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Biology Unit 1

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A single bacterium divides into two bacteria that are identical to, but smaller than, the original bacterium. Which characteristic of life does this best describe?

a)

Conversion of molecules

b)

Response to stimulus

c)

Replication and reproduction

d)

Complexity and organization

2.

Why the did evolution of photosynthesis in the ancient ocean allow organisms to colonize land?

a)

Photosynthesis is more efficient in land plants

b)

Oxygenation of the atmosphere formed protective ozone

c)

Cells no longer required water with aerobic metabolism

d)

More water vapors formed as oxygen increased in the atmosphere

3.

True/False

Organization (e.g., building molecules, constructing tissues) in life requires energy inputs.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

True/ False

You hypothesize that increased light levels will enhance growth of your houseplants. You test this hypothesis, moving the plants to an area in your home with more light. Over several weeks, and you find that the plants begins to look fuller and healthier. This result proves your original hypothesis.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

An atom with _______ has an atomic number of 14.

a)

7 neutrons and 7 protons

b)

14 protons

c)

14 neutrons

d)

. 7 neutrons and 7 electrons

6.

What determines if a molecule is polar or nonpolar?

a)

The differences in the electronegativities between the atoms

b)

The number of atoms in the molecule

c)

The ionic charges between atoms

d)

The number of bonds in the molecule

7.

Small molecules containing several hydroxyl groups are typically

a)

Soluble in water

b)

Not very stable

c)

Ionic

d)

Nonpolar

8.

Which of these molecules contains only nonpolar bonds?

a)

O2

b)

CH3-OH

c)

CH3-NH2

d)

H2O

9.

An atom has an atomic number of 12. Assuming neutrality, how many valence electrons does it have?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

1

d)

2

10.

Which factor defines whether a reaction is endergonic?

a)

Entropy

b)

Delta G

c)

The laws of thermodynamics

d)

Activation energy

11.

During a typical hydrolysis reaction in cells, the energy required to break bonds in the substrates is _______________ the energy released when bonds are formed in the products.

a)

Greater than (endergonic)

b)

Less than (exergonic)

c)

Equal to

12.

Gibbs free energy is negative for _________________ reactions, which are typically associated with a ________________ change in enthalpy and a _______________ change in entropy.

a)

exergonic; positive; negative

b)

endergonic; negative; positive

c)

exergonic; negative; positive

d)

endergonic; positive, negative

13.

True/False

Energy can be transformed during metabolic reactions

a)

True

b)

False

14.

True/False

For each reaction in a metabolic pathway, a small amount of energy disappears due to the increase in entropy

a)

True

b)

False

15.

True/False

Endergonic and exergonic reactions can both involve breaking of bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following relationships are not accurate?

a)

Hydrolysis – water is required (reactant)

b)

Anabolic – synthesis of biomolecules

c)

Entropy – disorder

d)

Endergonic – negative delta G

17.

Margarine is a butter substitute that is solid at room temperature. It is made from vegetable oils (often soybean or canola oil). The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable oil" as the major ingredient. Which statement below best explains this?

a)

The margarine is less likely to clog arteries compared to vegetable oil, because the triglycerides in vegetable oils contain unsaturated fatty acids.

b)

The margarine stays solid at room temperature because the fatty acids in the triglycerides are saturated.

c)

The margarine has more "kinks" in the fatty acid chains, compared to vegetable oil, causing it to be solid at room temperature.

d)

Margarine has a lower melting point than vegetable oil.

18.

Maltose, or malt sugar, is composed of two glucose molecules bound by a glycosidic linkage. How can maltose be classified? Choose all that apply.

a)

as a monosaccharide

b)

as a disaccharide

c)

as a hexose

d)

as a polysaccharide

e)

as a starch

19.

Put the correct word in the blanks:

First blank

_____________ bonds are formed during anabolic reactions in the synthesis of macromolecules. In lipids there are ____________ bonds, whereas in carbohydrates there are ____________ bonds.

a)

covalent

b)

glycosidic

c)

hydrogen

d)

ionic

e)

ester

20.

Put the correct word in the blanks:

Second blank

_____________ bonds are formed during anabolic reactions in the synthesis of macromolecules. In lipids there are ____________ bonds, whereas in carbohydrates there are ____________ bonds.

a)

ester

b)

covalent

c)

hydrogen

d)

carboxylic

21.

