of CO(g) to CO2(g) in this reaction?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

2:1

d)

3:2

83.

Which formula represents an ionic compound?

a)

H2

b)

CH4

c)

CH3OH

d)

NH4Cl

84.

An ion of which element has a larger radius than an atom of the same element?

a)

aluminum

b)

chlorine

c)

magnesium

d)

sodium

85.

Which statement must be true when solution equilibrium occurs?

a)

The solution is at STP.

b)

The solution is supersaturated.

c)

The concentration of the solution remains constant.

d)

The masses of the dissolved solute

86.

Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 75°C?

a)

ethanoic acid

b)

ethanol

c)

propanone

d)

water

87.

What is the total number of different elements present in NH4NO3?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

3

d)

4

88.

At STP, which sample contains the same number of molecules as 11.2 liters of CO2(g) at STP?

a)

5.6 L of NO2(g)

b)

7.5 L of H2(g)

c)

11.2 L of N2(g)

d)

22.4 L of CO(g)

89.

A sample of gas is held at constant pressure. Increasing the Kelvin temperature of this gas sample causes the average kinetic energy of its molecules to

a)

decrease and the volume of the gas sample to decrease

b)

decrease and the volume of the gas sample to increase

c)

increase and the volume of the gas sample to decrease

d)

increase and the volume of the gas sample to increase

90.

A molecule of butane and a molecule of 2-butene both have the same total number of

a)

carbon atoms

b)

hydrogen atoms

c)

single bonds

d)

double bonds

91.

Which two compounds are isomers of each other?

a)

CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOCH2CH3

b)

CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3

c)

CH3CHBrCH3 and CH2BrCHBrCH3

d)

CH3CHOHCH3 and CH3CHOHCH2OH

92.

Which nuclear emission has the greatest penetrating power?

a)

alpha particle

b)

beta particle

c)

gamma radiation

d)

positron

93.

What is the net charge on an ion that has 9 protons, 11 neutrons, and 10 electrons?

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

1-

d)

2-

94.

How do the atomic radius and metallic properties of sodium compare to the atomic radius and metallic properties of phosphorus?

a)

Sodium has a larger atomic radius and is more metallic.

b)

Sodium has a larger atomic radius and is less metallic.

c)

Sodium has a smaller atomic radius and is more metallic.

d)

Sodium has a smaller atomic radius and is less metallic.

95.

A compound has a molar mass of 90. grams per mole and the empirical formula CH2O. What is the molecular formula of this compound?

a)

CH2O

b)

C2H4O2

c)

C3H6O3

d)

C4H8O4

96.

At standard pressure, a certain compound has a low boiling point and is insoluble in water. At STP, this compound most likely exists as

a)

ionic crystals

b)

metallic crystals

c)

nonpolar molecules

d)

polar molecules

97.

Which group on the Periodic Table of the Elements contains elements that react with oxygen to form compounds with the general formula X2O?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 14

d)

Group 18

98.

An unsaturated solution is formed when 80. grams of a salt is dissolved in 100. grams of water at 40.°C. This salt could be

a)

KCl

b)

KNO3

c)

NaCl

d)

NaNO3

99.

Which kelvin temperature is equal to 56°C?

a)

-329 K

b)

-217 K

c)

217 K

d)

329 K

100.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:


Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)==>H2(g) + ZnCl2(aq)


Which set of reaction conditions produces H2(g) at the fastest rate?

a)

a 1.0-g lump of Zn(s) in 50. mL of 0.5 M HCl(aq) at 20.oC

b)

a 1.0-g lump of Zn(s) in 50. mL of 0.5 M HCl(aq) at 30.oC

c)

1.0 g of powdered Zn(s) in 50. mL of 1.0 M HCl(aq) at 20.oC

d)

1.0 g of powdered Zn(s) in 50. mL of 1.0 M HCl(aq) at 30.oC

101.

What is the pH of a solution that has a hydronium ion concentration 100 times greater than a solution with a pH of 4?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

102.

Which pH value is consistent with the indicator results of:


methyl orange - yellow

litmus - red

a)

1

b)

5

c)

3

d)

10