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AP World History Final Exam Review

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What would be most responsible for the spike in population in China in the postclassical era?

a)

the perfecting the manufacturing of Porcelain

b)

the prolific trade on the Silk Road

c)

the introduction of Champa rice to the Chinese diet

d)

the high demand for Chinese silk

2.

Which of the following is an indicator of increasing patriarchy in China?

a)

Civil Service Exam

b)

Veiling of Women

c)

Footbinding

d)

Issuing of Dowry's

3.

Who was Ibn Battuta?

a)

Religious Leader

b)

Merchant

c)

Christian Travler

d)

Islamic traveler

4.

China was the starting point for which of the following:

a)

Silk Road Trade

b)

All world religions

c)

Major political thought in the West

d)

Military Expansion

5.

What do Vietnam, Japan, and Korea have in common?

a)

They all have languages that stem from the same linguistic family.

b)

China left a lasting cultural and religious imprint on them.

c)

All were once colonies of the Mongols.

d)

All were conquered by the Sung dynasty.

6.

After the expansion of Islam into Africa, an organized Christian presence remained in

a)

Mauritania and Tunisia

b)

Morocco

c)

Egypt and Ethiopia

d)
Nigeria
7.

Why was construction of the Grand Canal necessary?

a)

To move goods easier between northern and southern China

b)
To provide a tourist attraction
c)
To create a barrier against invasions
d)
To control flooding of the Yellow River
8.

What is the Chinese term for paper money?

a)

Coins

b)

Flying cash

c)

Bills of exchange

d)

Bill of sale

9.

Malian Emperor Mansa Musa’s pilgrimage to Mecca in 1324 can best be understood in the context of which of the following?

a)

The expansion of Islam throughout Afro-Eurasia

b)

The development of new transportation technologies

c)

The diffusion of African culture to the Middle East

d)

The territorial expansion of West African empires

10.

Ibn Battuta traveled widely across the Middle East, South Asia, Southeast Asia, and Africa in the fourteenth century. His travels serve as evidence for the

a)

unifying influence of Islam

b)

excellent condition of roads in Africa and Asia

c)

political unity of Africa and Asia

d)

widespread use of paper money

11.

The map shows which of the following empires at its greatest extent?

a)

The empire of Alexander the Great

b)

The Mongol Empire

c)

The Russian Empire

d)

The Byzantine Empire

12.

Based on the maps and your knowledge of world history, which of the following best describes the effect of the spread of Islam on Indian Ocean trade?

a)

It led to the expansion and intensification of commerce along already existing trade routes.

b)

It led to the disappearance of previously established trade networks.

c)

It led to an expansion of land-based caravan trade but also to a decline of maritime trade.

d)

It led to the first creation of trade links between previously isolated world regions.

13.

During the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries, territories under Mongol control benefited from which of the following?

a)

Widespread adoption of Confucian family hierarchies

b)

Trade that facilitated the spread of Christianity throughout the Indian Ocean region

c)

Trade that tied several distinct regional networks together

d)

Widespread adoption of Buddhist religious practices

14.

The development of Indian Ocean trade routes in the period 600 B.C.E. to 600 C.E. and the development of transatlantic trade routes in the period 1450 C.E. to 1600 C.E. were similar in that both depended on

a)

the impetus of missionizing religions

b)

understanding of currents and wind patterns

c)

the political consolidation of newly conquered regions into empires

d)

innovations in ship design that originated in Europe

15.

The establishment of the Mongol Empire directly facilitated which of the following?

a)

Increased cultural and technological exchange between the Islamic world and China

b)

The development of Mongolian as the primary written language of administration across most of Eurasia

c)

The spread of Persian culture into Central Asia

d)

Improved ship designs and navigation techniques for oceanic commerce

16.

The map below shows what significant economic developments?

a)

Trade connections that linked the Hellenistic and Mauryan empires to African cities from 300 through 150 B.C.E.

b)

Trading networks that promoted the growth of new cities from 600 C.E. through 1450 C.E

c)

Chinese dominance of Indian Ocean trading networks because of the voyages of Zheng He in the 1400s C.E.

d)

Changes in Indian Ocean trading networks that resulted from technological innovations from 1450 C.E. through 1750 C.E.