Put the correct word in the blanks:

Final blank

_____________ bonds are formed during anabolic reactions in the synthesis of macromolecules. In lipids there are ____________ bonds, whereas in carbohydrates there are ____________ bonds.

a)

Glycosidic

b)

Carboxylic

c)

Ester

d)

Covalent

22.

In order to maintain an ideal membrane fluidity, cells of a fish can make chemical modifications to their membranes to deal with changes in temperature. How might you expect the lipids in a fish from warmer water to compare to those in a fish from colder water?

a)

Lipids will have fatty acids with more glycerol in the water water fish.

b)

Lipids will have more saturated fatty acids in the warmer water fish.

c)

Lipids will have less saturated fatty acids in the warmer water fish.

23.

True/False

All carbohydrates are polymers

a)

True

b)

False

24.

In an alpha helix, the coiling is stabilized by

a)

the hydrophobic nature of the R chains, which causes the chain to coil with the R groups inward.

b)

hydrogen bonding of the N—H groups on one amino acid and the C=O groups on another.

c)

repulsion of the R chains from each other, causing the coil to form with the R groups on the outside.

d)

disulfide bond formation between cysteines that are regularly spaced along peptide chains.

e)

. the N—C—C repeat of the peptide backbone, allowing for regularly spaced peptide bonds between chain segments.

25.

Which of the following is matched correctly with its building block?

a)

Polysaccharides – amino acids

b)

Proteins – glucose

c)

Lipids – glycerol and fatty acids

d)

Nucleic acids – monosaccharides

26.

Nucleotides in RNA are connected to one another in the polynucleotide chain by

a)

covalent bonds between bases.

b)

covalent bonds between sugar and base.

c)

covalent bonds between sugar and phosphate

d)

hydrogen bonds between purines.

e)

hydrogen bonds between any bases.

27.

Match the amino acid pairs with the type of bond/interaction they would have in the tertiary structure of a protein

Arg+Lys

a)

Van der Waals interactions

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Disulfide bridge

e)

None of these interactions are likely

28.

Match the amino acid pairs with the type of bond/interaction they would have in the tertiary structure of a protein

Asp+Lys

a)

van der Waals interaction

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Disulfide bridge

e)

None of these are likely

29.

Match the amino acid pairs with the type of bond/interaction they would have in the tertiary structure of a protein

Gln+Ser

a)

van der Waals

b)

Ionic

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Disulfide

30.

Match the amino acid pairs with the type of bond/interaction they would have in the tertiary structure of a protein

Leu+Ile

a)

van der Waals

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Disulfide bridge

31.

Match the amino acid pairs with the type of bond/interaction they would have in the tertiary structure of a protein

Cys+Cys

a)

van der Waals

b)

Ionic

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Disulfide bridges

32.

Match the amino acid pairs with the type of bond/interaction they would have in the tertiary structure of a protein

Ala+Thr

a)

van der Waals interactions

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Disulfide bridge

e)

None of these interactions are likely

33.

In a properly folded, active protein that is found in the aqueous environment of a cell, where would you expect to find isoleucine and valine residues?

a)

In the interior of the protein with nonpolar side chains

b)

In the interior of the protein with polar side chains

c)

On the exterior of the protein

d)

In the interior of the protein in contact with water

e)

On either the interior or the exterior of the protein

34.

True/False

Bonding between A-T is stronger than G-C in double stranded DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Ascorbic acid, which is found in citrus fruits, acts as an inhibitor to catecholase, the enzyme responsible for the browning reaction in fruits such as apples, peaches, and pears.

One explanation for the inhibiting function of ascorbic acid could be its similarity, in terms of size and shape, to catechol, the substrate of the browning reaction. If this explanation is correct, then this inhibition is most likely an example of _______ inhibition.

a)

competitive

b)

indirect

c)

noncompetitive

d)

allosteric

e)

feedback

36.

Cyclooxygenase catalyzes a step in the metabolic pathways that produce Prostaglandins involved in inflammation and pain. Aspirin covalently binds to and inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase. What kind of regulation is this?

a)

Allosteric inhibition

b)

Feedback inhibition

c)

Reversible inhibition

d)

Irreversible inhibition

37.

True/False

An enzyme can lower the activation energy of a reaction by inducing physical strain on the chemical bonds in the substrate(s).

