Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology 40S Review

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 4hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following describes the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

double helix

b)

sphere

c)

pyramid

d)

rectangle

2.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
3.

Name this structure

a)

double helix

b)

nucelotide

c)

twisted ladder

d)

hydrogen bond

4.

The letters of the DNA alphabet are:

a)

A, C, G and T

b)

A, O, G, and T

c)

C, G, P and T

d)

C, G, T and D

5.

In the DNA alphabet, T always pairs with:

a)

A

b)

T

c)

G

d)

C

6.

In the DNA alphabet, C always pairs with:

a)

A

b)

C

c)

T

d)

G

7.

How does DNA spell out different instructions?

a)

By having a double or triple helix

b)

Adding more phosphate

c)

Different combinations of letters from the DNA alphabet

d)

Adding more sugar

8.

A group of three letters on DNA is called a:

a)

Helix

b)

Sugar

c)

Phosphate

d)

Codon

9.

Many letters make a "sentence" that the cell understands. This "sentence" is called a:

a)

Gene

b)

Helix

c)

Phosphate

d)

Codon

10.

A gene tells the cell how to make a __________.

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Protein

d)

Ribosome

11.

If one strand of DNA says GCT, the other strand says:

a)

GCT

b)

CTA

c)

CGA

d)

TCG

12.

The three parts of a nucleotide are:

a)

Sugar, protein, letter from DNA alphabet

b)

Sugar, phosphate, letter from DNA alphabet

c)

Phosphate, protein, letter from DNA alphabet

d)

Phosphate, sulphur, letter from DNA alphabet

13.

The sides of the DNA ladder are made of alternating:

a)

Letters from the DNA alphabet

b)

Sugar and phosphate

c)

Sugar and protein

d)

Phosphate and sulphur

14.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
15.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

16.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
17.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
18.

This image is an example of a _____________ cross.

a)

Monohybrid

b)

Dihybrid

c)

Purebred

d)

Pure Breeding

19.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
20.
What proportion of the offspring in Figure 11-4 would be expected to have white, smooth hair?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
4/16
d)
1/16
21.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

22.
Which of the following identifies the gametes?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
23.
Which of the following identifies the phenotypes?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
24.

If the offsprings have the blood groups O and A the genotype of parents would be

a)

IAIA and IAi

b)

IA i and ii

c)

IAIA and IAIA

d)

IA i and IBi

25.

What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?

a)

O and AB

b)

O and A

c)

O and B

d)

A and B

26.

There are multiple alleles for the ABO blood group. Why are only two of these alleles present in any one individual?

a)

Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring.

b)

There are not enough nucleotides in a red blood cell to produce a third allele.

c)

Each allele in the ABO group must be dominant or recessive

d)

Blood group alleles are not segregated during meiosis.

27.

A personal with type AB blood has which genotype?

a)

type A

b)

AA

c)

IAIA

d)

IAIB

28.

Which term(s) best describes the inheritance of human blood types?

a)

incomplete dominance and multiple alleles

b)

codominance and epistasis

c)

codominance and multiple alleles

d)

incomplete dominance and codominance

29.

A man with type O blood is accused of being the father of a type B baby. The mother is type A. Could this man be the father?

a)

Yes

b)

No

30.
An allele is
a)
another word for a gene
b)
a homozygous genotype
c)
a heterozygous genotype
d)
one of several possible forms of a gene
31.
Phenotype refers to the ______________________ of an individual.
a)
genetic makeup
b)
actual physical appearance
c)
recessive alleles
32.
T3 - What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same alleles for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different alleles for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither allele is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
33.
T3 - Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
34.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

35.

An organism is a hybrid genotype (Tt) but is appears tall instead of short.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

36.

Person A is smart and has brown hair while Person B is also smart but has blonde hair.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

37.

There are more right-handed people in the world.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

law of Independent Assortment

38.

A type of genetic drift in which small groups of organisms separate from a larger population and form new small colonies.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Founder Effect

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Artificial Selection

39.

The exchange of genes between two populations.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Founder Effect

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Recombination

40.

This term refers to the total genetic information found in a population; the complete collection of all the alleles found in a population

a)

Gene library

b)

Genome

c)

Gene pool

d)

Allele pool

41.

This is one of the mechanisms of evolution; it occurs when individuals move into or out of a population, either by physically arriving or leaving, or by being born or dying

a)

Gene flow / genetic drift

b)

Founder effect

c)

Natural selection

d)

Microevolution

42.

This is one of the mechanisms of evolution; it is a continuous process in which organisms with traits that make them better-adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce than organisms without such adaptations

a)

Directional selection

b)

Microevolution

c)

Gene flow / genetic drift

d)

Natural selection

43.