17.

The map indicates that

a)

Mali was a major source and hub of the gold trade

b)

slavery existed in the western Sudan

c)

Europeans had begun to make inroads in West Africa

d)

Mali remained isolated from Europe and the Middle East

18.

The illustration would be most useful to a historian studying which of the following?

a)

Transportation and maritime technologies

b)

Large-scale trading organizations

c)

Geographic patterns of currents and winds in the Indian Ocean

d)

The expansion of the Umayyad Caliphate

19.

Which of the following best explains the process illustrated in the image?

a)

A. States increasingly relied on slave soldiers to establish large empires.

b)

B. The invention of the stirrup allowed expanding states to use cavalry more effectively.

c)

C. The development of new types of armor reduced casualties and allowed states to expand faster than before.

d)

D. States used gunpowder weapons to establish large empires.

20.

The methods of warfare shown in the image were instrumental in explaining the territorial expansion of all of the following land-based empires EXCEPT

a)

A. the Safavid Empire

b)

B. the Qing (Manchu) Empire

c)

C. the Aztec (Mexica) Empire

d)

D. the Ottoman Empire

21.

The Ottoman Empire's recruitment of soldiers and bureaucrats through the system depicted in the image is most similar to which broader method that rulers used to strengthen their empires in the period 1450-1750 ?

a)

A. The collection of tribute

b)

B. Establishment of religious uniformity

c)

C. Abolition of feudal privileges

d)

D. The granting of autonomy to minority groups

22.

The recruitment depicted in the image is best understood in the context of which of the following developments in the period 1450-1750 ?

a)

A. Attempts by imperial states to expand their economic power

b)

B. Attempts by imperial states to prevent religious conflict

c)

C. Attempts by imperial states to centralize their authority

d)

D. Attempts by imperial states to control population growth

23.

The inclusion of the image in the manuscript best illustrates which of the following features of the period 1450-1750?

a)

A. Rulers using art as a way to communicate with their illiterate subjects

b)

B. Rulers using art to expand their territories

c)

C. Rulers using art as a way to increase literacy

d)

D. Rulers using art to legitimize their rule

24.

How did the Tokugawa shoguns treat Europeans in Japan in the seventeenth century?

a)

They welcomed Europeans for their technological expertise and scientific knowledge.

b)

They protected Christian missionaries and sponsored Christian churches.

c)

They expelled all Europeans except the Dutch, who were allowed to trade at a single site.

d)

They established regular diplomatic relations with European states.

25.

The fact that Europeans often had to pay for Asian spices and textiles in cash led to which of the following?

a)

An intense desire for precious metals

b)

A European trade surplus

c)

A lack of desire to trade with Asia

d)

The closing of the Indian Ocean trade network

26.
This city was conquered by the Ottoman's and led to the end of the Byzantine Empire.
a)
Paris
b)
Mecca
c)
Jerusalem
d)
Constantinople
27.

What was the significance of the Portuguese Caravel in the context of maritime exploration?

a)

It was a small, fast ship that could navigate inland and shallow coastal areas

b)

It was a warship equipped with heavy artillery

c)

It was a large merchant ship used for long-distance trade

d)

It was a fishing vessel used for coastal trade

28.

Which European state was the first to establish a trading post empire around the coast of Africa and throughout the Indian Ocean?

a)

England

b)

Spain

c)

Portugal

d)

France

29.

What was the primary goal of mercantilist economics in the context of European expansion?

a)

To promote free trade and open markets

b)

To establish a global currency system

c)

To encourage economic cooperation with indigenous populations

d)

To maintain a favorable balance of trade through exports and limited imports

30.

Which European state established a presence in Canada and engaged in the fur trade with indigenous peoples?

a)

Spain

b)

France

c)

England

d)

Portugal

31.

