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Pharmacology Exam 1

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these is defined as: to study the effects of drugs on populations

a)

pharmacoepidemiology

b)

pharmacoeconomics

2.

Which of these is defined as: to study the cost-effectiveness of drug treatments

a)

pharmacoeconomics

b)

pharmacoepidemiology

3.

What the body does to the drug

a)

pharmacokinetics

b)

pharmacogenomics

c)

pharmacodynamics

4.

Pharmacokinetics focuses on ADME which stands for:

a)

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Elimination

b)

Adverse Reactions, Distribution, Molecule Size, Energy

c)

Accumulation, Drug Interactions, Mechanism of Action, Elimination

5.

What the drug does to the body

a)

pharmacokinetics

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacogenomics

6.

Involves receptor interactions, dose-response phenomena, and mechanisms of therapeutic and toxic effects

a)

pharmacodynamics

b)

pharmacokinetics

c)

pharmacogenomics

7.

Biochemical and physiological effects of drugs on the body:

a)

determine classification of drug (ex: antidepressant)

b)

determine suitability for therapeutic uses

c)

determine dosing

d)

determine special situation use ie renal failure

8.

True or false: Specific interaction with regards to pharmacodynamics means receptor binding.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

True or false: Specific interaction regarding pharmacodynamics means no receptor binding (chemical reactions, surfactant reactions, etc)

a)

true

b)

false

10.

Area of pharmacology concerned with genetic variations that lead to differences in drug response among individuals or population.

a)

pharmacokinetics

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacogenomics

11.

True or false: general toxic effects, allergies, and side effects are responses that are normally not found in the general population

a)

true

b)

false

12.

Variation of drug pathways:

a)

drug usually exerts its effect by interacting with target proteins (receptor)

b)

effectiveness of drug is greatly affected by genetic variation in these targets

c)

increase or decrease in enzyme activity (CYP enzymes)

d)

not due to differences in target proteins or enzyme metabolism

13.

Variation in enzymes that metabolize the drug:

a)

increase or decrease in enzyme activity (CYP enzymes)

b)

not due to differences in target proteins or enzyme metabolism

c)

yield the least predictable effects of genetic variation

d)

G6PD deficiency

14.

Other "idiosyncratic" effects:

a)

not due to differences in target proteins or enzyme metabolism

b)

yield the least predictable effects of genetic variation

c)

G6PD deficiency

d)

drug usually exerts its effect by interacting with target proteins (receptor)

15.

What are the 3 processes involved when drugs are administered?

a)

drug-receptor interactions (binding)

b)

dose-response (effect)

c)

signal transduction (MOA, pathways)

d)

excretion (waste pattern)

16.

True or false: higher Kd= lower affinity

a)

true

b)

false

17.

True or false: less affinity means less response to the drug.

a)

true

b)

false

18.

Chemical agent that uniquely interacts with a specific target (receptor) in the living organism and thereby causes changes in the biological function

a)

drug

b)

toxin

c)

poison

19.

Chemicals/drugs that have almost exclusively harmful effects

a)

agonists

b)

antagonists

c)

poisons

d)

toxins

20.

Poisons of biological origin, synthesized by plants or animals

a)

drugs

b)

poisons

c)

toxins

21.

Stimulates (increases signal transduction)

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

22.

Inhibits (decreases signal transduction)

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

23.

A molecule in the biological system to which a ligand/drug binds and that usually plays a regulatory role

a)

receptor

b)

ligand

24.

A molecule binds to the receptor to activate/deactivate/modify it, resulting in the next step in that biological system

a)

receptor

b)

ligand

25.

Endogenous sources of drugs are produced inside the body and by the body. An example of this would be

a)

hormones

b)

xenobiotics

26.

Exogenous sources of drugs are produced outside of the body. An example of this would be

a)

hormones

b)

xenobiotics

27.

Mainly receptor; a drug is designed to bind to and activate/deactivate/modify to alter the biologic system in which the receptor is found

a)

drug target

b)

orphan receptor

28.

Receptors for which no endogenous ligand has been discovered and for which the function is unknown; important for new drug discovery

a)

drug target

b)

orphan receptor

29.

Choose the main points regarding the nature of drugs.

a)

physical nature (form at room temperature, ionic properties)

b)

drug size (generally a MW of 100-1000u)

c)

drug reactivity and drug-receptor bonds

d)

drug shape

30.

Regarding drug size- does the lower (100) or upper (1000) limit achieve specificity for target receptor?

a)

lower

b)

upper

31.

Regarding drug size, which limit (upper or lower) determines the ability of drugs to move throughout the body?

a)

lower (100)

b)

upper (1000)

32.

