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Worksheets

EE TERMS

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The phase shift between the current and voltagevectors us due to the following except one

a)

A. magnet coils

b)

B. power capacitors

c)

C. electric flat iron

d)

D. fluorescent lamp

2.

It is the value of sine wave of voltage or current at one

particular instant of time.

a)

A. average value

b)

B. effective value

c)

C. rms value

d)

D. instantaneous value

3.

Measured in Hertz, it is the number of cycles of

alternating current per second.

a)

A. frequency

b)

B. period

c)

C. peak to peak

d)

D. wavelength

4.

What is the phase relationship between current and

voltage in an inductor?

a)

A. in phase

b)

B. current lags voltage by 90°

c)

C. voltage lags current by 90°

d)

D. current lags voltage by 180°

5.

If sine wave voltage varies from 0 to 200 V, how much

is its instantaneous voltage at 90°?

a)

A. 100 V

b)

B. minimum voltage

c)

C. 200 V

d)

D. half of its maximum voltage

6.

ECE Board Exam November 2000

How many degrees are there in one complete wave

cycle?

a)

A. 360 degrees

b)

B. 90 degrees

c)

C. 180 degrees

d)

D. 720 degrees

7.

When comparing rms voltage and average voltages,

which of the following statement is true, assuming

sine waves?

a)

A. Either the rms voltage or the average voltage

might be larger.

b)

B. The average voltage is always greater than the

rms voltage.

c)

C. There will always be a very large difference

between the rms voltage and the average

voltage.

d)

D. The rms voltage is always greater than the

average voltage

8.

It is the maximum instantaneous value of a varying

current, voltage, or power equal to 1.414 times the

effective value of a sine wave.

a)

A. rms value

b)

C. effective value

c)

B. peak to peak value

d)

D. peak value

9.

It is the description of two sine waves that are in step

with each other going through their maximum and

minimum points at the same time and in same

direction.

a)

A. stepped sine waves

b)

B. sine waves in coordination

c)

C. phased sine waves

d)

D. sine waves in phase

10.

The relation of the voltage across an inductor to it

current is ____

a)

A. Lagging the current by 90 degrees

b)

B. Leading the current by 90 degrees

c)

C. In phase with the current

d)

D. Leading the current by 180 degrees

11.

In a series resonant RLC circuit, all of the following

statements are correct EXCEPT one. Which one is

this?

a)

A. The resonant frequency is dependent on the

resistance of the circuit.

b)

B. The phase angle between the voltage and the

current vectors is zero.

c)

C. The impedance is a minimum.

d)

D. The current is a maximum

12.

The current in RLC series circuit at resonance is

a)

A. maximum

b)

B. minimum

c)

C. zero

d)

D. infinity

13.

ECE Board Exam November 1996

____ frequency is reached when the capacitive and

inductive reactance in a tuned circuit are equal.

a)

A. zero

b)

B. pulsating

c)

C. infinite

d)

D. resonant

14.

.ECE Board Exam November 2000

In an “IDEAL” resonant circuit, what is the relationship

between the current and the impedance?

a)

A. current high, impedance low

b)

B. current low, impedance low

c)

C. current low, impedance high

d)

D. current high, impedance high

15.

What condition does resonance occur in an electrical

circuit?

a)

A. When the power factor is at minimum

b)

B. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive

and inductive reactances is to the resonant

frequency

c)

C. When the inductive and capacitive reactances

are equal

d)

D. none of the above

16.

What is the relationship between frequency and the

value of XC?

a)

A. frequency has no effect

b)

B. XC varies directly with frequency

c)

C. XC varies inversely with frequency

d)

D. XC varies indirectly with frequency

17.

When is the line current minimum in a parallel LC

circuit?

a)

A. at the broadcast frequency

b)

B. at the circuit frequency

c)

C. at the resonant frequency

d)

D. at the highest frequency

18.

It is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an

electrical circuit when the inductive reactance

balances with the capacitive reactance.

a)

A. reactive equilibrium

b)

B. resonance

c)

C. reactive quiescence

d)

D. high Q

19.

What is the effect in terms of bandwidth when the Q of

a single-tuned stage is doubled?

a)

A. halved

b)

B. the same

c)

C. doubled

d)

D. four times

20.