What was the main effect of the Colombian Exchange on the indigenous populations of the Americas?

a)

Increased economic prosperity through trade

b)

Devastation due to the spread of deadly diseases

c)

Introduction of new technologies and innovations

d)

Cultural exchange and mutual understanding

32.

Which disease introduced by Europeans had a devastating impact on the indigenous populations of the Americas?

a)

Smallpox

b)

Cholera

c)

Influenza

d)

Malaria

33.

What type of foods and plants were introduced by European settlers to the Americas?

a)

Wheat, Olives, Grapes

b)

Rice, Bananas, Sugar

c)

Tea, Coffee, Spices

d)

Potatoes, Tomatoes, Corn

34.

What was the impact of the introduction of horses by Europeans on the indigenous populations of the Americas?

a)

It led to the development of new forms of warfare

b)

It caused a decline in the population due to diseases

c)

It led to an increase in agricultural productivity

d)

It had no significant impact

35.

Which European state established the first permanent settlement in Australia?

a)

England

b)

Spain

c)

Portugal

d)

Netherlands

36.
Which social class did Bolivar belong to?
a)
Peninsulares
b)
Creoles
c)
Mestizos
d)
Enslaved Persons
37.
Which empire did Símon Bolívar lead a revolution against to achieve independence? 
a)
France
b)
Spain
c)
Great Britain
d)
Germany
38.

The Haitian Revolution was influenced mainly by which revolution?

a)

French

b)

American

c)

Spanish American

d)

Russian

39.

Which of the following wars helped to inspire the French Revolution?

a)

The American Civil War

b)

The French and Indian War

c)

American Revolution

d)

The Seven Years War

40.
How did Nationalism lead to political changes in Europe?
a)
The desire for self-rule led to revolutions
b)
It spurred investment in factories
c)
It led to Communist revolutions
d)
It returned royal families to power
41.
Which of the following statements best describes the significance of Social Darwinism?
a)
It was a significant breakthrough in revolutionary theory
b)
It led to an increase in urbanization throughout much of Europe
c)
It influenced the development of the factory model of production
d)
It was used as a justification for the inferior treatment of colonial people
42.
Saint Domingue (Haiti) was a colony of what country?
a)
Spain
b)
France
c)
England
d)
Germany
43.

"The aim of every political association is the preservation of the natural and imprescriptible rights of man. These rights are liberty, property, security and resistance to oppression."

-Declaration of the rights of Man and of the Citizen, 1789


Which philosopher best upholds the ideas expressed in the document above?

a)

Montesquieu

b)

Wollstonecraft

c)

Locke

d)

Hobbes

44.

John Locke believed that all people had:

a)

Natural Rights

b)

Individual rights

c)

Some rights

45.

Who led the successful slave revolt on the island of Haiti in beginning in 1791 ending in 1804?

a)

Toussaint L’Overture

b)

Jose de San Martin

c)

Father Miguel Hidalgo

d)

Simon Bolivar

46.

What was Japan's response to foreign interference in the nineteenth century?

a)

Adapt to Western politics and culture (Meiji Restoration)

b)

Isolate themselves further by resisting and fighting

c)

Became allies with the Chinese to become the dominant power in the region

d)

Adapt to the ideas of the islanders and tribal people to resist

47.

Why, in the time period c. 1750-1900, did European states fight to acquire overseas colonies?

a)

To acquire raw materials to fuel their industrialization

b)

To spread Enlightenment ideas

c)

To abolish slavery worldwide

d)

To stop the spread of Islam throughout the world

48.

Why did European powers divide Africa by diplomatic agreements between each other?

a)

Fear of going to war because of fierce competition

b)

Rapid population increase in European colonies in Asia

c)

Atlantic revolutions lead Europeans states to seek new troops

d)

Creation of transnational business fostered exchange of raw materials

49.

At what conference did the Europeans divide up Africa for their colonization?

a)

Egypt Conference

b)

London Conference

c)

Belgium Conference

d)

Berlin Conference

50.
China was divided into___________________________ by foreign powers 
a)
Colonies 
b)
Protectorates 
c)
Spheres of Influence
d)
Empires
51.
The poem, The White Man's Burden, by Rudyard Kipling, represents the belief that European culture was _______.
a)
superior to other cultures
b)
misunderstood by Americans
c)
the oldest culture in the world
d)
a replica of Ancient Greek culture
52.