Drugs above 1000 MW units do NOT diffuse readily between compartments of the body.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Which type of drug-receptor bond is the strongest and is often irreversible?

a)

covalent

b)

electrostatic (ionic, hydrogen, Van der Waals forces)

c)

hydrophobic

34.

Which type of drug-receptor bond can range in strength from weak to relatively strong and is more common than covalent?

a)

covalent

b)

electrostatic (ionic, hydrogen, Van der Waals forces)

c)

hydrophobic

35.

Which type of drug-receptor bond is the weakest and involves a very precise fit of the drug to its receptor?

a)

covalent

b)

electrostatic (ionic, hydrogen, Van der Waals forces)

c)

hydrophobic

36.

Stronger binding means shorter duration of action.

a)

true

b)

false

37.

________ bonds require a very precise fit (drug/receptor): prove high selectivity.

a)

weak

b)

strong

38.

Orientation of a chemical structure around a bond; same molecular formula but different 3D structure (mirror image is non-superimposable)

a)

chirality (stereoisomerism)

b)

enantiomer

c)

racemic mixture

39.

Mirror image stereoisomers

a)

chirality (stereoisomerism)

b)

enantiomer

c)

racemic mixture

40.

Mix of stereoisomers in a chemical solution or compound (drug)

a)

chirality (stereoisomerism)

b)

enantiomer

c)

racemic mixture

41.

Optical isomers that are NOT enantiomers, NOT mirror images

a)

chirality

b)

diastereomers

c)

racemic mixture

42.

Drug efficacy is based on which 4 principles?

a)

structure

b)

selectivity

c)

delivery

d)

duration

e)

elimination

43.

Drug efficacy, structure: structure can bind and ________, ________, and ___________ its target.

a)

activate

b)

deactivate

c)

modify

d)

partially activate

44.

To encourage drug selectivity and to prevent binding to other receptors the drug must have a unique size, charge, size, and other properties. Increasing drug selectivity usually decreases what?

a)

adverse drug reactions

b)

allergic reactions

45.

Delivery of a drug is important because of

a)

molecule size

b)

first pass metabolism

46.

What do you do if the drug molecule needed is too large to get to the target compartment?

a)

administer the drug directly to the target compartment

b)

come up with an alternative medication

47.

Which is more important?

a)

safety

b)

efficacy

48.

Which phase of testing measures efficacy, selectivity, and mechanism of action?

a)

pre-clinical

b)

clinical

c)

marketing

49.

When is an IND (Investigational New Drug) filed for approval of a new medication for clinical testing?

a)

between pre-clinical and clinical testing phases

b)

once in the clinical testing phase

c)

between clinical testing phase and marketing phase

50.

Which part of testing occurs after an IND has been filed and in phases?

a)

pre-clinical

b)

clinical

c)

marketing

51.

What is phase 1 of clinical testing (20-100 subjects) testing for?

a)

is it safe, pharmacokinetics

b)

does it work in patients

c)

does it work, double blind

52.

What is phase 2 of clinical testing (100-200 subjects) testing for?

a)

is it safe, pharmacokinetics

b)

does it work in patients

c)

does it work, double blind

53.

What is phase 3 of clinical testing (1000-6000) testing for?

a)

is it safe, pharmacokinetics

b)

does it work in patients

c)

does it work, double blind

54.

When is an NDA (New Drug Application) filed?

a)

pre-clinical testing

b)

clinical testing

c)

marketing

d)

between pre-clinical and clinical

e)

between clinical and marketing

55.

Postmarketing surveillance occurs as phase 4 testing carrying over from clinical testing.

a)

true

b)

false

56.

How many years after filing an NDA will the patent expire?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

20

d)

25

57.

In which phase of studying are the following studied? Efficacy and toxicity, selectivity, MOA, in vitro and in vivo animal models (cellular, organ, and whole animal model)

a)

preclinical

b)

clinical

c)

marketing

58.

What does an IND (Investigational New Drug) application contain?

a)

preclinical data collected

b)

detailed proposal for clinical trials

c)

clinical data collected

d)

trade name of medication

59.

What are the limitations of preclinical studies?

a)

toxicity testing is time-consuming and expensive

b)

large numbers of animals may be needed to obtain valid preclinical data

c)

extrapolations of therapeutic index and toxicity data from animals to humans are reasonably predictive for many (not all) toxicities

d)

rare adverse effects are unlikely to be detected in preclinical testing due to statistical reasons

60.

What are the limitations of clinical trials?

a)

pre-existing conditions

b)

subject bias

c)

observer bias

d)

disease state fluctuations

61.