____ refers to reactive power.

a)

A. power consumed in circuit Q

b)

B. power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

c)

C. wattles, non-productive power

d)

D. power lost because of capacitor leakage

21.

How do you call the nature of a circuit during series

resonance?

a)

A. unstable

b)

B. capacitive

c)

C. resistive

d)

D. inductive

22.

In a series resonant LC circuit, what is the impedance

at resonant frequency?

a)

A. Infinity

b)

B. Determined solely by the dc resistance

c)

C. The maximum impedance value

d)

D. Zero

23.

What is the characteristic of the current flow in a

parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?

a)

A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is

dc

b)

B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is

zero

c)

C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is

at a maximum

d)

D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is

at a minimum

24.

What is the responsible for the phenomenon when

voltages across reactances in series can often be

larger than the voltage applied to them?

a)

A. Capacitance

b)

B. Resistance

c)

C. Conductance

d)

D. Resonance

25.

Term used for resonance in an electrical circuit.

a)

A. The frequency at which power factor is at a

minimum

b)

B. The frequency at which capacitive reactance

equals inductive reactances

c)

C. The highest frequency that will pass current

d)

D. The lowest frequency that will pass current

26.

The _____ the Q of a circuit, the narrower is its

bandwidth.

a)

A. Lower

b)

B. Broader

c)

C. Higher

d)

D. Selective

27.

What is the term for the number of times per second

that a tank circuit energy is stored in the inductor of

capacitor?

a)

A. Non-resonant frequency

b)

B. Broadcast frequency

c)

C. Circuit frequency

d)

D. Resonant frequency

28.

What is the cause of a minimum Q on a single-tuned

LC circuit?

a)

A. Decreased shunt resistor

b)

B. Decreased capacitance

c)

C. Increased shunt resistor

d)

D. Decreased series resistor

29.

____ is another term for quality factor or Q of the

resonant circuit.

a)

A. Noise factor

b)

B. Noise figure

c)

C. White noise

d)

D. Figure of merit

30.

The copper loss of the transformer will

a)

A. not be affected by a change in the power factor

b)

B. decrease with a lowering of the power factor

c)

C. increase with an increase of the power factor

d)

D. increase with the lowering of the power factor

31.

Power lost due to alternating magnetization and

demagnetization of the core material

a)

A. copper loss

b)

B. eddy current loss

c)

C. hysteresis loss

d)

D. rheostat loss

32.

In the open circuit test of the transformer the

wattmeter reading is equal to

a)

A. eddy current loss

b)

B. current loss

c)

C. hysteresis loss

d)

D. core loss

33.

Ideal transformer assumptions do not include

a)

A. no leakage flux

b)

B. no saturation of core

c)

C. zero resistance of the winding

d)

D. zero reactance of the winding

34.

Which of the following given below is the eddy current

loss not proportional to?

a)

A. square of the thickness

b)

B. square of the frequency

c)

C. square of the load current of the laminated core

d)

D. square of the flux density

35.

Transformer connection that can transform threephase system to two-phase system and vice versa

a)

A. Scott or T-connection

b)

B. open delta

c)

C. autotransformer connection

d)

D. wye-delta connection

36.

When the emf in the two windings of a transformer are

opposite in direction, the polarity is

a)

A. positive

b)

B. additive

c)

C. negative

d)

D. subtractive

37.

Its primary function is to provide ground source

a)

A. zigzag transformer

b)

B. sectionalizer

c)

C. surge arrester

d)

D. tertiary transformer

38.

What is the main use of a zigzag transformer?

a)

A. to step down voltage

b)

B. to provide path to zero sequence currents

c)

C. to stabilize transformer sequence currents

d)

D. to step down current

39.

Which of the following is not a reason why a single

phase induction motor will not run?

a)

A. one of the current is made out of phase between

the lines

b)

B. hysteresis

c)

C. shaded poles

d)

D. two windings displaced from each other

40.

The following are types of AC motor starters except

one

a)

A. reactance starter

b)

B. wye-delta starter

c)

C. across the line starter

d)

D. capacitance starter

41.

Motor starting device that will reduce the voltage

impressed at motor’s terminals during starting

periods.

a)

A. autotransformer

b)

B. primary resistor-type

c)

C. wye-delta starter

d)

D. all of these

42.