Which statement about the technology developed during World War I is correct?

a)

The new technology led to fewer refugees being displaced from their homes during the conflict.

b)

The new technology created deadlier weapons which led to increased military casualties in battles fought during the conflict.

c)

The new technology led to smaller nations joining large empires following the conflict.

d)

The new technology led to a reduced focus on transportation improvements following the conflict.

53.

In the 1930, what idea did the United States practice not get involved in WWII?

a)

Isolationism

b)

Reinforcement

c)

Capitalism

54.

Which was a state regulation of immigration during the nineteenth century?

a)

Chinese Exclusion Acts

b)

Congo Free State

c)

White New Zealand Policy

d)

Jim Crow Laws

55.

What caused the Taiping and Boxer rebellions?

a)

Foreign economic involvement in China

b)

British selling opium to China

c)

Indians refusing to touch the gunpowder pouches

d)

Americans moving into West North America

56.

The economic system that prevailed from c. 1750-1900 was

a)

Capitalism

b)

Communism

c)

Socialism

d)

Mercantilism

57.
In which rebellion in India in the mid-1800s did natives challenge British power?
a)
Zulu
b)
Taiping
c)
Boxer
d)
Sepoy
58.
Who is the famous historical figure shown below? He wrote the famous phrase: "Workers of the world unite!"
a)
John Adams 
b)
Thomas Smith
c)
Karl Marx
d)
Edward Jenner
59.

Which of the following statements is an accurate comparison of the Ottoman, Russian, and Qing Empires in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries?

a)

Prior to their collapse, each of the empires attempted a series of Western-style reforms, but the ruling elites eventually failed to support the needed changes.

b)

These land based empires collapsed due to a variety of internal and external factors, including WWI, failure to modernize and revolution

c)

The Ottoman and Russian Empires survived because of the adoption of some Western-style reforms while the Qing failed because it refused to alter centuries of Chinese tradition.

d)

The Ottoman Empire and Qing dynasty both lost territory to aggressive European powers while Russia, acting as an aggressor, expanded its empire during this time.

60.

1. Which of the following best describes the 1936 lithograph (entitled The Hero) by German artist George Grosz?

a)

A propaganda poster prepared by the Nazi Party

b)

A protest poster against the atrocities of the atomic bomb

c)

A representation of a Holocaust victim

d)

A post-First World War print expressing antiwar sentiment

61.
The United States entered World War II as a direct result of what?
a)
The attack on Pearl Harbor
b)
The invasion and division of France
c)
The invasion and division of Poland
d)
Attacks on U.S. ships in the Atlantic
62.

What was a key cause for the rise of fascism in nations such as Italy and Germany?

a)

collectivization

b)

economic hardship

c)

genocide

d)

secret treaties

63.

Which type of government is characterized by extreme nationalism, censorship, militarism, and dictatorship?

a)

fascist

b)

direct democracy

c)

constitutional confederation

d)

parliamentary democracy

64.

Neville Chamberlain visited Munich in 1938 to negotiate the fate of Sudetenland. Which policy is most closely associated with Chamberlain’s action?

a)

appeasement

b)

nonalignment

c)

reparations

d)

colonialism

65.

What would be the best title for this chart?

a)

Events During World War I

b)

Totalitarian Regimes Between the Wars

c)

Economic Problems Between the Wars

d)

Causes of World War II

66.

When a nation dedicates all of its resources to the war effort

a)

total war

b)

totalitarianism

c)

migration

d)

propaganda

67.

The German invasion of which nation caused Britain and France to declare war on Germany?

a)

. Austria

b)

. Belgium

c)

. Czechoslovakia

d)

. Poland

68.

What foreign policy guided American presidents during the Cold War to stop the spread of communism?

a)

Open Door Policy

b)

Dollar Diplomacy

c)

Big Stick Policy

d)

Containment

69.