This is a pattern of natural selection where one extreme form of a trait is more advantageous than the average or the opposite extreme; as a result, this trait in the population tends to evolve towards that one extreme

a)

Directional selection

b)

Disruptive selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Forward selection

44.

This is the pattern of natural selection where BOTH of the extreme versions of a trait are more advantageous than the average, so a population evolves in both directions away from the average

a)

Directional Selection

b)

Disruptive Selection

c)

Stabilizing Selection

d)

Radical Selection

45.

This occurs when a large population is drastically reduced by an event such as a natural disaster; the population's new gene pool only contains alleles from the survivors

a)

Founder effect

b)

Bottleneck effect

c)

Meteor effect

d)

Natural selection

46.

This is the process that ultimately creates new variations and changes in DNA; leads to the creation of new alleles

a)

Mutation

b)

Microevolution

c)

Natural selection

d)

Gene flow / genetic drift

47.

This is a pattern of natural selection in which the average (or intermediate) form of a trait is the most advantageous, and so a population evolves away from the extremes and toward the average

a)

Disruptive selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Middle selection

48.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
49.
Survival of the fittest or when favorable adaptations reproduce faster is called what?
a)
Evolution
b)
Adaptation
c)
Natural selection
d)
Fossilization
50.

What do we call a change in the genome over time?

a)

Evolution

b)

Adaptation

c)

Extinction

d)

Environmental influences

51.

What mechanism of evolution occurs when allele frequencies change over generations due to random chance?

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Mutation

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Gene Flow

52.

The sex of a child is determined by:

a)

Whether the father's sperm contains an X or Y chromosome

b)

Whether the mother's egg contains an X or Y chromosome

c)

The age of the parents

d)

The presence or absence of proteins in the mother's womb

53.

An individual's sex is determined by:

a)

1 of 23 chromosomes

b)

2 of 46 chromosomes

c)

4 of 92 chromosomes

d)

2 of 23 chromosomes

54.

Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked disease or disorder because:

a)

Males have more testosterone

b)

Males have less DNA

c)

Males have 1 X chromosome, so the disorder is more likely to be expressed

d)

Females have 1 Y chromosome to mask the trait

55.

When we say that a woman is a carrier for a genetic disease or disorder it means that:

a)

She has 1 gene, but not the disorder

b)

She has 2 genes for the disorder

c)

She can pass the gene only to male children

d)

She can pass the gene only to female children

56.

Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?

a)

XXh

b)

XhXh

c)

XX

d)

XhY

57.

Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?

a)

XXh

b)

XhXh

c)

XY

d)

XhY

58.

Hemophilia (h) is an x-linked recessive trait. What are the chances that a daughter would be a carrier? NOTE: X and XH mean the same thing.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

59.

The woman who is colorblind marries a man with normal vision. What is the probability that their sons will be colorblind?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

60.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXB
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
61.

A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon is called a:

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Silent mutation

62.

Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents a ________ mutation.

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Silent mutation

63.

A mutation that does NOT alter the protein production is called:

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Silent mutation

64.

Which of the following point mutations, if it occurs early in the gene, would result in the greatest number of changes in the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide?

a)

Deletions only

b)

Insertions only

c)

Substitutions only

d)

Insertions and deletions

65.

The original DNA is: ATC CAT

The mutated DNA is: ATC GCAT

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Substitution

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Insertion

66.

What are the Five Principles of Natural Selection?

a)

Overproduction, Variation, Competition, Adaption, Extinction

b)

Overproduction, Competition, Extinction, Evolution, Adaption,

c)

Overproduction, Variation, Competition, Adaption, Evolution

67.
Lamarck’s ideas about evolution include the concept that differences among the traits of organisms arise as a result of
a)
continual increases in population size.
b)
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c)
an unchanging local environment.
d)
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
68.
The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that
a)
in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.
b)
without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food for the growing human population.
c)
in the 1700s, England needed more housing.
d)
the majority of a species’ offspring die.
69.
Darwin realized that the economist Malthus’s theory of population control 
a)
applied only to humans.
b)
 could be generalized to any population of organisms.
c)
could be generalized only when populations lived in crowded conditions.
d)
explained why the number of deaths exceeded that of births.
70.
Each of the following is a condition necessary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT 
a)
more offspring are born than can survive.
b)
 population size is very large. 
c)
fitness varies among individuals.
d)
there is heritable variation among members of the population.
71.
Choose which scientist corresponds best with the statement: 
use or disuse
a)
Darwin 
b)
Lamarck
72.
Choose which scientist corresponds best with the statement: 
variations within populations
a)
Darwin 
b)
Lamarck
73.
What do we call differences among heritable traits?
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Evolution
d)
Speciation
74.

Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.

a)

Female

b)

Male

75.

Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.

a)

Female

b)

Male

76.

