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Worksheets

Exam 2 - Mixed Topics

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 6hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What describes the fatty acid: 18:3(delta)9,12,15

a)

omega-6

b)

alpha-Linolenic acid

c)

omega-3

d)

Arachidonic acid

2.

What describes the fatty acid: 20:4(delta)5,8,11,14

a)

omega-6

b)

alpha-Linolenic acid

c)

omega-3

d)

Arachidonic acid

3.

Can you digest Olestra

a)

Yes

b)

No

4.

What is the structure of triglyceride

a)

3 FA esterified to glycerol

b)

phosphate on 3rd C + 2 FA esterified

c)

2 FA esterified to glycerol

d)

Sphingosine + 2nd tail attached via amide linkage

5.

What is the structure of a phosphodiglyceride

a)

3 FA esterified to glycerol

b)

phosphate on 3rd C + 2 FA esterified

c)

2 FA esterified to glycerol

d)

Sphingosine + 2nd tail attached via amide linkage

6.

What is the structure of a diglyceride

a)

3 FA esterified to glycerol

b)

phosphate on 3rd C + 2 FA esterified

c)

2 FA esterified to glycerol

d)

Sphingosine + 2nd tail attached via amide linkage

7.

What is the structure of a sphingolipid

a)

3 FA esterified to glycerol

b)

phosphate on 3rd C + 2 FA esterified

c)

2 FA esterified to glycerol

d)

Sphingosine + 2nd tail attached via amide linkage

8.

Which group has an ether group at the C1 instead of an ester

a)

Plasmalogen

b)

Phosphodiglyceride

9.

Which group has a phosphate on the 3rd C + 2 esterified FA

a)

Plasmalogen

b)

Phosphodiglyceride

10.

What is the structure of a glycolipid

a)

Oligosaccharide + glycerol

b)

Monosaccharide + glycerol

c)

Disaccharide + glycerol

11.

What diseases causes GM2 to accumulate and kills the child due to defective hexosaminidase A

a)

Tay Sachs

b)

Gaucher Disease

12.

Which of the following hormones are steroids

a)

cortisol

b)

aldosterone

c)

vitamin D

d)

adrenaline

e)

testosterone

13.

What is the precursor for retinol

a)

Vit A

b)

Vit K

c)

Vit E

14.

What are some examples of eicosanoids

a)

prostaglandins

b)

thromboxane

c)

leukotrienes

d)

antioxidants

15.

What are eicosanoids

a)

inflammatory mediators generated by hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids

b)

11-cis-retinal for eye development

c)

B-carotene in carrots

16.

What do NSAID's block

a)

COX 1

b)

COX 2

17.

Which are derived amino acids

a)

hydroxyproline

b)

ornithine

c)

hydroxylysine

d)

selenosysteine

e)

citrulline

18.

Which are nonstandard amino acids

a)

hydroxyproline

b)

ornithine

c)

hydroxylysine

d)

selenosysteine

e)

citrulline

19.

Where is ornithine and citrulline used

a)

endocrine system

b)

ETC

c)

urea cycle

d)

CAC

20.

What type of rxn results in a peptide bond

a)

reduction

b)

oxidation

c)

condensation

d)

hydrolysis

21.

What is located at the N terminal

a)

Amine

b)

Carboxylate

c)

Amide

d)

Carbonyl

22.

What is located at the C terminal

a)

Amine

b)

Carboxylate

c)

Amide

d)

Carbonyl

23.

Why is there no rotation around a peptide bond

a)

psy angle

b)

phy angle

c)

partial double bond characteristics

24.

What is a Ramachandran Plot

a)

lists what angles are possible for a psy-phi peptide bond

b)

shows dissociation of a peptide in solution

c)

temperature dissociation comparison

25.

Why do alpha helix and beta sheets predominate

a)

peptide bonds

b)

protein selection

c)

protein folding

26.

How many degrees does the R state and T state differ as a result of O2 binding

a)

10

b)

15

c)

5

d)

20

27.

What is BPG's affect on hemoglobin

a)

causes hemoglobin to have a lower affinity to O2

b)

if RBC breaks open, it cannot let go of O2

c)

locks hemoglobin in a deoxy (T) state

d)

locks hemoglobin in oxy (R) state

28.