What American policy provided Western European countries financial assistance so they could recover from WWII?

a)

Marshall Plan

b)

Domino Theory

c)

Truman Doctrine

d)

Big Stick Policy

70.

During what event did the U.S. bypass a Soviet blockade without provoking a military conflict?

a)

Berlin Airlift

b)

Cuban Missile Crisis

c)

Korean War

d)

Vietnam War

71.

During the Cuban Missile Crisis, what did JFK do when he heard that the Soviet Union was construction a missile site in Cuba.

a)

JFK gave into the Soviet demands.

b)

JFK bombed the Soviet Union with an atomic bomb.

c)

JFK ordered a naval blockade of Cuba.

d)

JFK invaded Cuba from Guantanamo Bay.

72.

Which of the following was a primary cause of the Cold War between the United States and the Soviet Union?

a)

direct, armed conflict between the two nations

b)

the founding of the United Nations

c)

a deep reduction in military expenditures

d)

a competition for political influence over other countries

73.

Which of the following is most characteristic of the Cold War?

a)

The growth of nuclear arsenals in the United States and the Soviet Union

b)

The expansion of national borders by imperialistic European countries

c)

The implementation of isolationist foreign policies in Great Britain and China

d)

The rapid industrialization of many Southeast Asian countries

74.

What was one major goal of the Soviet Union during the early years of the Cold War?

a)

to expand individual liberties in the Baltic republics

b)

to attract foreign economic investments

c)

to create a defensive buffer zone in Eastern Europe

d)

to establish a competitive market economy

75.

Which of these was a cause of the Korean War?

a)

NATO air and naval forces blocked ships sailing to North Korea.

b)

United Nations inattention allowed guerrillas to infiltrate South Korea.

c)

North Korean forces, with Soviet approval, invaded South Korea.

d)

Widespread anti-colonial riots forced the Korean government to begin the war.

76.

Who were the Big Three?

a)

Great Britain, France, Russia

b)

England, USSR, France

c)

USA, Great Britain, USSR

d)

England, USA, France

77.

Why were Japanese Americans ordered into the internment camps?

a)

For reasons of national security

b)

For reasons of giving Japanese Americans jobs

c)

To hide the Japanese Americans from danger

d)

To recruit and train Japanese Americans to help fight the war for the U.S.

78.

This term means "lightning war", and was the name of the fighting style that the Nazis used to conquer Europe.

a)

Berlin

b)

Kristallnacht

c)

blitzkrieg

d)

Nuremberg

79.
The Soviet Union and its Communist Allies formed a pact to counter NATO. It was called
a)
The Soviet Block
b)
The Red Army
c)
The Moscow Alliance
d)
The Warsaw Pact
80.
In 1946, Winston Churchill declared that an ___________ had descended across Europe
a)
Iron Curtain
b)
Open Trench
c)
Isolated Oasis
d)
Red River
81.

Which Yalta agreement didn't end up happening?

a)

Free elections in Eastern European countries.

b)

The Soviet Union entering the war with Japan within 90 days of defeating Germany.

c)

The establishment of the United Nations.

d)

The Soviet Union was allowed to keep part of Poland.

82.

Which conference split Germany into four Allied occupation zones after World War II?

a)

Yalta and Potsdam conferences

b)

Geneva Conference

c)

Vienna Summit

d)

Tehran Conference

83.

What was the political and military alliance of Western, non communist nations?

a)

North Atlantic Treaty Organization

b)

Warsaw Pact

c)

United Nations

d)

League of Nations

84.
Which side of the wall was under the control of the Soviets?
a)
West
b)
East
c)
Both
d)
Neither
85.

The launch of Sputnik I intensified Cold War tensions and caused the —

a)

United States to increase spending on technology, education and weapons to compete with the Soviet Union

b)

Soviet Union to move missiles and warships to Cuba in order to threaten the United States

c)

United States to send troops and aid to East Berlin to free it from Soviet control

d)

Soviet Union to threaten Europe with nuclear attack if Soviet airspace were violated

86.