A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called:

a)

Sister chromotids

b)

Centromeres

c)

Homologous chromosomes

d)

Autosomes

77.

What makes this individual's karyotype unusual?

a)

An extra sex chromosome

b)

An extra autosome

c)

A missing sex chromosome

d)

A missing autosome

78.

Which of the following sex chromosome arrangements describes Turner's Syndrome?

a)

YO

b)

XXY

c)

XO

d)

XX

79.

Which of the following sex chromosome arrangements describes Klinefelter's Syndrome?

a)

XX

b)

XXY

c)

XO

d)

YO

80.
What would indicate a human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
81.
A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Inversion mutation
d)
Substitution mutation
82.
What does the "t" in tRNA stand for?
a)
Transfer
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Transversion
83.
If a DNA triplet has the sequence GAT, what is the corresponding mRNA codon?
a)
CUA
b)
CTA
c)
CTU
d)
CGA
84.
If an RNA codon has the sequence UGC, what is the sequence of the corresponding tRNA anticodon?
a)
ACG
b)
TCG
c)
CGC
d)
GGC
85.
Why is the codon AUG special?
a)
It is the start codon
b)
It is the stop codon
c)
It is the only codon for glycine
d)
It is the only codon for phenylalanine
86.
What type of bond joins together amino acids in a growing polypeptide chain?
a)
Peptide bonds
b)
James bonds
c)
Hydrogen bonds
d)
Ionic bonds
87.
Which two molecules never come in contact with one another during the process of Protein Synthesis?
a)
mRNA and tRNA
b)
rRNA and mRNA
c)
mRNA and DNA
d)
DNA and tRNA
88.
Which Hardy-Weinberg equation represents the genotype frequencies in a population?
a)
p + q = 1
b)
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
c)
p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
d)
p + 2pq + q3 = 1
89.
Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?
a)
p2
b)
2pq
c)
q2
d)
p2 + 2pq
90.
What do you call all of the genes in a population?
a)
Gene pool
b)
Relative Frequency
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Allele pool
91.
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium measure?
a)
changes in allele frequencies
b)
numbers of mutations
c)
goodness of fit
d)
genetic diversity
92.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
93.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
94.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of Heterozygous Dominant genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

95.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of recessive genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

96.

A population's recessive allele frequency 25%. What is the percentage of the Homozygous Dominant genotype?

a)

.5625

b)

.3750

c)

.0625

d)

.25

e)

.5

97.

64% of the population has the recessive phenotype. What is the percentage of the heterogeneous genotype?

a)

.04

b)

.32

c)

.64

d)

.2

e)

.8

98.
Tall is dominant to short. A homozygous tall plant is crossed with a short plant. What will be the phenotypes of the offspring?
a)
100% tall
b)
50% tall, 50% short
c)
75% tall, 25% short
d)
25% tall, 75% short
99.
Green is dominant to yellow. Two heterozygous green plants are crossed. What are the genotypes of the offspring?
a)
100% Gg
b)
50% GG, 50% Gg
c)
25% GG, 50% Gg, 25% gg
d)
75% Gg, 25% gg
100.
Purple is dominant to white. A heterozygous purple flower is crossed with a white flower. What are the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring?
a)
100% Pp (purple)
b)
50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white)
c)
75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white)
d)
25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp
75% purple, 25% white
101.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
102.
What is another way of saying "purebred"?
a)
homozygous
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
heterozygous
103.
If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would its alleles be represented?
a)
TT
b)
Tt
c)
tt
d)
tT
104.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
105.
What does the "R" in RNA stand for?
a)
Ribose
b)
Ribosome
c)
Riboflavin
d)
Radial
106.
In RNA, uracil replace which nitrogenous base?
a)
Thymine
b)
Guanine
c)
Adenine
d)
Cytosine
107.
RNA is synthesized in the ________ and then travels to the _______.
a)
Nucleus; ribosomes
b)
Ribosomes; nucleus
c)
Nucleus; tRNA
d)
Ribosomes; mitochondria
108.
What is the name for a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on a strand of mRNA?
a)
Codon
b)
Anticodon
c)
Amino acid
d)
Triplet
109.
What is the name of the process that ends with the synthesis of a polypeptide (protein) chain?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Transposition

Similar Resources on Wayground

Biology 30 Unit A Review

113 questions

Biology 30 Unit A Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

Respiration

114 questions

Respiration

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Mid Term Review 2021

110 questions

Mid Term Review 2021

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Special Senses

110 questions

Special Senses

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Unit 9 Review

110 questions

Unit 9 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

SINH CUỐI KÌ II

111 questions

SINH CUỐI KÌ II

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

Reproductive, Development & Genetics

110 questions

Reproductive, Development & Genetics

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Pig Dissection Practical Exam

106 questions

Pig Dissection Practical Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade