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final review 3

Total questions: 147

Worksheet time: 3hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the correct Lewis Dot Structure for ammonia NH3

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.

Which is the correct molecular structure for carbon dioxide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

How many total valence electrons are participating in bonding in the molecule above?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

4.

CO2 has how many lone pairs?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

5.

NH3 has how many lone pairs?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

6.

How many valence electrons does Helium Have?

a)

1 Valence electron

b)

2 Valence electron

c)

3 Valence electron

d)

4 Valence electron

e)

5 Valence electron

7.
How many electrons should Helium have around its Lewis dot model?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
7
d)
8
8.
an element will always have the same number of 
a)
neutrons
b)
protons
c)
isotopes
d)
atoms
9.
How many electrons should Calcium have around its Lewis dot model?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
7
d)
8
10.

Is this the correct structure for CH2O?

a)

Yes

b)

No

11.

Which part of the atom is responsible for chemical bonding?

a)

Core Electrons

b)

Valence Electrons

c)

Protons

d)

Neutrons

12.
How are covalent bonds explained?
a)
When one atom takes the other atom's electron
b)
When the atom shares an electron with an another atom
c)
When the two nucleus merge
d)
When the neutrons leave the nucleus
13.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
linear
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Tetrahedral
14.
In covalent bonds, electrons are ___________.
a)
transferred
b)
gained
c)
lost
d)
shared
15.
What geometry will this molecular structure have?: H2S
a)
bent
b)
tetrahedral
c)
linear
d)
trigonal pyramidal
16.
Phosphorous trichloride
a)
PCl3
b)
P3Cl
c)
P3Cl3
d)
PCL
17.
Disulfur trioxide
a)
S3O2
b)
SO
c)
S2O3
d)
S2O
18.
Bromine monoflouride
a)
Br1F1
b)
BrF
c)
Br2F
d)
BrF2
19.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
NH
b)
N3H
c)
NH3
d)
NH4
20.
This is a correct dot diagram for fluorine (F)
a)
true
b)
false
21.
According to the octet rule most elements need _______ valence electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
6
d)
18
22.
This is a correct dot diagram for oxygen (O)
a)
true
b)
false
23.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
24.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Linear
25.

What is the correct shape of CHCl3?

a)

Bent

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Tetrahedral

d)

Trigonal planar

26.
What is the measure of a tetrahedral bond angle?
a)
90 Degrees
b)
109.5 Degrees
c)
120 Degrees
d)
180 Degrees
27.
According to VSEPR, molecules adjust their shapes to keep which of the following as far away as possible?
a)
Pairs of valence electrons
b)
Inner shell electrons
c)
Mobile Electrons
d)
Electrons closest to the nucleus
28.
Which of the following shapes has unshared pairs of electrons on the central atom? 
a)
Bipyramidal
b)
Bent
c)
Trigonal Planar
d)
Tetrahedral
29.
Which molecule would have this shape?
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
PCl5
d)
CO2
30.
Which of the following molecular shapes would have a bond angle of 180 Degrees?
a)
Bent
b)
Trigonal Planar
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
31.
What molecule could this be? 
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
H2O
d)
CO2
32.
Which shapes are altered by unshared pairs of electrons? 
a)
Bent and Pyramidal
b)
Trigonal Planar and Bent
c)
Tetrahedram and Bipyramidal
d)
Pyramidal and Linear
33.
How many unshared pairs of electrons will a bent molecule have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
34.
How many unshared pairs of electrons will a pyramidal molecule have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
35.
What is the bond angle in a bent molecule? 
a)
90
b)
105
c)
107
d)
180
36.
Who could this molecule be?
a)
CH4
b)
CO2
c)
PCl5
d)
BF3
37.

Polarity of a molecule is determined by

a)

shape and charge

b)

symmetry/asymmetry of molecule and difference in EN value

c)

difference in EN value and size

d)

difference in EN value and charges

38.

CO2 has polar bonds but is a NON POLAR molecule. Why?

a)

it has an asymmetrical shape

b)

bond polarity or dipole moment between C and O atoms cancel

c)

there is net dipole moment between C and O atoms in molecule

d)

bond polarity does not exist between C+ and O- atoms

39.

Is this molecule polar or nonpolar?

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

40.

Determine Polarity:

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

41.
Calculate the Formal Charge for the Oxygen Labeled 1 
a)
-1
b)
+1
c)
0
d)
-2
42.
How many sigma and pi bonds does this have?
a)
1 sigma and 1 pi
b)
2 sigma and 1 pi
c)
1 sigma and 2 pi
d)
2 sigma and 2 pi
43.

Including the drawn structure, how many total resonance structures for NO3- ion can be drawn?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

44.
The following factors affect the position of equilibrium EXCEPT
a)
Concentration
b)
Pressure
c)
Temperature
d)
States of matter
45.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Removing O2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase pressure

d)

have no change

46.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Adding SO3(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase K

d)

have no change

47.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Using a catalyst

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase the rate of reaction

d)

have no change

48.

2SO2(g)+1O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Increasing the pressure on the system will...

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

slow rate of reaction

d)

have no change

49.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Exothermic


Adding SO3(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase K

d)

have no change

50.

What line segment represents only the solid state? (Diagram F)

a)

A-B

b)

B-C

c)

C-D

d)

D-E

51.

A substance's heating curve is shown in the graph. What is its boiling point? (Diagram B)

a)

100 C

b)

60 C

c)

80 C

d)

20 C

52.
True or false: melting and freezing occur at the same temperature!
a)
True
b)
False
c)
I don't know
53.

What will occur when the substance transitions from B to A? (Diagram A)

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

melting

d)

freezing

54.

What will occur when the substance changes from 1 atm to 30 at a constant temperature of -15oC? (Diagram A)

a)

condensation

b)

deposition

c)

melting

d)

sublimation

55.

What is the normal boiling point of this substance? (Diagram C)

a)

150 °C

b)

100 °C

c)

-50 °C

d)

0 °C

56.

What is the normal melting point of this substance? (Diagram C)

a)

150 °C

b)

100 °C

c)

-50 °C

d)

0 °C

57.

What is point A? (Diagram C)

a)

triple point

b)

critical point

c)

equilibrium point

d)

normal melting point

58.

**An ice cube feels cold when we hold it. Which of the following best explains why?

a)

Heat moves from our hands into the ice cube.

b)

Cold moves from our hands into the ice cube.

c)

Heat moves from the ice cube into our hands.

d)

Cold moves from the ice cube into our hands.

59.
A gas that has a pressure of 2 atm and a volume of 10 L.  What would be the new volume if the pressure was changed to 1 atm?
a)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
b)
P1V1 = P2V2
c)
V1/n1 = V2/n2
d)
PV = nRT
60.
A sample of a gas has a volume of 852 mL at 298 K. What temperature is necessary for the gas to have a volume of 945 mL?
a)
Pt = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...
b)
P1V1 = P2V2
c)
V1/T1 = V2/T2
d)
P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2
61.
Determine the number of moles in a container of gas at STP with a volume of 99.2 L. 
a)
V1/n1 = V2/n2
b)
PV = nRT
c)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
d)
V1/T1 = V2/T2
62.
A gas fills a balloon at a temperature of 27 oC and 1 atm of pressure. What will the pressure of the balloon be if the gas is heated to 127 oC?
a)
P1V1 = P2V2
b)
PV = nRT
c)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
d)
V1/T1 = V2/T2
63.
A 1.25 L volume of gas contains 4.5 moles.  How many moles will be in 0.75 L?
a)
PV = nRT
b)
P1V1 = P2V2
c)
P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2
d)
V1/n1 = V2/n2
64.
If the total pressure is 0.99 atm, and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide is 0.05 atm and 0.02 atm respectively.  What will be the partial pressure of the remaining air?
a)
P1V1 = P2V2
b)
Pt = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...
c)
PV = nRT
d)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
65.

What letter represents the activation energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

66.

rate = k[A]

The rate constant in the rate law above is 0.5 L/mol·s. If the initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, how long will it take for [A] to drop to 0.025 M?

a)

0.7 s

b)

1.4 s

c)

2.8 s

d)

There is not enough information given.

67.

Which of the following best describes why increasing temperature increase reaction rate?

a)

Activation energy is reduced.

b)

Collisions become more frequent.

c)

Collisions become more energetic.

d)

Collisions become more frequent and more energetic.

68.

What is the rate law for this mechanism?

a)

rate = k[A][B]2

b)

rate = [B][X]

c)

rate = [A]0.5[B]1.5

d)

rate = [W][Y][Z]

69.

Which factors increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

increasing temperature

b)

increasing concentration

c)

increasing surface area

d)

all of the above

70.

The iodide ion reacts with hypochlorite ion in the following way:

OCl- + I- ⟶ OI- + Cl-.

This rapid reaction gives the rate data shown. What is the rate law?

a)

rate = [OCl-]2[I-]

b)

rate = [OCl-][I-]2

c)

rate = [OCl-][I-]

d)

rate = [OCl-]

71.

Which of the following best describes why increasing temperature increase reaction rate?

a)

Activation energy is reduced.

b)

Collisions become more frequent.

c)

Collisions become more energetic.

d)

Collisions become more frequent and more energetic.

72.

Given the following rate law,

rate = k[A]2[B]

if [A] were doubled, what must happen to [B] to keep the rate constant?

a)

[B] must quadruple

b)

[B] must double

c)

[B] must be havled

d)

[B] must be quartered

73.

rate = k[A]

The rate constant in the rate law above is 0.5 L/mol·s. If the initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, how long will it take for [A] to drop to 0.025 M?

a)

0.7 s

b)

1.4 s

c)

2.8 s

d)

There is not enough information given.

74.
Under the collision theory, the particles must collide with  ____ and ____ for a reaction to occur.
a)
sufficient rate and sufficient energy
b)
sufficient surface area and correct orientation
c)
sufficient catalyst and sufficient energy
d)
sufficent energy and correct orientation
75.

Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting reaction rate?

a)

temperature

b)

catalysts

c)

concentration

d)

polarity

76.
Which of the following increase the reaction rate?
a)
less surface area
b)
lower temperature
c)
an inhibitor
d)
increased concentration
77.

What does Gibbs Free Energy tell us?

a)

How much energy is given off by a reaction.

b)

The tendency of a reaction to become "random"

c)

How spontaneous a reaction is.

78.

What information do we need to perform a calculation of Gibbs Free Energy?

a)

Enthalpy of the reaction.

b)

Entropy of the reaction.

c)

The temperature of the reaction in Kelvin.

d)

All of the above are needed.

79.

Which of the following situations demonstrates high entropy?

a)

water freezing

b)

water vaporizing

c)

steam condensing to water

80.

Your enthalpy is high and negative but your entropy is also negative. What type of temperature would you want to get a spontaneous reaction?

a)

low

b)

high

81.

What will happen to the Volume if it was 5.5 L while the Pressure started at 2.7 atm and increased to 3.6 atm? PV=nRT

a)

Volume increases

b)

Volume decreases

82.

A container holds 50.0 mL of nitrogen at 25° C and a pressure of 736 mm Hg. What will happen to the volume if the temperature increases by 35° C? PV=nRT

a)

Volume increases

b)

Volume decreases

83.

A sample of gas has a volume of 852 mL at 25°C. What will happen to the temperature if the volume increases to 945 mL? PV=nRT

a)

Temperature increases

b)

Temperature decreases

84.

A balloon with a volume of 5.3 L is taken from an indoor temperature of 24ºC to the outdoors. The volume of the balloon outside is 4.9 L. What happened to the Celsius temperature outside? PV=nRT

a)

Temperature increase

b)

Temperature decreases

85.

A balloon with a volume of 5.3 L is taken from an indoor temperature of 24ºC to the outdoors. The volume of the balloon outside is 4.9 L. What happened to the Celsius temperature outside? PV=nRT

a)

Temperature increase

b)

Temperature decreases

86.

The volume of a gas at 99.0kPa is 300mL. If the pressure is increased to 188kPa, what will happen to the volume? Increase or Decrease

a)

volume increases

b)

volume decreases

87.

Using the equations below:


C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ∆H = –390 kJ

Mn(s) + O2(g) → MnO2(s) ∆H = –520 kJ


what is ∆H (in kJ) for the following reaction?


MnO2(s) + C(s) → Mn(s) + CO2(g)

a)

910

b)

130

c)

-130

d)

-910

88.

Using the equations below


Cu(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CuO(s)H = –156 kJ

2Cu(s) + O2(g) → Cu2O(s)H = –170 kJ


what is the value of ∆H (in kJ) for the following reaction?


2CuO(s) → Cu2O(s) + 1/2O2(g)

a)

142

b)

15

c)

-15

d)

-142

89.

Standard conditions are defined as...

a)

298K and 1.00 x 105 kPa

b)

273K and 1.00 x 105 kPa

90.

The standard enthalpy change of formation values of two oxides of phosphorus are:


P4(s) + 3O2(g) → P4O6(s) ΔHf = –1600 kJ mol–1

P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s) ΔHf = –3000 kJ mol–1


What is the enthalpy change, in kJ mol–1, for the reaction below?


P4O6(s) + 2O2(g) → P4O10(s)

a)

+4600

b)

+1400

c)

–1400

d)

–4600

91.

The following equations show the oxidation of carbon and carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide.


C(s) +O2(g) CO2(g) ΔH = –x kJ mol–1

CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g) ΔH = –y kJ mol–1


What is the enthalpy change, in kJ mol–1, for the oxidation of carbon to carbon monoxide?


C(s) + O2(g) CO(g)

a)

x + y

b)

-x - y

c)

y - x

d)

x - y

92.

Which of the following statements are true for the reaction:


SO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) ↔ SO3(g) ΔH = –92 kJ mol-1


Where ↔ indicates that the reaction can proceed in the forward and the reverse direction.

a)

The forward and reverse reaction both produce 92 kJ of energy.

b)

Oxidising 2 moles of SO2 would produce twice as much energy.

c)

The reverse reaction has an enthalpy of +92 kJ mol-1.

d)

Collecting the SO3 produced in the liquid state would not change the measured enthalpy.

93.

The standard enthalpy change of formation values of two oxides of phosphorus are:


P4(s) + 3O2(g) → P4O6(s) ΔHf = –1600 kJ mol–1

P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s) ΔHf = –3000 kJ mol–1


What is the enthalpy change, in kJ mol–1, for the reaction below?


P4O6(s) + 2O2(g) → P4O10(s)

a)

+4600

b)

+1400

c)

–1400

d)

–4600

94.
Identify the limiting reagent when 6.00 moles HCl combines with 5.00 moles Mg to form MgCl2.
 
1 Mg +  2 HCl --> 1 MgCl2  +  1 H2   
 
a)
Mg
b)
H2
c)
MgCl2
d)
HCl
95.
The limiting reactant . . .
a)
slows the reaction down.
b)
is used up first.
c)
is the reactant that is left over.
d)
controls the speed of the reaction.
96.
When 12 moles of O2 reacts with 6 moles of C10H8, what is the limiting reactant?  
1 C10H8 + 12 O2 --> 10 CO2 + 4 H2O
a)
Oxygen
b)
C10H8
c)
Water
d)
Carbon Dioxide
97.
1 P+ 3 O--> 1 P4O
What is the limiting reactant if 12 moles of Preact with 15 moles of O2?
a)
P4
b)
O2
c)
P4O
d)
none of the above
98.

What is the Ksp expression for Cu3(PO4)2?

a)

Ksp = [Cu+2]3[PO4-3]2

b)

Ksp = [Cu+2]2[PO4-3]3

c)

Ksp = [Cu+2][PO4-3]

d)

Ksp = [Cu+2]3[PO4-3]

99.
Which of the following is a conjugate acid/base pair?
a)
HCl/OCl-
b)
H2SO4/SO42-
c)
NH4+/NH3
d)
H3O+/OH-
100.

The molar solubility of silver sulphide is 5.0 x 10-17 mol/L. Calculate its solubility product.

a)

Ksp = 5 x 1049

b)

Ksp = 5 x 1033

c)

Ksp = 5 x 10-49

d)

Ksp = 5 x 10-33

101.
Find the measure of the arc
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
102.
PV=nRT
a)
Charles Law
b)
Boyle's Law
c)
Combined Gas Law
d)
Ideal Gas Law
103.
What pressure, in atm, is exerted by 2.50 L of gas containing 1.35 mol at 320 K?
PV=nRT
a)
14.19 atm
b)
16.53 atm
c)
18.42 atm
d)
22.54 atm
104.
In which compound is the percent composition by mass of Cl equal to 42%?
a)
HClO (gram formula mass = 52 g/mol)
b)
HClO2 (gram formula mass = 68 g/mol)
c)
HClO3 (gram formula mass = 84 g/mol)
d)
HClO4 (gram formula mass = 100 g/mol)
105.
What is the percent composition by mass of sulfur in the compound MgSO4 (gram formula mass = 120 g/mol)?
a)
20%
b)
27%
c)
46%
d)
53%
106.