Small states that are economically or politically dependent on a larger, more powerful state are called:

a)

Protectorates

b)

Dominions

c)

Colonies

d)

Satellite Countries

87.

The original goal of Pan-Africanism was to

a)

demand democratic reforms

b)

encourage ethnic rivalry

c)

promote a united Africa

d)

divide Africa into separate countries

88.

A similarity of the goals of Nelson Mandela and Mohandas Gandhi is that both leaders wanted to

a)

secure political power for the majority of the people

b)

encourage a greater degree of industrialization

c)

improve the economy by expanding governmental control

d)

gain independence from the Soviet Union

89.

One way in which apartheid in South Africa and the caste system in India are similar is that both systems

a)

allowed for educational opportunities

b)

determined roles based on gender

c)

revolved around central religious beliefs

d)

enforced different sets of rules for distinct groups of people

90.

Who was Ho Chi Minh?

a)

Leader of African indpendence movement

b)

Led guerilla movement for Vietnamese independence

c)

Fought for recognition of aboriginal rights

d)

Fought for control of land and resources in South America

91.

What did Gamal Abdel Nasser want for Egypt?

a)

Control over Suez Canal

b)

Join Communist bloc of countries

c)

Become a Capitalist country

d)

Develop a nuclear bomb for Egypt

92.

What was a non aligned country?

a)

Joined Communist countries

b)

Joined Capitalist countries

c)

Joined the United Nations

d)

Did not join Capitalist or Communist countries

93.

How did Kwame Nkrumah try to free the Gold Coast from British control?

a)

Violent Resistance

b)

Non Violent Movement

c)

Appeal to the United Nations

d)

Creation of common culture and history

94.

One way in which Joseph Stalin’s five-year plans and Mao Zedong’s Great Leap Forward are similar is that both plans were

a)

efforts to reduce human rights violations

b)

policies to improve relations with the West

c)

methods used to control population growth

d)

attempts to increase agricultural and industrial production

95.

What was an immediate result of the Great Leap Forward (1958)?

a)

independence of Kenya from Great Britain

b)

the breakup of the Soviet Union

c)

the relocation of Bosnian refugees

d)

increased famine in China

96.

What was the main goal of Zionism?

a)

forming a representative government in China

b)

establishing a Jewish homeland in the region of Palestine

c)

improving the standard of living in developing countries

d)

creating an international peacekeeping organization to solve global conflicts

97.

Idea that no matter who started a war, both sides would die from the nuclear fall out

a)

Containment

b)

Sputnik

c)

Space Race

d)

Mutually Assured Destruction

98.

The USSR justified their missile bases in Cuba because the USA had missile bases in...

a)

USSR

b)

Mexico

c)

Turkey

d)

China

99.

In 1962, Algeria gained independence from

a)

Spain.

b)

France.

c)

the Arabs.

d)

the Ottoman Turks.

100.

Nelson Mandela fought against an oppressive government system called...

a)

segregation

b)

Jim Crow

c)

Apartheid

101.

In his book Indian Home Rule, Gandhi asked the question, “Why do you want to drive away the English?” He replied with the following statement:


. . . “Because India has become impoverished by their Government. They take away our money from year to year. The most important posts are reserved for themselves. We are kept in a state of slavery. They behave insolently [insultingly] towards us and disregard our feelings. . . .”


Which event was an effect of the ideas expressed in this excerpt and the actions taken by Gandhi?

a)

Independence for India and Pakistan

b)

Amritsar Massacre

c)

Sepoy Rebellion

d)

Establishment of the British Raj

102.

". . .The Nazi Holocaust, which engulfed millions of Jews in Europe, proved anew the urgency of the reestablishment of the Jewish state, which would solve the problem of Jewish homelessness by opening the gates to all Jews and lifting the Jewish people to equality in the family of nations. . .."