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Enzymes

a)

may be subject to allosteric inhibition

b)

change the value of ΔG for a reaction

c)

always require cofactors.

d)

have no effect on the activation energy barrier of a reaction

e)

are permanently changed by the reactions they facilitate

39.

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction:

a)

always interferes with product release

b)

cannot bind to the active site

c)

binds to an allosteric site

d)

is usually structurally similar to the substrate

40.

In hibernating animals, during the cold months of winter,

a)

signal transduction pathways cease.

b)

saturated fatty acids are replaced with unsaturated fatty acids

c)

membranes harden as more saturated fatty acids accumulate in them

d)

there are no changes in lipid composition

e)

integral proteins shrink as temperatures fall

41.

When placed in water, wilted plants ‘perk up’ and lose their limpness because of

a)

active transport of salts from the water into the plant cells.

b)

active transport of salts into the water from the plant cells.

c)

osmosis of water into the plant cells.

d)

osmosis of water out of the plant cells.

e)

diffusion of water out of the plant cells.

42.

Suppose the inside of a cell has a total solute concentration of 4 M. Which of the following solutes outside of the cell would require active transport into the cell?

a)

2.5 M CO2

b)

4.2 M Cl-

c)

6 M fructose

d)

3 M Na+

e)

4.5 M K+

43.

When a mouse cell and a human cell are fused, the membrane proteins of the two cells become uniformly distributed over the surface of the hybrid cell. This occurs because

a)

many proteins can move around within the bilayer

b)

all proteins are anchored within the membrane

c)

proteins are asymmetrically distributed within the membrane

d)

all proteins in the plasma membrane are peripheral

e)

different membranes contain different proteins

44.

When you eat fruits and vegetables, your body breaks down carbohydrates into many sugar monomers through ___________ reactions. Then the monomers move across the membrane of intestinal cells against their concentration gradient by ________________.

a)

Hydrolysis; facilitated diffusion

b)

Condensation; active transport

c)

Hydrolysis; active transport

d)

Condensation; simple diffusion

45.

The process of primary active transport ________ the input of energy because it involves the movement of substances________ their concentration gradients, via _______ proteins.

a)

requires; down; channel

b)

does not require; down; carrier

c)

requires; against; carrier

d)

does not require; against; channel

e)

requires; against; channel

46.

What determines whether an atom will form a chemical bond with another atom?

a)

The stability of the atom's nucleus

b)

The number of protons in the atom's nucleus

c)

The state of the atom's outermost electron shell

d)

The number of filled electron shells in the atom

47.

The reactivity of an atom arises primarily from

a)

sum of the potential energies of all electron shells

b)

energy difference between the electron shells

c)

existence of fewer than eight electrons in the outermost shell

d)

average distance of outermost shell from the nucleus

e)

potential energy of the outermost shell

48.

An atom that contains ten portons and ten electorns is likely to

a)

be chemically inert (stable)

b)

form covalent bons with another aotm

c)

be toxic

d)

form ionic bons woitj another atom

e)

be readioactive

49.

van der Waals interactions are weak interactions that occur between nonpolar covalent bonds

a)

true

b)

false

50.

Covalent bond formation depends on the ability of atoms to

a)

capture electrons from gases

b)

receive electrons from other atoms

c)

share electrons with other atoms

d)

donate electorns to other atkms

51.

If an organism takes in 1,000 kilojoules of energy in the form of food, how much of this energy still exists after the organism has used the energy to build new cells, repair damaged cells, pump its heart, and run from a predator?

a)

all of the energy remains

b)

only the energy used to build new cells remains

c)

only the energy used to build new cells, repair damaged cells, and pump its heart remains.

d)

No energy remains

e)

Only the energy used to build new cells and repair damaged cells remains

52.

Which statement is false with regards to the first and second laws of thermodynamics?

a)

Chemical energy may be converted to light energy

b)

Living organisms can change the form taken by energy

c)

The total energy of a system is available to do work

d)

Some organisms obtain energy from the sun

e)

Kinetic energy may be used to do work.

53.

Entropy

a)

is free energy

b)

is related to the disorder or randomness of a system.

c)

is the total energy in a system.

d)

tends to decrease the total energy in the universe.

e)

when multiplied by the absolute temperature, is the usable energy in a system

54.

Condensation reactions are typically

a)

endergonic

b)

both

c)

exergonic

55.