Basically all electric motors operate on the principle of

repulsion or ____.

a)

A. induction

b)

B. magnetism

c)

C. resistance

d)

D. capacitance

43.

The principle of operation of induction motor is based

on

a)

A. Fleming’s right hand rule

b)

B. rotating magnetic field

c)

C. Faraday’s law

d)

D. Ohm’s law

44.

A compensator is a device that is used with

alternating current motors to ____.

a)

A. boost the supply voltage during starting periods

b)

B. compensate for low power factor when motor is

not fully loaded

c)

C. reduce the supply voltage during starting periods

d)

D. compensate for voltage drop in the circuit

45.

A single-phase motor provided with a squirrel cage

winding on its rotor in addition to its regular winding is

called

a)

A. split-phase induction motor

b)

B. repulsion induction motor

c)

C. universal motor

d)

D. repulsion-start induction motor

46.

A test used to determine the equivalent resistance of

an induction motor is

a)

A. no-load test

b)

B. short circuit test

c)

C. blocked rotor test

d)

D. polarity test

47.

Rapid stopping of a motor by momentarily connecting

the motor in reverse direction is called

a)

A. jogging

b)

B. inching

c)

C. plugging

d)

D. sequence operation

48.

Repeated starting and stopping of a motor is referred

to as

a)

A. stepping

b)

B. jogging

c)

C. phasing

d)

D. none of these

49.

An induction motor driven above synchronous speed

is called

a)

A. induction regulator

b)

B. frequency changer

c)

C. induction generator

d)

D. phase converter

50.

Power factor improvement may be achieved by the

use of

a)

A. synchronous motor

b)

B. synchronous converter

c)

C. long transmission line

d)

D. induction motor

51.

A synchronous motor

a)

A. will have a low power factor when run below rated

speed

b)

B. may have its speed varied by inserting a rheostat

in the DC field current

c)

C. will slow down with an increase in load within the

limits of its pull out torque

d)

D. will take minimum line current at any load when

operating at unity power factor

52.

In starting a 500 HP, 2,300 volts, 3-phasesynchronous motor the field winding is initially shortcircuited so as to

a)

A. provide better flux distribution in the air gap

b)

B. increase induced voltage in field winding

c)

C. produce much larger starting torque

d)

D. lower voltage produced between layers of the

field

53.

A synchronous motor running without load is

a)

A. synchronous converter

b)

B. synchronous condenser

c)

C. capacitor motor

d)

D. induction motor

54.

A certain wire has a resistance R. The resistance of

another wire identical with the first except for having

twice its diameter is

a)

A. 4R

b)

B. R/2

c)

C. 2R

d)

D. R/4

55.

The equivalent wye element of a 3 equal resistors

each equal to R and connected in delta is

a)

A. R

b)

B. 3R/2

c)

C. R/3

d)

D. 3R

56.

When heat is transferred into any other form of energy

or when other forms of energy are converted into

heat, the total amount of energy is constant. This is

known as

a)

A. First law of thermodynamics

b)

B. Boyle’s law

c)

C. Specific heat

d)

D. Isothermal expansion

57.

In the American wire gauge, as the number of gauge

increases, the diameter of wire ____

a)

A. increases

b)

B. decreases

c)

C. does not change

d)

D. become twice

58.

In cgs system, what is the unit of emf where I is in

abampere and P is in erg per second?

a)

A. millivolt

b)

B. kilovolt

c)

C. abvolt

d)

D. volt

59.

One (1) kW is equal to ____ hp.

a)

A. 0.746

b)

B. 1.34

c)

C. 550

d)

D. 1.5

60.

What is 1012 ergs/sec in kW?

a)

A. 100 kW

b)

B. 1,000 kW

c)

C. 10 kW

d)

D. 10,000 kW

61.

The growth of current in an inductive circuit follows

a)

A. Linear law

b)

B. Exponential law

c)

C. Ohm’s law

d)

D. Hyperbolic law

62.

The time constant of an RL series circuit is

a)

A. R + L

b)

B. R/L

c)

C. L/R

d)

D. RL

63.

If a dc voltage is applied to an initially uncharged

series RC circuit, the initial value of the current is

a)

A. zero

b)

B. V/R

c)

C. infinite

d)

D. CV

64.