David Ben-Gurion, May 1948


This statement is referring to the establishment of which nation?

a)

Jordan

b)

Poland

c)

Israel

d)

Ethiopia

103.
Why was the United Nations founded?
a)
To ensure that Germany would never become powerful again
b)
To ensure that another Holocaust could never happen
c)
To try and preserve peace and international cooperation
d)
To protect Europe against Russia
104.
The World Trade organization's purpose is to  
a)
promote trade barriers
b)
promote free international trade
c)
help poor countries trade with other poor countries.
d)
Help world powers maintain world powers.
105.
What is the Green Revolution?
a)
A dramatic increase of corn from 1951-1987
b)
a program that encourage farmers to adapt modern agriculture methods
c)
When plants turn green after winter
d)
The increase of plants because of artificial means
106.
These groups were similar as they both supported movements for democracy.
a)
Great Leap Forward and Four Modernizations
b)
Polish Solidarity and Tiananmen Square
c)
Three Principles and Hungarian Revolution
d)
Opium War and Great Leap Forward
107.

What is one explanation for the great change in the world population between 1950 and 2000?

a)

Family planning was successful.

b)

There was an absence of war and conflict.

c)

New medicines and technology were discovered and applied.

d)

Famine and other natural disasters increased.

108.

Based on this late 20th-century map, which conclusion is accurate?

a)

The worldwide distribution of wealth is unequal.

b)

Social mobility between social classes is increasing.

c)

The communist movement is growing.

d)

Economic self-sufficiency in less developed countries is increasing.

109.

How did Catholic Church leaders demonstrate sensitivity to demands of the poor for social justice in twentieth-century Latin America?

a)

demanding special charitable contributions from the Vatican to wipe out poverty

b)

formation of a "liberation theology"

c)

renunciation of Christianity in favor of orthodox Marxist socialism

d)

implementing land reform policies through representation in national elections

110.

Which of the following statements about the Iranian Revolution of 1979 is most accurate?

a)

it marked the end of British colonization in Iran

b)

it overthrew a monarchy and installed a liberal democracy

c)

it was guided by a non-Western ideology

d)

its leaders withdrew Iran from OPEC

111.

The purpose of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was to

a)

regulate currency rates.

b)

attract emerging economies into trade alliances with the United States.

c)

eliminate barriers to free trade.

d)

set fair labor standards for the industrialized nations.

112.

Global warming refers to

a)

natural variations in the global climate over time.

b)

the rise in global temperatures caused by atmospheric pollution such as the emissions of cars and factories.

c)

the risk of a nuclear war when the planet is politically "hot."

d)

the increase in temperature caused by volcanic activity on the oceans' floors.

113.

What is the total duration of the AP World History Modern Exam?

a)

2 hours and 30 minutes

b)

3 hours and 15 minutes

c)

4 hours

d)

5 hours

114.

How many multiple-choice questions are included in Section 1 of the AP World History Modern Exam?

a)

30 questions

b)

40 questions

c)

50 questions

d)

55 questions

115.

Which part of the AP World History Modern Exam includes 3 short-answer questions?

a)

Part A of Section 1

b)

Part B of Section 1

c)

Section II

d)

None of the above

116.

What is the exam weighting for the multiple-choice questions in Section 1?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

117.

How long is the time limit for answering the multiple-choice questions in Section 1?

a)

45 minutes

b)

55 minutes

c)

60 minutes

d)

75 minutes

118.

How much of the exam weighting does the Document-Based Question (DBQ) hold?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

119.

How long is the reading period for the Document-Based Question (DBQ)?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minute

c)

15 minutes

d)

20 minutes

120.

How many units of study are there in this AP World History course?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

121.

When is the AP World History Exam scheduled for the academic year 2023-2024?

a)

May 1, 2024

b)

May 15, 2024

c)

June 1, 2024

d)

June 15, 2024

122.

What type of free response questions does WHAP have?

a)

DBQ 7 LEQ

b)

SAQ & DBQ

c)

LEQ & SAQ

d)

SAQ, DBQ, & LEQ

123.

How many LEQ questions are you required to answer on the WHAP exam?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

1

124.

Section I part B requires how many SAQ's answered on the WHAP exam?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

125.

Section II Free Response Question #1 is the DBQ

a)

True

b)

False