The synthesis of complex molecules _______ energy, whereas their degradation _______ energy. The synthesis of complex molecules occurs with _______ in entropy.

a)

requires; releases; a decrease

b)

requires; releases; no change

c)

requires; releases; an increase

d)

releases; requires; no change

e)

releases; requires; an increase

56.

Which of the following would decrease the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

Adding more reactants

b)

Squeezing the reactants into a smaller volume

c)

Stirring the reaction more vigorously

d)

Raising the activation energy

e)

Increasing the temperature

57.

Table salt, NaCl, is neutral. When dissolved in water, NaCl

a)

emains as NaCl (does not dissociate).

b)

dissociates to form Na and Cl+ molecules.

c)

dissociates to form Na+ and Cl ions that interact with water molecules.

d)

dissociates to form Na+ and Cl ions that do not interact with water molecules.

e)

does not dissociate, but interacts with water molecules

58.

A solution with a pH of 9 contains

a)

no OH ions

b)

only H ions.

c)

the same number of OH ions and H+ ions

d)

more OH ions than H+ ions.

e)

more H+ ions than OH ions.

59.

_______ capacity is a term used to describe the ability of a solution to prevent large changes in pH with the addition of a base or acid

a)

Cohesive

b)

Buffering

c)

Freezing

d)

Heat

e)

Vaporization

60.

Phospholipids differ from triglycerides in that phospholipids

a)

do not contain fatty acids

b)

are amphipathic

c)

are not derivatives of glycerol

d)

are used to store energy for the cell

e)

do not have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic components

61.

Olive oil melts at a lower temperature than beef fat because

a)

oils contain glycerol, whereas fats do not

b)

oils are made by plants, whereas fats are made by animals.

c)

fats contain more unsaturated fatty acids than oils do

d)

fats contain more saturated fatty acids than oils do.

62.

All carbohydrates

a)

are polymers

b)

are found in biological membranes

c)

are more soluble in nonpolar solvents than in water

d)

have the general structure (C1H2O1)n or CnH2nOn

e)

are simple sugars

63.

DNA with a higher G and C content is more stable at high temperatures than DNA with a high A and T content. Why?

a)

The two DNA strands assume a parallel orientation when the A and T content is higher.

b)

Each G-C pair forms three hydrogen bonds between antiparallel strands, whereas each A-T pair forms just two.

c)

The negative charge on the phosphates in the backbone of DNA strands is partially neutralized with a higher G and C content.

d)

The hydrophobic interactions between G and C are stronger than those between A and T.

e)

G and C fit together better than A and T do.

64.

Complementary base pairing

a)

results in the formation of the double helix of RNA

b)

takes place between purine and pyrimidine bases.

c)

does not take place in RNA

d)

takes place between two purine bases

e)

takes place between the bases and the phosphates in the backbone of the nucleic acid chain

65.

Replication is the synthesis of _______, and transcription is the synthesis of _______.

a)

an identical copy of RNA; an identical copy of DNA

b)

an RNA copy of DNA; an identical copy of DNA

c)

an identical copy of DNA; proteins

d)

an identical copy of DNA; an RNA copy of DNA

e)

proteins; an RNA copy of DNA

66.

When incorporated into a polypeptide chain not at the N or C terminus, _______ would make the charge of the polypeptide more positive.

a)

cysteine

b)

serine

c)

alanine

d)

glutamic acid

e)

arginine

67.

Where would the leucine side chain most likely be found in a protein dissolved in water?

a)

On either the interior or the exterior of the protein

b)

In the interior of the protein in contact with nonpolar side chains

c)

In the interior of the protein in contact with water

d)

In the interior of the protein in contact with polar side chains

e)

On the exterior of the protein

68.

The primary structure of proteins is the _______. The primary structure contains the information necessary for the formation of secondary structure, including the _______ and the _______. Secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by the formation of _______ bonds.

a)

β pleated sheet; α helix; amino acid sequence; hydrogen

b)

amino acid sequence; α helix; β pleated sheet; hydrogen

c)

α helix; amino acid sequence; β pleated sheet; hydrophobic

d)

amino acid sequence; α helix; β pleated sheet; peptide

e)

amino acid sequence; β pleated sheet; α helix; disulfide

69.