One of those listed is not of dc generator winding.

a)

A. drum

b)

B. progressive

c)

C. gramme-ring

d)

D. lap

65.

What is the solution to reduce rotor friction to a large

generator?

a)

A. use sulfur hexafluoride gas in rotor chamber

b)

B. use hydrogen gas in the rotor chamber

c)

C. use lubricating oil in the rotor chamber

d)

D. apply vacuum in the rotor chamber

66.

Interpoles are connected in ____ with the armature

and compensating windings are connected in ____

with the armature.

a)

A. shunt, shunt

b)

B. shunt, series

c)

C. series, shunt

d)

D. series, series

67.

The generator’s ripples in the dc emf generated are

reduced by using

a)

A. equalizer ring

b)

B. commutator with large number of segments

c)

C. quality carbon brushes

d)

D. all of these

68.

What dc motor over-speeds at light loads?

a)

A. series motor

b)

B. shunt motor

c)

C. cumulative compound generator

d)

D. differential compound generator

69.

DC motor starters are used for the following functions

EXCEPT one. Which one is this?

a)

A. control the speed of the motor

b)

B. start large DC motors

c)

C. limit the starting current of the motor

d)

D. prevent large voltage drop during starting

70.

If you try to start a DC compound motor the shunt field

of which is open, what would happen?

a)

A. it will overspeed

b)

B. the direction of rotation will reverse

c)

C. the fuse will blow

d)

D. it will not start

71.

The speed of a series motor at no load is

a)

A. 3,600 rpm

b)

B. infinity

c)

C. 300 rpm

d)

D. zero

72.

The armature of a dc shunt motor is laminated to

reduce the

a)

A. inductivity of the armature

b)

B. hysteresis loss

c)

C. mass of the armature

d)

D. eddy-current loss

73.

A dc series motor is started without load the effect is a

rapid increase in

a)

A. current drawn

b)

B. its emf

c)

C. speed

d)

D. torque

74.

The rotation of a direct current motor may be reversed

by

a)

A. reversing the line connection to the motor

b)

B. reversing either the armature or field

c)

C. reversing both the armature and field connection

d)

D. shifting the brushes opposite to the direction in

which the motor is rotating

75.

The DC motor armature whose speed is to be

controlled by Ward-Leonard system is fed by

a)

A. 3-phase motor

b)

B. DC generator

c)

C. Rectifier

d)

D. DC supply in parallel with the rheostat

76.

.REE Board Exam April 1997

Laminated iron is used in AC magnetic circuits for the

following reasons. Which is the best answer?

a)

A. to increase the rate of heat dissipation

b)

B. to make the assembly of the device easier

c)

C. to reduce the permeability

d)

D. to reduce eddy currents

77.

A permanent magnet is one where the material’s

domain remains aligned even after the external

magnetic field is removed. Which of the following

materials is not a permanent magnet?

a)

A. cobalt

b)

B. alnico cobalt hard ferrite silicon iron

c)

C. hard ferrite

d)

D. silicon iron

78.

Electromotive force is usually measured in what unit?

a)

A. Newton

b)

B. Volt

c)

C. Kilogram

d)

D. Ampere

79.

What is the symbol for magnetic flux density?

a)

A. H

b)

B. E

c)

C. B

d)

D. Q

80.

Those magnetic materials are best suited for making

armature and transformer cores which have ____

permeability and ____ hysteresis loss.

a)

A. high, low

b)

B. low, high

c)

C. high, high

d)

D. low, low

81.

Permanent magnets are normally made of

a)

A. cast iron

b)

B. wrought iron

c)

C. aluminum

d)

D. alnico alloys

82.

It is the unconventional unit of mmf in CGS system.

a)

A. unit pole

b)

B. statvolts

c)

C. gilberts

d)

D. ampere turns

83.

An instrument used to measure the intensity of a light

source

a)

A. illumination meter

b)

B. Bensen photometer

c)

C. cygnometer

d)

D. candle meter

84.

The ratio of lumens reaching the work plane divided

by the total lumens generated by the light is

a)

A. room ratio

b)

B. coefficient of utilization

c)

C. illumination factor

d)

D. maintenance factor

85.

Which of the following affect the overall efficiency of a

lighting installation?

a)

A. age of lamp

b)

B. dust and dirt

c)

C. voltage

d)

D. all of these

86.

