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Genetics

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What term denotes the physical expression of a gene?

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

appearance

d)

homologous

2.

Which term refers to the allele that shows up in the phenotype of a heterozygous genotpye?

a)

invasive

b)

recessive

c)

dominant

d)

passive

3.

Which of these genotypes would most likely be used to represent the dominant for pea plant height?

a)

TT

b)

tt

c)

PP

d)

pp

4.

Which of the following would produce a recessive phenotype?

a)

hh

b)

Rr

c)

Ww

d)

BB

5.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will separate during meiosis, one going to half the sex cells, the other allele going to the other half.

a)

Law of Domination

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Speciation

d)

Law of Genetics

6.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will come together independently of each other in the offspring?

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Probable Expression

c)

Law of Typical Collection

d)

Law of Assorted Assignment

7.

What word would be INCORRECT to describe "QQ"

a)

homozygous

b)

dominant

c)

genotype

d)

recessive

8.

If Y (yellow) is the dominant allele for pea plant seed color, which of the following would produce green seeds?

a)

yy

b)

Yy

c)

YY

d)

gg

9.

What are the chances that two white flower (pp) pea plants could produce a purple flower pea plant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

10.

The variety of genes and alleles that exist in organisms

a)

independent assortment

b)

chromosomal abnormalities

c)

genetic diversity

d)

mutations

11.

This law describes how each member of a homologous pair is pulled randomly to one side or another in anaphase I

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Gravity

d)

Law of Mathematical Order

12.

This law describes how each homologous pair separates independently of any other pairs during Anaphase I of meiosis

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Gravity

d)

Law of Mathematical Order

13.

The exchange of pieces of chromatin between homologous chromosomes during Prophase I of meiosis is called

a)

independent assortment

b)

mutation

c)

crossing over

d)

random fertilization

14.

Any change in the sequence of DNA is a

a)

recombination

b)

mutation

c)

chromatin

d)

independent assortment

15.
A dihybrid cross shows the possible outcomes of _______ 
a)
two alleles
b)
two parents
c)
two traits/characters
d)
a self pollination
16.
parent 1: GgBB
parent 2: ggBb
Find the gametes for parent 1.
a)
GB, GB, gB, gB
b)
gB, gb, gB, gb
c)
Gg, BB, GB, GB
d)
gg, Bb, gB, gb
17.
R= red 
r= green
Which color is recessive?
a)
red
b)
green
c)
both
d)
brown
18.
What is the genotype for a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (R), and homozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
a)
Ry
b)
RRyy
c)
RrYy
d)
Rryy
19.

In African-violet plants, purple flowers are dominant to white flowers. You purchase an African-violet plant with white flowers. It's genotype could be represented as :

a)

PP

b)

Pp

c)

pP

d)

pp

20.

To discover whether an animal showing the dominant trait is homozygous or heterozygous, it must be crossed with an animal that is:

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

choices B & C

21.

Two tall pea plants are crossed, producing 105 tall plants & 32 short plants. The genotypes of the tall parent plants are:

a)

Tt & Tt

b)

TT & Tt

c)

Tt & tt

d)

tt & tt

22.

Two brown-eyed parents have a child with blue eyes. The best explanation is:

a)

a mutation occured before the child was born

b)

both parents carry the allele for blue eyes

c)

both parents are pure for brown eyes

23.

Which scenario best supports the conclusion that a black guinea pig's genotype is homozygous dominant?

a)

after mating with a white guinea pig, 2 black & 2 white guinea pigs were produced

b)

after mating with a white guinea pig, 10 black & 8 white guinea pigs were produced

c)

after mating with a white guinea pig, 12 black guinea pigs were produced

d)

after mating with a black guinea pig, 4 black guinea pigs were produced

24.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
25.
How are Incomplete Dominance and Co Dominance different than a normal Mendelian cross?
a)
There is no difference
b)
The heterozygous genotype has a unique phenotype
c)
There is no heterozygous genotype
d)
There is only one phenotype regardless of genotype.
26.
Which type of inheritance causes both traits to be expressed equally in the heterozygote?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Co-Dominance
d)
Sex-linked
27.

The hair form gene shows incomplete dominance. If your genotype is SS, you will have straight hair. If your genotype is CC, you will have curly hair. If your genotype is SC, you will have wavy hair. Mr. and Mrs. Anderson both have wavy hair (SC). What percentage of their children will also have wavy hair (SC)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

28.

Which of the following is NOT true of dominant genes?

a)

Dominant genes are always expressed wherever they are present.

b)

A dominant gene will overpower all other genes to be the only one expressed.

c)

Two dominant genes can be expressed together in a situation of co-dominance.

d)

None of the above.

29.

If the offsprings have the blood groups O and A the genotype of parents would be

a)

IAIA and IAi

b)

IA i and ii

c)

IAIA and IAIA

d)

IA i and IBi

30.

What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?

a)

O and AB

b)

O and A

c)

O and B

d)

A and B

31.