Tertiary structure of proteins involves bonding between amino acid R groups. What kind of bond would form between the R groups of Leu, Phe, and Val?

a)

no kind of bond is possible between these amino acid R groups

b)

ionic bond

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

van der Waals interactions

e)

disulfide bond

70.

How should the lettered parts be labeled?

a)

A = cholesterol, B = oligosaccharide, C = glycolipid, D = transmembrane protein

b)

A = glycolipid, B = glycoprotein, C = cholesterol, D = phospholipid bilayer

c)

A = glycolipid, B = integral protein, C = oligosaccharide, D = phospholipid bilayer

d)

A = glycoprotein, B = peripheral protein, C = cholesterol, D = phospholipid bilayer

e)

A = glycoprotein, B = peripheral protein, C = glycolipid, D = fatty acid tails

71.

Which statement about diffusion is false?

a)

Facilitated diffusion does not require ATP.

b)

Molecules move from areas of greater concentration to areas of lesser concentration.

c)

The rate of transport depends on the concentration of the molecule transported

d)

Simple diffusion depends on channel proteins

e)

Diffusion occurs as the result of the random movement of molecules.

72.

A unicellular organism adapted to living in salt water is placed in a freshwater tank. What is the likely outcome?

a)

Water moves out of the cell, causing it to shrivel.

b)

Water moves into the cell until the organism can adapt.

c)

Water moves out of the cell until the organism can adapt.

d)

Water and salt move in opposite directions until the organism can adapt.

e)

Water moves into the cell, causing it to burst.

73.

Lactose is transported via secondary active transport into bacterial cells. Which of the following would be absent from a diagram illustrating the mechanism of this transport system?

a)

Diffusion of a substance in the same direction as its concentration gradient

b)

The formation of a concentration gradient

c)

A channel protein used to create an ion gradient

d)

The movement of lactose against its concentration gradient

e)

Coupling of lactose transport to transport of another substance

74.

Which structure(s) is/are directly involved in the movement of organelles within a cell?

a)

Intermediate filaments

b)

Cell wall

c)

Microtubules

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

75.

Which type of cell junction would be used to pass ions from one cell to an adjacent cell?

a)

desmosome

b)

tight junction

c)

channel protein

d)

gap junction

76.

Tight junctions are a type of cell junction that still allows materials to move around in the extracellular matrix between cells.

a)

true

b)

false

77.

Suppose you are analyzing a newly discovered unicellular organism to determine whether it should be classified as a prokaryote or eukaryote. Which approach should you take?

a)

Determine the types of compartmentalization of functions within the cytoplasm.

b)

Analyze the metabolic reactions taking place in the cytoplasm.

c)

Determine whether the organism uses cytoskeletal proteins to provide structure within its cell.

d)

Determine whether the organism is capable of respiration

78.

Some proteins on the surface of mammalian cells contain carbohydrates. These proteins are synthesized by _______ and the carbohydrates are added in the _______.

a)

Golgi apparatus; rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

cytoplasmic ribosomes; smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cytoplasmic ribosomes; cell membrane

d)

the rough endoplasmic reticulum; Golgi apparatus

79.

Which type of metabolic reaction is an example of a process that does not require coupling to ATP hydrolysis?

a)

β-oxidation of fatty acids

b)

Active transport of sodium ions against their concentration gradient

c)

Condensation of amino acids to form proteins

d)

Condensation of glucose units to form glycogen

80.

During photosynthesis in green plants, water is

a)

used to hydrolyze ATP.

b)

oxidized to O2 in the light.

c)

reduced to hydrogen gas.

d)

an electron acceptor.

e)

oxidized to O2 in the dark.

81.

The energy currency of cells is

a)

light

b)

nucleic acids

c)

heat

d)

ATP

e)

glucose

82.

Metabolic pathways can be controlled through the availability of enzymes and modulation of their catalytic activities. Enzyme availability can be regulated via _______, while enzyme activity is commonly regulated via _______.

a)

covalent modification; proteolytic breakdown

b)

proteolytic breakdown; gene expression

c)

gene expression; allosteric activation and inhibition

d)

gene expression; covalent modification

83.

Triglycerides are major energy storage molecules. Which statement about the complete oxidation of triglycerides to CO2 and water and the oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water is true?

a)

ATP is hydrolyzed at some point in both pathways.

b)

Glucose oxidation and triglyceride oxidation use glycolysis.

c)

They are both endergonic.

84.

