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WorksheetsA&P07 Skeletal System
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The term "bone" can refer to
a)
a tissue, an organ or a type of cell.
b)
a tissue or an organ only.
c)
a tissue only
d)
an organ only.
2.
All of the following are functions of bones except
a)
to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.
b)
to protect certain internal organs.
c)
to provide a source for red and white blood cells.
d)
to store inorganic salts.
3.
The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n)
a)
irregular bone.
b)
short bone.
c)
flat bone.
d)
long bone.
4.
Which of the following is not found associated with spongy bone?
a)
Osteons
b)
Trabeculae
c)
Canaliculi
d)
Osteocytes
5.
Which of the following groups of bones, based on shape, is associated with an incorrect example?
a)
Flat bones - thigh bones
b)
Long bones - forearm bones
c)
Short bones - wrist and ankle bones
d)
Irregular bones - vertebrae
6.
Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________.
a)
osteons; trabeculae
b)
spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid
c)
trabeculae; osteons
d)
osteocytes; no osteocytes
7.
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found
a)
on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
b)
inside the medullary cavity.
c)
on the outer surface of the diaphysis.
d)
in the spaces of the spongy bone.
8.
Articular cartilage is
a)
hyaline cartilage.
b)
fibrocartilage.
c)
elastic cartilage.
d)
found only in the knees and elbows.
9.
A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions?
a)
Osteogenesis imperfecta
b)
Polydactyly
c)
Osteoporosis
d)
Anemia
10.
A bone thickens
a)
as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
b)
as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
c)
due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
d)
as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
11.
A bone lengthens
a)
as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
b)
as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
c)
due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
d)
as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
12.
Osteoblasts are ______, whereas osteocytes are ______.
a)
bone-forming cells; mature bone cells
b)
bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells
c)
mature bone cells; bone-forming cells
d)
bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells
13.
Osteoclasts are
a)
cells that break down bone matrix.
b)
cells that secrete bone matrix.
c)
mature bone cells that maintain the matrix.
d)
immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes.
14.
In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ______.
a)
rickets; retardation of bone development
b)
pituitary dwarfism; rickets
c)
excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia
d)
soft bones; rickets
15.
Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ______ , which as a result decreases the rate of cell division of ______.
a)
growth hormone ; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate
b)
thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum
c)
growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity
d)
thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone
16.
Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation?
a)
Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
b)
Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
c)
Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone.
d)
Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
17.
Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone?
a)
Broad, flat skull bones
b)
Phalanges of the fingers
c)
Humerus
d)
Femur
18.
The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:
a)
the bone is lengthening.
b)
the bone is no longer lengthening.
c)
the bone is increasing in diameter.
d)
the bone has completed ossification.
19.
At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?
a)
25 years
b)
15 years
c)
. 5 years
d)
Birth
20.
Which one of the following is true?
a)
Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
b)
Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix.
c)
Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts.
d)
Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
21.
It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the
a)
epiphyseal plate.
b)
diaphysis
c)
medullary cavity
d)
articular cartilage
22.
Endochondral ossification ______, whereas intramembranous ossification ______.
a)
replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue
b)
forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs
c)
inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity
d)
activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity
23.
The thyroid hormone thyroxine ______.
a)
stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate
b)
increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate
c)
removes calcium from bone
d)
stimulates osteoclasts
24.
Which is true of sex hormones?
a)
They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates
b)
Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females
c)
They have no effect on bone
d)
They inhibit osteoblast activity
25.
Exercise ______ and _______ bones.
a)
thickens; strengthens
b)
thins; atrophies
c)
elongates; weakens
d)
thickens; elongates
26.
Red bone marrow functions in the formation of
a)
red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
b)
red blood cells only.
c)
white blood cells only.
d)
red and white blood cells only.
27.
Which of the following describes the function(s) of the skeletal system?
a)
All of the above describe skeletal system functions.
b)
It interacts with muscles, providing movement.
c)
It stores inorganic salts.
d)
It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax.
28.
Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone?
a)
Hydroxyapatite
b)
Calcium oxalate
c)
Calcium pyrophosphate
d)
Calcium carbonate
29.
Which of the following is not a function of bones?
a)
Contraction
b)
Attachment for muscles
c)
Blood cell production
d)
Storage of inorganic salts
30.
Bones
a)
are multifunctional.
b)
are not living tissue
c)
do not contribute to homeostasis
d)
have a matrix composed mostly of organic salts
31.
The number of bones in the skeletal system is
a)
variable
b)
the same for everyone
c)
more for males than females
d)
more for females than males
32.
The axial skeleton includes
a)
the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column
b)
the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles
c)
the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges
d)
the femur, tibia, and fibula
33.
The sternum is part of the
a)
axial skeleton
b)
pectoral girdle
c)
pelvic girdle
d)
appendicular skeleton
34.