There are multiple alleles for the ABO blood group. Why are only two of these alleles present in any one individual?

a)

Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring.

b)

There are not enough nucleotides in a red blood cell to produce a third allele.

c)

Each allele in the ABO group must be dominant or recessive

d)

Blood group alleles are not segregated during meiosis.

32.

A personal with type AB blood has which genotype?

a)

type A

b)

AA

c)

IAIA

d)

IAIB

33.

Which term(s) best describes the inheritance of human blood types?

a)

incomplete dominance and multiple alleles

b)

codominance and epistasis

c)

codominance and multiple alleles

d)

incomplete dominance and codominance

34.

Epistasis is the interaction between_____________ genes.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

d)

16

35.

Which best describes epistasis?

a)

An allele that changes the genotype of another allele

b)

A gene that changes the genotype of another gene

c)

An allele that controls or masks the expression of another allele

d)

A gene that controls or masks the expression of another gene

36.

This is when multiple genes code for a single trait

a)

Polygenic

b)

Pleiotropy

c)

Linked genes

d)

Codominant genes

37.

Which of the following inheritance patterns explains how a particular version of a regulatory gene can activate or deactivate a gene that controls a particular trait?

a)

codominance

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

incomplete dominance

38.

The goal of the Human Genome Project was to determine the

a)

total number of alleles in the human genome

b)

DNA sequence of the entire human genome.

c)

number of mutations in the human genome.

d)

pattern of inheritance of the human genome.

39.

A linkage map shows

a)

the locations of genes on a chromosome.

b)

all the human chromosomes arranged by size.

c)

the pattern of inheritance of an autosomal trait.

d)

the frequencies of phenotypes for a polygenic trait.

40.

An example of a sex-linked trait is

a)

widow's peak

b)

hitchhiker's thumb

c)

red-green color blindness

d)

earlobe attachment

41.

An example of a sex-linked trait is

a)

widow's peak

b)

hitchhiker's thumb

c)

red-green color blindness

d)

earlobe attachment

42.

Which is true about ABO blood type?

a)

there are three common alleles for this trait

b)

there are three possible genotypes for this trait

c)

the A allele is dominate to the B allele

d)

the A and O alleles are codominant

43.

A boy with a widow’s peak becomes bald by middle age. The gene for baldness “dominates” the gene for widow’s peak. This is an example of

a)

pleiotropy

b)

dominance

c)

epistasis

d)

nondisjunction

44.

An example of an autosomal recessive disorder is

a)

Maran syndrome

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

vitamin D-resistant rickets

d)

hemophilia A

45.

An example of an autosomal recessive disorder is

a)

Maran syndrome

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

vitamin D-resistant rickets

d)

hemophilia A

46.

The disorder caused by nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is known as

a)

Down's syndrome

b)

Turner's syndrome

c)

Klinefelter's syndrome

d)

Triple X syndrome

47.

Chromosomes with genes for traits unrelated to sex are called

a)

autosomes

b)

complete

c)

deutosomes

d)

linked genes

48.

A diagram that shows the inheritance of a trait in a family is a(n)

a)

karyotype

b)

pedigree

c)

punnett

d)

blood chart

49.

2. Cells are formed by the division of existing cells. Four different cells are shown.


Which cell is produced by meiosis?

a)

A. Nerve cell

b)

B. Sperm cell

c)

C. Palisade cell

d)

D. White blood cell

50.

3. Albinism is an inherited condition in which pigment does not develop in the skin, hair and eyes. The allele for albinism is recessive.

What are the chances of albino parents having an albino child?

a)

A. 0%

b)

B. 25%

c)

C. 75%

d)

D. 100%

51.

5. Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct?

a)

A. All boys have two Y chromosomes.

b)

B. Everybody has at least one X chromosome.

c)

C. Girls have a Y chromosome and an X chromosome.

d)

D. Nobody has two X chromosomes.

52.

6. A man has three daughters.


What is the chance of his next child being a daughter?

a)

A. 0%

b)

B. 25%

c)

C. 50%

d)

D. 75%

53.

10. Sickle cell anaemia is determined by the gene Hb. HbA is the allele for normal blood. HbS is the allele for sickle cell anaemia.


Which combination of parents could result in some children with resistance to malaria and some with all normal red blood cells?

a)

A. HbA HbA HbA HbA

b)

B. HbA HbA HbA HbS

c)

C. HbA HbA HbS HbS

d)

D. HbS HbS HbS HbS

54.

12. Chromosomes that determine the body characteristics -------------------------------

a)

A. Allosomes

b)

B. Autosomes

c)

C. Karyotype

d)

D. Sex linkage

55.

14. In the inheritance of ABO blood groups, when two parents have the genotypes IAIA and IAIo, what is the blood group of their offspring?

a)

A. group A

b)

B. group AB

c)

C. group B

d)

D. group O

56.
Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG?
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
57.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Protein Synthesis

58.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

59.