How many molecules are in 2.5 mol of NaCl?

a)

1.5 x 1024 molecules

b)

1.5 molecules

c)

4.15 molecules

d)

1.5 x 1023 molecules

107.
Which pair has the same empirical formula?
a)
NaCrO4 and Na2Cr2O7
b)
C2H4O2 and C6H12O6
c)
C3H6Oand C2H6O2
d)
CH4 and C2H6
108.
Given the following: 42.07% Na, 18.89% P, and 39.04% O, determine the empirical formula.
a)
 NaPO2
b)
Na2PO3
c)
Na3PO4
d)
NaPO4
109.
What is the molecular formula if the empirical formula is CH2O and the molecular molar mass is 180.18?
a)
CH2O
b)
C2H4O2
c)
C4H8O4
d)
C6H12O6
110.
What is the molecular formula for a compound with the empirical formula: K2SOand a molecular mass of 696g.
a)
K2SO
b)
K8SO16
c)
K8S4O
d)
K8S4O16 
111.
Which pair has the same empirical formula?
a)
NaCrO4 and Na2Cr2O7
b)
C2H4O2 and C6H12O6
c)
C3H6Oand C2H6O2
d)
CH4 and C2H6
112.

What is the empirical formula for the following:

32.40% sodium, 22.5% sulfur; 45.1 % oxygen, 37.75% water?

a)

Na2SO4H6O3

b)

Na2SO4 * 2H2O

c)

Na2SO4 * 3H2O

d)

Na2SO4 * (H2O)

113.
Given the following: 42.07% Na, 18.89% P, and 39.04% O, determine the empirical formula.
a)
NaPO2
b)
Na2PO3
c)
Na3PO4
d)
NaPO4
114.
Whats the empirical formula of a molecule containing 18.7% of Lithium, 16.3% of Carbon and 65.0% of oxygen?
a)
CO2Li3
b)
Li2CO3
c)
Li3CO2
d)
LiCO5
115.
Glycerol has a molar mass of 92.09g/mol. Its percent composition is: 39.12% C, 8.75% H, and 51.12% O. What is the molecular formula for glycerol?
a)
C2H3O2
b)
CH2O
c)
C2H4O2
d)
C3H8O3
116.
P+ 3O--> P4O
What is the limiting reactant is 12 moles of Preact with 15 moles of O2?
a)
P4
b)
O2
c)
P4O
d)
none of the above
117.
Theoretical yield = 73g
Actual yield = 62g
Calculate the percent yield.
a)
1.16%
b)
116%
c)
85%
d)
76%
118.
What is the measured amount of a product obtained from a chemical reaction?
a)
mole ratio
b)
theoretical yield
c)
percentage yield
d)
actual yield
119.
A reaction has a positive ΔH and a positive ΔS. Which of the following is true?
a)
It will be spontaneous at all temperatures.
b)
It will be nonspontaneous at all temperatures.
c)
It will be spontaneous at low temperatures.
d)
It will be spontaneous at high temperatures.
120.

Which combination of ΔH and ΔS NEVER has a spontaneous reaction?

a)

+ΔH and +ΔS

b)

+ΔH and -ΔS

c)

-ΔH and -ΔS

d)

-ΔH and +ΔS

121.

The rate-determining step is

a)

step of reaction in reaction mechanism which has the fastest rate among the other step of reaction

b)

step of reaction in reaction mechanism which has the slowest rate among the other step of reaction

c)

step of reaction in reaction mechanism which isn't the proper step in reaction mechanism

d)

an unimportant step of reaction in reaction mechanism

122.

Reaction :


2A + B → C + D


is proposed to have reaction mechanism shown below :


A + B → AB + D (slow)

A + AB → C (fast)


the consistent rate equation with the reaction mechanism above is ____

a)

rate = k [A]2 [B]

b)

rate = k [A]2 [B]2

c)

rate = k [A] [B]

d)

rate = k [A] [B]2

123.

If there is two substances (atom, molecule, or ion) involved in the rate-determining step, that reaction is said to be

a)

unimolecular

b)

bimolecular

c)

trimolecular

d)

polimolecular

124.

The decomposition of nitrous oxide :


2N2O(g) → 2N2(g) + O2(g)


is believed to occur by two-step mechanism


N2O(g) → N2(g) + O(g) (slow)

N2O(g) + O(g) → N2(g) + O2(g) (fast)


the consistent rate equation based on the mechanism above is ____

a)

rate = k [N2O]2

b)

rate = k [N2O]

c)

rate = k [N2O]2 [N2]

d)

rate = k

125.
A reaction has the rate law: Rate = k [A][B].
What is the order of reaction with respect to A?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
d)
4th
126.
A reaction has the rate law: Rate = k [A][B].
What is the overall order of reaction?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
d)
4th
127.

The rate of a reaction is dependent on the concentration of the reactants

a)

True

b)

False

128.
Which trials would be used to measure the rate exponent for A?
a)
trials 1 and 2
b)
trials 1 and 3
c)
trials 2 and 3
129.

