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Worksheets

IS REMEDIAL

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A Fab fragment consists of?

a)

two H chains

b)

two L chains

c)

one L chain and one-half of an H chain

d)

one L chain and an entire H chain

2.

All of the following are true of IgM except that it

a)

can not cross the placenta

b)

fixes complement

c)

has a J chain

d)

Is a secondary response antibody

3.

A heterophile antigen is one that?

a)

is a self-antigen

b)

exists in unrelated plants or animals

c)

has been used previously to stimulate antibody response

d)

is from the same species but is different from the host

4.

All of the following describe an epitope except?

a)

Same as an antigenic determinant site

b)

Area of an immunogen recognized by T cells

c)

Consists of sequential amino acids only

d)

key portion of the immunogen

5.

Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?

a)

Natural

b)

Acquired

c)

Adaptive

d)

Autoimmunity

6.

Which of the following can be attributed to Edward Jenner?

a)

Discovery of opsonins

b)

Research on cross immunity

c)

First attenuated vaccines

d)

Discovery of the ABO blood groups

7.

Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

C-reactive protein

c)

Tears

d)

Complement

8.

Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?

a)

CEA

b)

BRCA 1

c)

AFP

d)

Level of testosterone

9.

Which of the following has been associated with patients who have homozygous C3 deficiency?

a)

undetectable hemolytic complement activity in the serum

b)

systemic lupus erythematosus

c)

no detectable disease

d)

a lifelong history of life-threatening infections

10.

A benign monoclonal gammopathy:

a)

usually is associated with a decrease in other immunoglobulins

b)

occasionally is associated with radiographic bone lesions

c)

occurs in approximately 10% of people over the age of 70

d)

usually is of the IgM class

11.

Incompatibility by which of the following procedures is an absolute contraindication to allotransplantation?

a)

MHC

b)

HLA typing

c)

Rh typing

d)

ABO Grouping

12.

What is a general definition for autoimmunity?

a)

Increase of tolerance to self-antigens

b)

Loss of tolerance to self-antigens

c)

Increase in clonal deletion of mutant cells

d)

Manifestation of immunosuppression

13.

Which of the following methods is least likely to give a definitive result for the diagnosis of RA?

a)

Nephelometric measurement of anti-IgG

b)

Anti CCP

c)

Agglutination testing for rheumatoid factor

d)

Immunofluorescence testing for antinuclear antibodies

14.

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?

a)

Atrophic gastritis

b)

Autoimmune hepatitis

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Sjögren’s syndrome

15.

What is the main use of laboratory tests to detect antibodies to islet cells and insulin in cases of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)?

a)

To regulate levels of injected insulin

b)

To diagnose IDDM

c)

To rule out the presence of other autoimmune diseases

d)

To screen susceptible individuals prior to destruction of βcells

16.

Which of the following is a description of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Ragweed antigen cross links with IgE on the surface of mast cells, causing release of preformed mediators and resulting in symptoms of an allergic reaction

b)

Anti-Fya from a pregnant woman crosses the placenta and attaches to the Fya antigen-positive red cells of the fetus, destroying the red cells

c)

Immune complex deposition occurs on the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney, leading to renal failure

d)

Exposure to poison ivy causes sensitized T cells to release lymphokines that cause a localized inflammatory reaction

17.

Why is skin testing the most widely used method to test for a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

It may be used to predict the development of further allergen sensitivity

b)

It is more likely to be positive for IgE-specific allergens than other methods

c)

It has greater sensitivity than in vitro measurements

d)

It causes less trauma and is more cost effective than other methods

18.

A patient who is blood group O is accidentally transfused with group A blood and develops a reaction during the transfusion. What antibody is involved in this type II reaction?

a)

IgM

b)

IgE

c)

IgG and IgE

d)

IgG

19.

Which of the following symptoms in a young child may indicate an immunodeficiency syndrome?

a)

Anaphylactic reactions

b)

Recurrent bacterial, fungal, and viral infections

c)

Severe rashes and myalgia

d)

Weight loss, rapid heartbeat, breathlessness

20.

What type of disorders would show a decrease in C3, C4, and CH50?

a)

Autoimmune disorders such as SLE and RA

b)

Immunodeficiency disorders such as common variable immunodeficiency

c)

Tumors

d)

Bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic infections

21.

A carbohydrate antigen 125 assay (CA-125) was performed on a woman with ovarian cancer. After treatment, the levels fell significantly. An examination performed later revealed the recurrence of the tumor, but the CA 125 levels remained low. How can this finding be explained?

a)

Test error

b)

CA-125 was the wrong laboratory test; α-fetoprotein (AFP) is a better test to monitor ovarian cancer

c)

CA-125 may not be sensitive enough when used alone to monitor tumor development

d)

CA-125 is not specific enough to detect only one type of tumor

22.

Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7, or C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

pneumococcal septicemia

b)

systemic lupus erythematosus

c)

small bowel obstruction

d)

gonococcemia

23.