Where is DNA and RNA made?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

ER

60.
A molecule of DNA is made up of _________.
a)
amino acids and proteins
b)
ATP and enzymes
c)
paired nucleotides
d)
receptor enzymes
61.
What is the complimentary mRNA sequence to the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A.
a)
T-A-A-C-G-T
b)
U-A-A-C-G-T
c)
U-A-A-C-G-U
d)
T-A-A-G-C-U
62.
Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA?
a)
pair of nucleic acid and sugar
b)
pair of phosphate and sugar
c)
three-base code
d)
two-base code
63.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
64.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
65.
The "central dogma" states that genetic information flows from 
a)
Protein-->mRNA-->DNA
b)
Protein-->DNA-->mRNA
c)
mRNA-->DNA-->Protein
d)
DNA-->mRNA-->Protein
66.
Transcription takes place in the 
a)
cytoplasm
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
nucleus
67.
Translation occurs in the
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
golgi apparatus
68.
Assembles RNA during transcription
a)
RNA Polymerase 
b)
Mutations
c)
Gene Expression
d)
Point Mutation
69.

A codon consists of ___ nucleotides?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

70.

This organelle is crucial for the translation process:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosome

c)

Gogli Apparatus

d)

Vacuole

71.

The start codon is _______:

a)

AUG

b)

GGG

c)

UCG

d)

AAU

72.

The DNA sequence UAGCGAUUACGU is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

8

d)

12

73.
Which of the following is the blueprint for the production of RNA within a cell?
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
ATO
d)
carbohydrate
74.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding RNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil
b)
RNA can only be found inside the nucleus
c)
RNA is single stranded
d)
RNA contains genetic information
75.
Carries the genetic code to the ribosome
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
76.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
77.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
78.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
79.
If an mRNA molecule has introns and exons in it, where is it?
a)
At a ribosome
b)
In the nucleus
c)
In a prokaryotic cell
d)
could be in the nucleus or the ribosome
80.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
81.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
82.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
83.

To fit into a cell, DNA coils around a group of beadlike proteins …..

a)

DNA

b)

nucleosome

c)

histones

d)

chromatid

84.

On the top rail, the strand is oriented as

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

c)

5 sugar 3 carbon

d)

All of the above.

85.

What is competency for a cell?

a)

The insertion of a formed plasmid into the cell.

b)

The chemical process of switching the gene.

c)

Super coiled molecules formed in the plasmid of the cell.

d)

Change in the structure and permeability of the cell membrane.

86.

Cells are made competent by;

a)

The incubation of the bacteria at 95C

b)

A process that uses calcium chloride.

c)

A process that uses GFP

d)

A process that uses polymerases

87.

Heat shock

a)

Trap the plasmids inside the cell.

b)

Enlarges the pores of the cell.

c)

Provides for the death of the cell.

d)

Increases the disintegration of the cell wall.

88.

The exogenous DNA used in bacterial transformation can be,

a)

mRNA molecule

b)

rDNA

c)

engineered plasmid

d)

red fluorescent protein

89.

LB containing ampicillin (2nd plate) is inoculated with the E. coli bacteria that contains ampicillin resistant gene. The bacteria will;

a)

Grow on the agar plate

b)

Will not grow on the agar plate.

c)

will only grow after the plate has been incubated at 45C

d)

will only grow after the plate has been placed in a warm water bath for 2 minutes.

90.

Which of the following statement is true concerning transformation;

a)

Bacterial transformation involves the transfer of genetic material that results in the acquisition of a new trait that is stable but not inheritable.

b)

There are no bacterial species that go thru the transformation process naturally.

c)

Transformation efficiencies are a way to determine how many cells were transformed per microgram of plasmid DNA used.

d)

The promoter is the region at the end of the gene .

91.

Bacterial transformation was discovered by

a)

Frederick Griffith

b)

Avery Macleod and Mc carty

c)

Colin

d)

Watson crick

e)

Zinder & Lederberg

92.

The transfer of genetic material from one cell to another cell through Bacteriphage is called

a)

Conjugation

b)

Tranduction

c)

Transformation

d)

Recombination

93.

Transduction occurs when ________________.

a)

None of these.

b)

a virus accidentally transfer bacterial DNA to another bacterium.

c)

a plasmid is transferred from one bacteria to another.

d)

bacteria take up DNA from the environment.

94.

Transformation occurs when ________________.

a)

None of these.

b)

a virus accidentally transfers bacterial DNA to a another bacterium.

c)

a plasmid is transferred from one bacteria to another.

d)

bacteria take up DNA from the environment.

95.

Which of the following describes a bacteriophage?

a)

a virus that only infects plants

b)

a virus that only infects birds

c)

a species of bacteria that infects plants

d)

a virus that only infects bacteria

96.

When an episome did not excise properly from the bacterial chromosome, it will produce

a)

HFR chromosome

b)

F+ plasmid

c)

F factor

d)

F- cell

e)

F' plasmid

97.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
98.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
99.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
100.
Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of mRNA?
a)
addition of poly-A tail
b)
addition of 5' cap
c)
removal of introns
d)
removal of exons

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