Which drug type does not use animals for preclinical studies?

a)

highly toxic drugs ie AIDS and chemo

b)

narcotics

c)

statins

d)

NSAIDs

62.

Post marketing surveillance, which occurs after the NDA, mainly occurs to monitor drug safety including documentation of incidence and severity of rare adverse reactions, cost-effectiveness, comparative trials, and quality of life studies.

a)

true

b)

false

63.

Upon expiration of a patent, any company may apply to the FDA to get permission to market a generic version. The generic drug molecule must be ____________ to the original.

a)

bioequivalent

b)

identical

c)

chemically equivalent except for filler products

64.

Choose the answers that are considered to be pharmacokinetics

a)

drug concentration at site of action (distribution)

b)

drug in tissues (distribution)

c)

drug metabolized or excreted pharmacologic effect (elimination)

d)

drug concentration in systemic circulation (distribution)

e)

dose of drug administered (IV, IM, PO...) [absorption]

65.

Choose the answers that are considered to be pharmacodynamics

a)

pharmacologic effect

b)

clinical response

c)

toxicity

d)

efficacy

e)

drug concentration in systemic circulation

66.

Select the processes involved in pharmacodynamics (drug to body)

a)

drug

b)

receptor

c)

effector (may be part of the receptor or separate)

d)

cAMP

e)

IP3

67.

_______________: binds and activates the receptor in some fashion for full receptor effect

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

allosteric binding

68.

_________: binds and inhibits the receptor by competing for receptor site and preventing agonist binding

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

allosteric binding

69.

_____________: regulation of the receptor (activation or inhibition) by binding to a site different from the active site

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

allosteric binding

70.

___________: activates the receptor to the maximum extent (morphine)

a)

full agonist

b)

partial agonist

71.

________________: binds and activates the receptor but not to the maximum activity (buprenorphine) **increasing the concentration will not increase the response

a)

full agonist

b)

partial agonist

72.

__________: the receptor is active in the absence of the drug

a)

constitutive activity

b)

inverse agonist

73.

_____________: binds and reduces any constitutive activity

a)

full agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

inverse agonist

74.

The ability of drug to bind receptor (Kd) is called what?

a)

affinity

b)

potency

c)

efficacy

75.

The measure of the activity of a drug in a biological systemic called what?

a)

affinity

b)

potency

c)

efficacy

76.

______________: the ability of drug-receptor complex to initiate response

a)

affinity

b)

potency

c)

efficacy

77.

Which type of dose-response describes the effect of a drug of a particular individual?

a)

graded dose response

b)

quantal dose-response

78.

_____________: more receptors exist than are necessary to produce maximal effect

a)

spare receptors

b)

orphan receptors

79.

Define competitive antagonist.

a)

blocks agonist binding (competes for the same site)

b)

activates the receptor to the maximum extent

c)

binds and activates the receptor but not to the maximum activity

d)

binds and inhibits the receptor by competing for receptor site and preventing agonist binding

80.

Will having enough extra agonist overcome inhibition in a competitive (reversible) antagonist situation?

a)

yes

b)

no

81.

_____________: an antagonist that binds to a receptor in such a way that it remains bound for the "life" of the receptor

a)

non competitive (irreversible antagonist)

b)

competitive (reversible) antagonist

82.

_________________: adequate dose will minimize number of receptors available for binding ligand such that Emax cannot be reached

a)

competitive irreversible antagonist

b)

non competitive irreversible antagonist

83.

What type of dose-response is characterized by all or none response?

a)

quantal dose-effect curve

b)

graded dose response

84.

A quantal dose-effect curve is used to generate information regarding the margin of safety.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

How do you calculate the therapeutic index?

a)

TD50 (toxic dose)/ ED50 (median effective dose)

b)

it's the range between the minimum toxic dose and the minimum effective dose

86.

What's the therapeutic window?

a)

TD50/ED50

b)

it's the range between the minimum toxic dose and the minimum effective dose

87.

Voltage-gated ion channels do not bind to neurotransmitters.

a)

true

b)

false

88.

Choose two examples of regulating mechanisms for ligand-gated ion channels

a)

phosphorylation

b)

endocytosis

c)

exocytosis

89.

Which receptor type is the most abundant in our bodies?

a)

G-protein coupling & second messengers

b)

ion-gated channels

90.

Approximately what percentage of drugs target G-protein receptors?

a)

40

b)

75

c)

64

d)

22

91.

Which 2nd messengers are used to amplify the effect of G-protein receptors?

a)

cAMP

b)

IP3

c)

Ca++