The rate of passage of radiant energy evaluated by

reference to the luminous sensation produced by it is

called

a)

A. luminous flux

b)

B. luminous radiation

c)

C. luminous plane

d)

D. luminosity

87.

An ac device used to measure the angle between the

voltage and its current.

a)

A. phase angle meter

b)

B. demand meter

c)

C. power factor meter

d)

D. reactive meter

88.

Which of the following instrument is suited for high

frequency measurements?

a)

A. thermocouple

b)

B. dynamocouple

c)

C. moving iron vane

d)

D. oscilloscope

89.

What does a voltmeter indicate?

a)

A. total current

b)

B. coulombs per second

c)

C. potential difference

d)

D. resistance per meter

90.

In addition to supporting the moving coil, the

aluminum bobbin in a permanent moving coil meter

performs the function of one of the following. Which

one is this?

a)

A. reduce the reluctance

b)

B. balance the pointer

c)

C. conducts magnetic flux lines

d)

D. dampens the needle movement

91.

What effect on the pointer operation if any, will

reversing the leads of a DC permanent moving coil

instrument have, when taking the readings?

a)

A. The pointer swings to the opposite direction.

b)

B. It still indicates correctly.

c)

C. It indicates maximum value.

d)

D. The needle oscillates back and forth.

92.

The damping force acts on the moving system of an

indicating instrument only when it is

a)

A. stationary

b)

B. just starting to move

c)

C. moving

d)

D. near its full deflection

93.

Which meter used dual triode tube and requires

external power for operation?

a)

A. TVM

b)

B. FETVM

c)

C. VOM

d)

D. VTVM

94.

A meter device that tests insulation resistance is the

a)

A. megohmmeter

b)

B. transistor checker

c)

C. gauss meter

d)

D. voltage tester

95.

An instrument often used to check the degree of

motor shaft misalignment is the

a)

A. dial indicator

b)

B. clamp-on ammeter

c)

C. voltmeter

d)

D. megohmmeter

96.

An ac device used to measure the angle between the

voltage and its current.

a)

A. phase angle meter

b)

B. demand meter

c)

C. power factor meter

d)

D. reactive meter

97.

An instrument used to measure high resistance as in

the measurement of insulation resistance.

a)

A. ohmmeter

b)

B. multi-tester

c)

C. Wheatstone bridge

d)

D. megger

98.

Which of the following instrument is suited for high

frequency measurements?

a)

A. thermocouple

b)

B. dynamocouple

c)

C. moving iron vane

d)

D. oscilloscope

99.

What does a voltmeter indicate?

a)

A. total current

b)

B. coulombs per second

c)

C. potential difference

d)

D. resistance per meter

100.

What extends the range of a dc ammeter?

a)

A. inductance

b)

B. capacitor

c)

C. current transformer

d)

D. shunt resistance

101.

The ratio of the average load on the plant for the

period of time considered to the aggregate rating of all

the generating equipment

a)

A. capacity factor

b)

B. load factor

c)

C. utilization factor

d)

D. Diversity Factor

102.

Power plant curves or graphs showing the direct

relationships of the peak load and the generated

energy of the said plant is

a)

A. load curve/graph

b)

B. load duration curve

c)

C. modified load curve

d)

D. none of the above

103.

In fission, energy is produced when

a)

A. chemical compound split into its constituents

b)

B. nuclear particles combine

c)

C. nuclear particles split

d)

D. molecules combine

104.

In the list below, which one is not a type of present

day nuclear power plant?

a)

A. boiling water reactor

b)

B. fusion-fission reactor

c)

C. low pressure reactor

d)

D. fast breeder reactor

105.

The energy of present nuclear plants comes from

a)

A. the fusion of radio active materials

b)

B. the friction of high speed electrons against

protons

c)

C. the destruction of very tiny particles released

when atoms split

d)

D. the heat produced by the collision of high speeed

protons

106.

A relay is used to

a)

A. receive a signal and record

b)

B. connect a line to the source

c)

C. protect a circuit

d)

D. relay a message to a remote place

107.

It is the computerized data gathering, monitoring and

switching equipment

a)

A. supervising control

b)

B. remote control

c)

C. SCADA

d)

D. control and monitoring system

108.