The conversion of malate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle takes place with the conversion of NAD+ to NADH. In this reaction, NAD+ is

a)

reduced

b)

oxidized

c)

unchanged

85.

Which statement about the citric acid cycle is true?

a)

It requires FAD but not NAD+.

b)

It takes place in the mitochondrial matrix

c)

CO2 is absorbed during operation of the cycle.

d)

It releases less energy than glycolysis.

86.

At which catabolic step is the greatest quantity of ATP produced?

a)

Citric acid cycle

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Pyruvate oxidation

87.

Which molecule has the high-energy chemical bonds that can be oxidized to release enough energy to drive NADH and ATP synthesis from NAD+ and ADP?

a)

CH2O2

b)

CO2

c)

H2O

d)

C5H10O2

88.

According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, what is the direct source of the energy used to synthesize ATP from ADP in chloroplasts and in mitochondria?

a)

electrons

b)

proton gradient

c)

glucose

d)

water

89.

Which is the correct order of the steps in a generalized signal transduction pathway?

a)

Signal molecule enters nucleus, signal molecule binds to DNA, transcription of specific genes occurs

b)

Signal molecule binds to extracellular region of receptor, signal molecule diffuses through cell membrane, signal is transduced to nucleus where specific genes are turned on or off

c)

Signal molecule activates target cell, target cell binds to receptor, receptor is activated

d)

Signal molecule is secreted by nearby cell, signal molecule enters cell, signal activates receptor

e)

Signal molecule binds to receptor, molecules within cell transduce signal, cell responds

90.

Which statement about intracellular receptors in a signal transduction pathway is true?

a)

Ligands do not have to enter the cell to activate intracellular receptors

b)

Ligands bind first to membrane receptors, then enter the cell and bind to intracellular receptors.

c)

Ligands bind irreversibly to intracellular receptors

d)

Intracellular receptors undergo a conformational change when activated

e)

Intracellular receptors bind to hydrophilic ligands.

91.

Protein kinase receptors phosphorylate themselves and/or other proteins when activated, resulting in a(n)

a)

change in the ligand binding specificity.

b)

decrease in ligand–receptor binding.

c)

inhibition of further transduction of the signal.

d)

change in shape and function of the proteins.

92.

Oxytocin stimulates a G protein-coupled signal transduction pathway. During signal transduction in this pathway, a G protein becomes activated. Which three molecules does G protein interact with in this pathway?

a)

Ligand, GDP, and GTP

b)

G protein-linked receptor, GTP, and effector protein

c)

GTP, cytoplasmic receptor, and transcription factor

d)

G protein-coupled receptor, ATP, and enzyme

93.

How would administering a non-hydrolyzable form of GTP to a cell affect its G protein-coupled signal transduction pathways?

a)

The pathways would never turn off.

b)

The pathways would become nonresponsive to stimuli.

c)

The pathways would become hypersensitive to stimuli.

d)

he pathways would respond in unpredictable ways

94.

Some drugs function as ligands to bind to a natural receptor site in the body and elicit the signal transduction pathway associated with that receptor. In designing a drug to function in the human body, a pharmaceutical chemist would focus on mimicking which aspect of the natural ligand?

a)

number of chemical bonds

b)

density

c)

orientation of functional groups

d)

number of atoms

95.

A previously unknown chemical signal is discovered in mice. Five observations about this signal are listed. Which observation would serve as evidence in distinguishing whether this chemical signal should be classified as a juxtacrine or a paracrine signal?

a)

Cells producing the signal are not affected by the signal molecule.

b)

The signal molecule is a protein.

c)

The signal molecule is not present in blood.

d)

The signal molecule is not present in extracellular fluid.

96.

A protein kinase can phosphorylate an enzyme and activate it by

a)

increasing the number of enzyme molecules.

b)

increasing transcription of the enzyme.

c)

changing the shape of the enzyme to expose an active site

d)

changing the enzyme's function.

e)

decreasing the number of enzyme inhibitors.

97.

This is an example of

a)

Protein kinase receptor

b)

Ligand-gated ion channel

c)

G protein-coupled receptor

98.

This is an example of

a)

Ligand-gated ion channel

b)

G protein-coupled receptor

c)

Protein kinase receptor

99.

This is example of

a)

Ligand gated ion channel

b)

G protein-coupled receptor

c)

Protein kinase receptor