What are the units of k for the rate law: Rate = k[A][B]2, when the concentration unit is mol/L?

a)

s-1

b)

s

c)

L mol-1 s-1 or M-1s-1

d)

L2 mol-2 s-1 or M-2s-1

e)

L2 s2 mol-2 or M2s2

130.

The buffer solution is able to maintain pH by some events, except . . .

a)

The addition of a little acid

b)

The addition of a little base

c)

Dilution

d)

Addition of water

e)

The addition of excess acid

131.
Buffer is defined as
a)
ability to resist pH change
b)
ability to prevent pH from decreasing
c)
ability to resist a pH increase
d)
ability to resist pH change when small amount of acid added
132.
Buffer is defined as
a)
ability to resist pH change
b)
ability to prevent pH from decreasing
c)
ability to resist a pH increase
d)
ability to resist pH change when small amount of acid added
133.
Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction of AgNO3 and CaCl2?
a)
Ca2+(aq) +  2Cl- (aq) → CaCl(s)
b)
Ag+(aq)  +  Cl- (aq) → AgCl(s)
c)
Ag +  Cl  →  AgCl
d)
Ag+  +  Ca2+   →Ag2Ca (s)
134.
What are the spectator ions in this reaction?
CuCl2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → Cu(OH)2(s) + NaCl(aq)
 
a)
Cu2+ and OH1-
b)
Na2+ and Cl2-
c)
Na1+ and Cl1-
d)
Na1+ and OH1-
135.
What is the result of the reaction between potassium bromide and ammonium sulfide?
a)
potassium sulfide precipitates
b)
ammonium bromide precipitates
c)
potassium ammonium precipitates
d)
no precipitate is formed
136.
3KOH + H3PO4 --> K3PO4 + 3H2O
a)
Synthesis 
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Double displacement
137.
2Pb(NO3)2 --> 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
a)
Synthesis 
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Combustion
138.
Fe + H2SO4 --> Fe2(SO4)3 + H2
a)
Synthesis (combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Combustion
139.
2Pb(NO3)2 --> 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
a)
Synthesis 
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Combustion
140.

The concentration of OH– in a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2 is 3.6 x 10–4 M. The Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is

a)

1.3 x 10–7

b)

4.7 x 10–11

c)

3.6 x 10–4

d)

2.3 x 10–11

141.

Which of the following compounds has the lowest molar solubility in mol/L in water at 25°C?

a)

Ag3PO4 Ksp = 1.8 x 10–18

b)

Sn(OH)2 Ksp = 5 x 10–26

c)

CdS Ksp = 3.6 x 10–29

d)

Al(OH)3 Ksp = 2 x 10–33

142.

Barium carbonate has a measured solubility of 4.0 x 10–5 at 25°C. Determine the Ksp.

a)

5.3 x 10–10

b)

6.1 x 10–5

c)

9.1 x 10–7

d)

1.6 x 10–9

143.

Sodium chloride is added slowly to a solution that is 0.010 M in Cu+, Ag+, and Au+. The Ksp values for the chloride salts are 1.9 x 10-7, 1,6 x 10-10, and 2.0 x 10-13, respectively. Which compound will precipitate first?

a)

CuCl(s)

b)

AgCl(s)

c)

AuCl(s)

d)

All will precipitate at the same time.

144.

A 300.0-mL saturated solution of copper(II) periodate, Cu(IO4)2, contains 0.44 grams of dissolved salt. Determine the Ksp.

a)

1.4 x 10–7

b)

6.72 x 10–7

c)

9.2 x 10–6

d)

6.1 x 10–5

145.

Calculate the solubility of Ag2CrO4 [Ksp = 9.0 x 10–12] in a 1.0 x 10–2 M AgNO3 solution.

a)

1.3 x 10–4 mol/L

b)

2.3 x 10–8 mol/L

c)

9.0 x 10–8 mol/L

d)

9.0 x 10–10 mol/L

146.

The Ksp expression for a saturated solution of Ca3(PO4)2 is

a)

Ksp = [Ca2+][PO43-]

b)

Ksp = [3Ca2+][2PO43-]

c)

Ksp = [Ca2+]3[PO43-]2

d)

Ksp = [3Ca2+]3[2PO43-]2

147.

What is the Ksp expression for an ionic compund of BaSO4

a)

Ksp= [Ba2+][SO42-]

b)

Ksp= [Ba2+][4SO42-]4

c)

Ksp= [Ba2+][4SO42-]

d)

Ksp= [2Ba2+][4SO42-]