Which of the following is not use of the classes of

surge arresters?

a)

A. transmission class

b)

B. distribution class

c)

C. station class

d)

D. intermediate class

109.

Which one of the following is not one of the relays

transmission line?

a)

A. phase comparison relay

b)

B. negative sequence relay

c)

C. distance relay

d)

D. ground relay

110.

What is the meaning of SCADA?

a)

A. System Coordinated Area/Distribution Area

b)

B. System Control and Data Acquisition

c)

C. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

d)

D. Super Computer and Dec Accessibility and Data

Acquisition

111.

Bushings, PT, transformer windings, insulators, these

have something in common

a)

A. current rating

b)

B. insulating coil

c)

C. BIL rating

d)

D. dielectric constant

112.

Which of the following does not belong to the

protection of a transmission line?

a)

A. distance relay

b)

B. recluse relay

c)

C. ground relay

d)

D. reverse power relay

113.

Surge arresters are needed in transmission line for

the following purpose. What is the important?

a)

A. regulate the voltage

b)

B. prevent the lighting from striking the line

c)

C. protect the system from high voltage transients

d)

D. protect the line from short circuit currents

114.

The fault current that exists immediately after the fault

is known as

a)

A. sub-transient current

b)

B. transient current

c)

C. steady state current

d)

D. sustained current

115.

In transmission lines, the most effective protection

against the lighting strike is one of the following.

Which one is this?

a)

A. lighting rods

b)

B. lighting arrester

c)

C. Petersen coils

d)

D. overhead wires

116.

It is a disruptive discharge between electrodes of a

measuring gap, voltage control gap, or protective

device

a)

A. flashover

b)

B. sparkover

c)

C. corona

d)

D. flashover

117.

The cause of nearly all high voltage flashovers in

transmission lines is due to one of the following.

Which one is this?

a)

A. high humidity

b)

B. dust and dirt

c)

C. corona

d)

D. lighting discharges

118.

A circuit breaker that can be closed against a fault and

operated at once, although the solenoid mechanism

may continue through its closing operation, is said to

be

a)

A. fully rated

b)

B. trip free

c)

C. direct current operated

d)

D. selective

119.

When alternating current is passing through aconductor there is a tendency for the current to crowdnear the surface of the conductor. This is known as

a)

A. corona

b)

B. magnetization

c)

C. skin effect

d)

D. resistivity

120.

When a circuit breaker is selected for a particular

application, which one of the particular ratings is

usually considered most important?

a)

A. maximum current rating

b)

B. continuous rating

c)

C. momentary rating

d)

D. interrupting rating

121.

The most economical size of a feeder is that for which

the annual cost of energy lost in the feeder equals the

cost of the interests and depreciation on the capital

cost of the conductor material.

a)

A. Kirchhoff’s law

b)

B. Faraday’s law

c)

C. law of economics

d)

D. Kelvin’s law

122.

The most common tripping time for 60 Hz circuit

breaker is

a)

A. 3 cycles

b)

B. 15 cycles

c)

C. 10 cycles

d)

D. 8 cycles

123.

The main contacts of a circuit breaker are most likely

to be operated by a

a)

A. heavy duty switch

b)

B. vacuum

c)

C. mimic bus

d)

D. solenoid

124.

The current that a breaker must be able to carry

immediately after a fault occurs is known as

a)

A. interrupting current

b)

B. short circuit current

c)

C. exciting current

d)

D. momentary current

125.

The reactance of a rotating machine that determines

the current that circuit breakers will have to open to

clear a fault or short-circuit is

a)

A. subtransient

b)

B. synchronous

c)

C. transient

d)

D. none of these

126.

There is no zero sequence component of the fault

current for

a)

A. line-to-line fault

b)

B. single line-to-ground fault

c)

C. symmetrical fault

d)

D. double line-to-ground fault

127.

Protective relays that operate on the principle that the

current entering and the current leaving a section are

equal normally but unequal when fault develops within

the section

a)

A. differential relay

b)

B. overcurrent relay

c)

C. directional relay

d)

D. none of these

128.

The arcing contact on a circuit breaker are used to

a)

A. reduce the heating of the trip coil

b)

B. ensure that a closed circuit is made

c)

C. prevent damage to the main contact

d)

D. increase the magnetic field of the blow out coil