What is the side group on "G"?

a)

-CH3

b)

-CH(CH3)2

c)

-H

d)

-NH3+

29.

What is the side group on "V"?

a)

-CH3

b)

-CH(CH3)2

c)

-H

d)

-NH3+

30.

What is the side group on "A"?

a)

-CH3

b)

-CH(CH3)2

c)

-H

d)

-NH3+

31.

Which AA is aromatic

a)

E

b)

F

c)

I

d)

H

32.

What is the one letter code for the aromatic AA with the largest molecular weight?

(a)  

33.

Which 2 AA carry a negative charge at pH 7.4?

a)

Aspartate

b)

Arginine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Glutamine

34.

At the pK1 the amino acid is

a)

50:50 mixture of protonated vs deprotonated carboxylate group

b)

50:50 mixture of protonated vs deprotonated amine group

c)

zwitterionic form

d)

protonated form

e)

deprotonated form

35.

Disulfide bridges are made by joining 2

a)

K's

b)

C's

c)

L's

d)

M's

36.

Define cooperativity

a)

hemoglobin binds to O2 and doesn't want to let go

b)

hemoglobin releases O2 for other tissues

c)

quaternary structure wants to do things together at all times

d)

quaternary structure wants to takes turns all the time

37.

What is the T state

a)

deoxy

b)

oxy

38.

What is the R state

a)

deoxy

b)

oxy

39.

What happens to O2 in low pH according to the Bohr effect

a)

O2 goes up

b)

O2 goes down

40.

What happens to O2 in high pH according to the Bohr effect

a)

O2 goes up

b)

O2 goes down

41.

What is the effect of high CO2 on hemoglobin

a)

low O2 affinity

b)

high O2 affinity

42.

What does sickle cell anemia help with

a)

better blood circulation

b)

higher affinity to O2

c)

protection again malaria

d)

higher concentration of thalassemia

43.

What describes malaria

a)

better blood circulation

b)

higher affinity to O2

c)

protection again sickle cell anemia

d)

higher concentration of thalassemia

44.

What are the similarities between passive and active transport?

a)

move across lipid bilayer

b)

have channels

c)

have pumps

d)

membrane transporters

45.

What defines passive diffusion

a)

no energy required

b)

ion channels

c)

pumps

d)

facilitated carriers

46.

What defines active transport

a)

energy required

b)

secondary active transport

c)

pumps

d)

facilitated carriers

47.

What similiaries do ion channels and carrier-mediated diffusion have

a)

active transport

b)

gated

c)

passive transport

48.

Ion channels are

a)

very specific

b)

gated (most of the time)

c)

creating a charge when ions move through the channels

d)

allow large molecules to pass through

49.

Carrier-mediated channels

a)

are non-gated

b)

are reversible

c)

allow large molecules through

d)

use a flow down gradient

50.

What is the Nernst Equation

a)

E = (61/z)log(conc. out/conc. in)

b)

E = 61log(conc. out/conc. in)

c)

E = (61/z)log(conc. in/conc. out)

d)

E = 61log(conc. in/conc. out)

51.

How does the flux of a solute via a carrier mediated transport limited by the # of transporters

a)

Rate of transport = # of transport carriers

b)

Rate of transport < # of carriers

c)

Rate of transport > # of carriers

52.

Primary active transport

a)

requires ATP

b)

moves solutes in opposite direction of conc. gradient

c)

piggy backs off primary active transport

53.

What type of transport is the Na+/K+ Pump

a)

primary active transport

b)

secondary active transport

c)

primary diffusion

d)

facilitated diffusion

54.

What is the role of Na+/K+ pump

a)

keep Na+ low inside the cell

b)

keep K+ high inside the cell

c)

keep Na+ high inside the cell

d)

keep K+ low inside the cell

55.

How many Na+ and K+ leave/enter the cell

a)

3 Na+

b)

2 K+

c)

3 K+

d)

2 Na+

56.

What does the Na+/K+ pump bring in on its secondary active transport

a)

fructose

b)

ATP

c)

glucose

d)

Ca2+

57.

The Ca2+ pump

a)

moves Ca into the extracellular or into ER for storage

b)

moves Ca into intracellular or into ER for storage

c)

plays a major role in signaling muscle cells

d)

plays a major role in signaling neurons

58.