The pituitary gland is located in the
a)
sella turcica
b)
cribriform plate
c)
sphenoidal sinus
d)
mandibular fossa
35.
The hard palate is composed of the
a)
maxillary and palatine bones
b)
sphenoid and ethmoid bones
c)
nasal conchae and vomer bones
d)
zygomatic and lacrimal bones
36.
The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of
a)
the zygomatic and temporal bones
b)
the zygomatic and maxillary bones
c)
the maxillary and temporal bones
d)
the temporal and parietal bones
37.
Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull?
a)
Vomer
b)
Ethmoid
c)
Sphenoid
d)
Frontal
38.
Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most likely spread from the
a)
middle ear
b)
meninges
c)
frontal sinus
d)
maxillary sinus
39.
A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the
a)
maxillae
b)
ethmoid bone
c)
mandible
d)
vomer bone
40.
The primary curves of the vertebral column are the
a)
thoracic and sacral curvatures
b)
cervical and lumbar curvatures
c)
cervical and thoracic curvatures
d)
lumbar and sacral curvatures
41.
The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the
a)
cervical and lumbar curvatures
b)
cervical and thoracic curvatures
c)
thoracic and sacral curvatures
d)
lumbar and sacral curvatures
42.
Which three bones fuse to form the hip bone?
a)
the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis
b)
the ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis.
c)
the ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis.
d)
the ilium, the femur, and the pubis.
43.
The atlas is one of the
a)
cervical vertebrae
b)
lumbar vertebrae
c)
thoracic vertebrae
d)
sacral vertebrae
44.
Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called
a)
true ribs.
b)
false ribs.
c)
floating ribs.
d)
vertebrochondral ribs.
45.
A sternal puncture is often used to obtain a sample of
a)
red bone marrow.
b)
osteoblasts
c)
fibroblasts
d)
yellow bone marrow.
46.
The clavicles
a)
provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs.
b)
provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs
c)
are part of the axial skeleton
d)
are the strongest bones in the body
47.
The three borders of the scapula are called
a)
the superior, lateral, and medial borders.
b)
the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders.
c)
the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity.
d)
the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders.
48.
Phalanges are
a)
both finger and toe bones.
b)
finger bones only.
c)
toe bones only.
d)
wrist and ankle bones.
49.
The capitulum and trochlea are located
a)
at the distal end of the humerus.
b)
at the proximal end of the humerus.
c)
at the distal end of the ulna.
d)
in the hand.
50.
Having extra digits is termed
a)
polydactyly
b)
polyuria
c)
polyploidy
d)
polydipsia
51.
Which of the following are components of the pelvic girdle?
a)
hip bones
b)
coxal bones
c)
sacrum
d)
all of these
52.
The acetabulum is
a)
a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.
b)
a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur.
c)
the anterior portion of the hip bone.
d)
the prominence of the hip.
53.
Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis?
a)
A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
b)
A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
c)
A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
d)
A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
54.
Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
a)
The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
b)
The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
c)
The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
d)
The female iliac bones are less flared.
55.
The femur
a)
is all of these.
b)
articulates with the patella.
c)
extends from the hip to the knee.
d)
is the longest bone in the body.
56.
The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the
a)
foot
b)
hand
c)
pelvis
d)
skull
57.
Height begins to decrease on average after age
a)
30
b)
25
c)
50
d)
65
58.
A compound fracture
a)
exposes the broken bone to the outside
b)
incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place
c)
is caused by a disease
d)
completely breaks the bone in more than one place
59.
Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence?
a)
A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.
b)
A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms.
c)
Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms
d)
A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces
60.
Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are
a)
osteoclasts and phagocytes
b)
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
c)
chondrocytes and osteocytes
d)
fibroblasts and osteoblasts
61.
Which of the following increases the risk of developing osteoporosis?
a)
All of these
b)
Family history of the condition
c)
Lack of physical exercise
d)
Low intake of dietary calcium
62.
Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones strong. She most likely has
a)
osteoporosis
b)
polydactyly
c)
hematoma
d)
osteogenesis imperfecta
63.
Bisphosphonates are drugs that slow the progress of
a)
osteoporosis
b)
rickets
c)
menopause
d)
heart disease
64.
Curvatures of the spine produce all of the following except
a)
increased height
b)
lordosis
c)
scoliosis
d)
kyphosis
65.
The appendiculart skeleton is composed of bones of the
a)
cranium
b)
thorax
c)
vertebral column
d)
upper and lower appendages
66.
The cranium is composed of a series of bones
a)
that remain unconnected
b)
fused together at sutures
c)
that contain no blood vessels
d)
that are long and rounded at the center
67.
All of the following are functions of bones except
a)
temproal bone
b)
frontal bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
occipital bone
68.