Combined immunodeficiency disease with loss of muscle coordination is referred to as:

a)

DiGeorge's syndrome

b)

ataxia telangiectasia

c)

Bruton'sagamrnaglobulinemia

d)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

24.

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition:

a)

Goodpasture's disease

b)

celiac disease

c)

chronic active hepatitis

d)

systemic lupus erythematosus

25.

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II molecules with the help of which accessory molecule?

a)

CD2

b)

CD3

c)

CD4

d)

CD8

e)

CD25

26.

Patients at risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include each of the following, except recipients of

a)

bone marrow transplants

b)

liver transplants

c)

lung transplants

d)

irradiated leukocytes.

27.

All are 3 genes related to HIV except?

a)

env

b)

pol

c)

gag

d)

gap

28.

This is the first antibody to appear and usually has high titer in Hepa B carriers.

a)

Anti-HBs

b)

Anti-HBc

c)

Anti-HBe

d)

Anti-HBsAg

29.

The principle of Paul Bunnel and Davisohn differential test for Infectious Mononucleosis is?

a)

Flocculation

b)

Neutralization

c)

Precipitation

d)

Agglutination

e)

Inhibition

30.

What is the recommended supplemental tests used in lyme disease?

a)

PCR

b)

ELISA

c)

ICT

d)

Agglutination

e)

Western Blot

31.

This virus is not infectious and cannot replicate without HBV-helper functions.

a)

Hepatitis E

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis D

d)

Hepatitis C

e)

Hepatitis F

32.

Which cells are affected by infection with infectious mononucleosis?

a)

B Cells

b)

NK Cells

c)

T cells

d)

Macrophages

33.

This is not included in the hepatitis profile because it is found in the nuclei of hepatocytes.

a)

Anti-HBc

b)

HBcAg

c)

Anti-HBe

d)

HBeAg

e)

HBsAg

34.

Ratio of CD8 to CD4 on patients with AIDS?

a)

1:2

b)

2:1

c)

1:3

d)

3:1

35.

Cytokine produced mainly by macrophages

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-6

d)

IL-12

36.

It is a non-specific indicator of inflammation believed to be an antibody to the C-polysaccharide of pneumococci:

a)

Alpha1-antitrypsin

b)

C-reactive protein

c)

Serum amyloid A

d)

Ceruloplasmin

37.

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows a change in the ratio of:

a)

T/B cells

b)

B1/B2 cells

c)

Albumin/Globulin

d)

CD4+/CD8+ cells

38.

What is the major component of natural humoral immunity?

a)

Immunoglobulins

b)

Complement

c)

B cells

d)

Cytokines

39.

Most commonly used label in ELISA:

a)

HRP

b)

FITC

c)

G6PD

d)

Leoconostoc mesentroides

40.

A device used to measure radioactivity in radioimmunoassay

a)

Spectrophotometer

b)

radiometer

c)

Scintillation counter

d)

Fluorometer

41.

The air temperature throughout the serology laboratory is 20OC. How will this affect RPR test result?

a)

No effect – the acceptable test range is 20-24OC

b)

Weaken reactions so that false negatives occur

c)

Strengthen reactions so that positive titers appear elevated

d)

Increase the number of false positives from spontaneous clumping

42.

Associated with increased serum alpha1-fetoprotein level:

1. Testicular cancer 3. Pancreatic carcinoma

2. Hepatocellular carcinoma 4. Prostatic carcinoma

a)

1 and 2

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

1, 2 and 4

43.

What disease is indicated by a high titer of anti-centromere antibodies?

a)

Scleroderma

b)

Sclerodactyly

c)

MCTD

d)

SLE

e)

Bamboo Spine Disease

44.

If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out?

a)

HBV vaccination

b)

Distant past infection with HBV

c)

HBIG injection

d)

Chronic HBV infection

45.

The Widal and Weil-Felix reactions are examples of techniques to detect:

a)

Heterophile antibodies

b)

Febrile agglutinins

c)

Reagin

d)

Forssman antigen

e)

ASO antibody

46.

The reactions on DNA-methyl green substrates when testing for the presence of anti-DNase are:

a)

(+) Blue, (-) Yellow

b)

(+) Red, (-) Orange

c)

(+) Green, (-) Colorless

d)

(+) Purple, (-) Yellow

47.

Patients with syphilis develop an antibody response to a substance known as

a)

Reagin

b)

Complement

c)

Cardiolipin

d)

Hemolysin

48.

The alternative pathway of the complement cascade is initiated by:

1. IgG and IgM

2. Aggregates of IgA

3. Yeast cell wall

4. Mannose group

5. Lipopolysaccharides

6. Cobra venom factor

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

2, 3, 5 and 6

c)

3, 4, 5 and 6

d)

1, 2, 3 and 5

49.

HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with:

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Bamboo Spine Disease

d)

Grave's Disease

e)

MTCD

50.

What is the major amino acid component of the hinge region of an immunoglobulin molecule?

a)

Lysine

b)

Glutamine

c)

Proline

d)

Tryptophan