Secondary active transport

a)

requires energy input, but no direct hydrolysis of ATP

b)

requires direct energy input from ATP

c)

one solute moves passively along its gradient while the other moves actively in the opposite direction of its gradient

d)

both solutes move actively across their concentration gradient

59.

Types of secondary active transporter

a)

co-transporters

b)

exchangers

c)

carrier-mediated transporter

d)

ion channels

60.

What type of transporter is a Na+/Glucose transporter

a)

secondary active transporter

b)

primary active transporter

c)

passive transporter

d)

facilitated transporter

61.

What active transporter is used to move glucose from the lumen to the cell layer

a)

SGLT

b)

GLUT2

62.

What passive transporter is used to move glucose from the cell layer to the blood

a)

SGLT

b)

GLUT2

63.

Which description describes phagocytosis

a)

Pseudopod engulfing food or other particle

b)

Non-specific recapture of membrane

c)

Very specific vesicle with receptors, a coated pit, and a coat protein

64.

Which description describes pinocytosis

a)

Pseudopod engulfing food or other particle

b)

Non-specific recapture of membrane

c)

Very specific vesicle with receptors, a coated pit, and a coat protein

65.

Which description describes receptor-mediated endocytosis

a)

Pseudopod engulfing food or other particle

b)

Non-specific recapture of membrane

c)

Very specific vesicle with receptors, a coated pit, and a coat protein

66.

Endocytosis

a)

requires energy

b)

does not require energy

67.

What is the function of receptors

a)

allow signals from the extracellular to be transmitted to the intracellular

b)

allows signals from the intracellular to be transmitted to the extracellular

68.

What are the major classes of membrane receptors

a)

Ligand-gated ion channels

b)

G protein-coupled receptors

c)

Enzyme-linked receptors

d)

Intracellular recptors

e)

Na+/Glucose symporter

69.

Which receptor changes the charge in a cell (ex: cholinergic nicotinic receptors)

a)

Ligand-gated ion channels

b)

G protein-coupled receptors

c)

Enzyme linked receptors

d)

Intracellular receptors

70.

Which receptor causes protein phosphorylation (ex: alpha and beta adrenoceptors)

a)

Ligand-gated ion channels

b)

G protein-coupled receptors

c)

Enzyme linked receptors

d)

Intracellular receptors

71.

Which receptor causes protein and receptor phosphorylation (ex: insulin receptors)

a)

Ligand-gated ion channels

b)

G protein-coupled receptors

c)

Enzyme linked receptors

d)

Intracellular receptors

72.

Which receptor is responsible for intracellular receptors (ex: steroid receptors)

a)

Ligand-gated ion channels

b)

G protein-coupled receptors

c)

Enzyme linked receptors

d)

Intracellular receptors

73.

Which receptor is responsible for protein phosphorylation and altered gene expression (ex: steroid receptors)

a)

Ligand-gated ion channels

b)

G protein-coupled receptors

c)

Enzyme linked receptors

d)

Intracellular receptors

74.

Which G-protein alpha subunit turns off adenylyl cyclase, cAMP, & protein kinase A (decreases protein phosphorylation)

a)

s

b)

i

c)

q

75.

Which G-protein alpha subunit turns on adenylyl cyclase, cAMP, & protein kinase A (increases protein phosphorylation)

a)

s

b)

i

c)

q

76.

Which G-protein alpha subunit activates phospholipase C to activate calcium-binding proteins

a)

s

b)

i

c)

q

77.

Which G-protein alpha subunit binds with the beta-adrenergic receptor

a)

s

b)

i

c)

q

78.

Which G-protein alpha subunit binds with mGluR?

a)

s

b)

i

c)

q

79.

Which G-protein alpha subunit binds with dopamine D2?

a)

s

b)

i

c)

q

80.

What neurotransmitter activates G-protein alpha s subunit

a)

norepinephrine

b)

glutamate

c)

dopamine

81.

What neurotransmitter activates G-protein alpha q subunit

a)

norepinephrine

b)

glutamate

c)

dopamine

82.

What neurotransmitter activates G-protein alpha i subunit

a)

norepinephrine

b)

glutamate

c)

dopamine