Both the foramen magnum and the obdurator foramen are
a)
large holes in bones
b)
nerve fibers that pass through the bones
c)
arteries that sevice the bones
d)
bones of the pelvic girdle
69.
All of the following are markings of the temporal bones except
a)
the mastoid process
b)
the external auditory meatus
c)
the styloid process
d)
the xyphoid process
70.
The cheekbone is formed by the processes of the
a)
occipital and ethomoid processes
b)
zygomatic and temporal bones
c)
sphenoid and nasal bones
d)
parietal and frontal bones
71.
A saddle-shaped depression in the spenoid bone holding the pituitary gland is the
a)
manubrium
b)
sella turica
c)
iliac crest
d)
crista galli
72.
Both the crista galli and the cribiform plates are found in the
a)
occipital bone
b)
temporal bone
c)
sphenoid bone
d)
ethmoid bone
73.
Both the maxillae and the palatine bones help to form the
a)
zygomatic process
b)
sternum
c)
hard palate
d)
olecrannon process
74.
All of the following are various types of vertebrae except
a)
the lumbar vertebrae
b)
the thoracic vertebrae
c)
the femoral vertebrae
d)
the cervical vertebrae
75.
Scoliosis and kyphosis are conditions that result from
a)
improper formation of the sternum
b)
improper curvature of the spine
c)
failure of the skull bones to fuse
d)
improper formation of the leg bones
76.
The coccyx and the sacrum are the names of
a)
lower leg bones
b)
facial bones
c)
vertebrae
d)
bones of the sternum
77.
The atlas and the axis are the names of
a)
the lower arm bones
b)
the first two vertebrae
c)
the pubic bones
d)
the last two vertebrae
78.
The manubrium is the
a)
upper leg bone
b)
lower wrist bone
c)
upper bone of the sternum
d)
lower bone of the shoulder
79.
The scapula is the bone of pectoral girdle that contains the
a)
acromion process and the coracoid process
b)
styloid process and radial process
c)
the scaphoid process and greater tubercle
d)
lesser trechanter and deltoid tuberosity
80.
The glenoid fossa and the acetabulum are both
a)
bones of the thoracic cage
b)
carpals
c)
sockets where large bones articulate
d)
processes of the radius
81.
The clavicle is a rod shaped bone of the
a)
pelvic girdle
b)
pectoral girdle
c)
lumbar vertebrae
d)
pubic bone
82.
The deltoid muscle attaches to the humerus at the
a)
deltoid tuberosity
b)
deltoid tubercle
c)
deltoid fossa
d)
deltoid condyle
83.
All of the following are names of the carpals except
a)
capitate
b)
trapezoid
c)
pisiform
d)
cuboidal
84.
All of the fingers have three phalanges except the
a)
thumb, which has two phalanges
b)
index finger, which has one phalanges
c)
ring finger, which has four phalanges
d)
pinkie, which has one phalanx
85.
The area of the pelvis on which we sit is formed by
a)
the pubis and ischium
b)
two pubic bones
c)
the ilium and the pubis
d)
two ischia
86.
All of the following apply to the femur except
a)
the greater trochanter
b)
medial malleolus
c)
lesser trochanter
d)
lateral chondyle
87.
All of the following aapply to the femur except
a)
it joins with the pelivic girdle at the acetabulum
b)
it has a large, rounded head
c)
it meets the tibia and fibula at the knee joint
d)
it is one of the smallest bones in the body
88.
The thin bone extendiing down the distal lateral portion of the leg
a)
is the fibula
b)
contains the tibial tuberosity
c)
fuses with the ischium
d)
is the femur
89.
The instep of the foot is formed by
a)
eleven phalanges
b)
five metatarsals
c)
seven tarsals
d)
the lower tibia
90.
The smallest facial bones are the
a)
lacrimal bones
b)
teeth
c)
ethmoid bones
d)
Vomer bones
91.
The cranium is composed of 16 bones fused together at immovable joints called sutures.
a)
true
b)
false
92.
Many neck muscles attach to the temporal bones by means of the greaer trochanter.
a)
true
b)
false
93.
The nasal cavity is divided into left and right chambers by a vertical partition called the ethmoid bone.
a)
true
b)
false
94.
The spinous and tranverse processes of the vertebrae are sites of attachment for most ligaments of the back.
a)
true
b)
false
95.
The socket in the pectroral dirdle that receives the upper are bone is called the acetabulum.
a)
true
b)
false
96.
The pituitary gland lies in a depression of the sphenoid bone called the sella turcica.
a)
true
b)
false
97.
Membranous areas called fontanels are found in the newborn skull before the bones fuse to one another.
a)
true
b)
false
98.
The hyoid bone is attached to the tongue.
a)
true
b)
false
99.
The wrist bones of the human body are referred to as carpals.
a)
true
b)
false
100.
The three bones that form the pelvic bone are the ilium, the ischium, and pubis.
a)
true
b)
false
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