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CLIN286 Review

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A clear red colony with a black center on the XLD agar is most likely:

a)

E.coli

b)

Shigella

c)

Salmonella

d)

Yersinia

2.

Biological safety cabinets use this type of filter to remove aerosols?

a)

bag filters

b)

fiberglass filters

c)

HEPA filters

d)

Electrostatic filters

3.

Eye wash stations should be able to provide continuous water flow for how long?

a)

10 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

15 minutes

4.

Why are vancomycin, colistin and nystatin added to culture media?

a)

To enhannce growth of N.gonorrhoeae

b)

To provide a capnophilic environment

c)

To inhibit normal genital flora

d)

To increase sensitivity of the oxidase test

5.

Which of the following may be used to differentiate Salmonella species from Shigella species?

a)

Colony morphology on Blood agar

b)

Microscopic morphology in Gram stain

c)

Presence of "H" antigens

d)

Glucose fermentation

6.

Antimicrobial resistance resulting from normal genetic, or physiologic state of a microorganism is ________ resistance.

a)

intrinsic

b)

inherent

c)

micro-organism mediated

d)

clinical

7.

HUS is a condition that can be caused by what organism?

a)

Shigella sp.

b)

E.coli 0157:H7

c)

Campylobacter sp.

d)

Plesiomonas sp.

8.

The organism most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis is?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

B-hemolytic streptococcus

d)

A-hemolytic streptococcus

9.

Beta-lactams would not be effective in treating which of the following?

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c)

Haemophilus influenzae

d)

Pasteurella multocida

10.

One way to differentiate Listeria or Corynebacterium from Bacillus spp. is:

a)

catalase reaction

b)

motility

c)

spore formation

d)

hemolysis

11.

A gram positive coccus that is catalase positive, coagulase negative, and resistant to novobiocin is:

a)

S. aureus

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. saprophyticus

d)

S. lugdunensis

12.

This organism will not grow on sheep blood agar without the addition of vitamin B6:

a)

Abiotrophia

b)

E. faecalis

c)

S. mutans

d)

Kingella

13.

Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?

a)

Burkholderia ralstonia

b)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

c)

Burkholderia cepacia

d)

Burkholderia mallei

14.

The acid fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain:

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Mycolic acid

c)

Teichoic acids

d)

Disaccharide pentapeptide subunits

15.

CAMP factor is produced by?

a)

Enterococcus faecalis

b)

Streptococcus agalactiae

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

16.

Which gram negative anaerobe is sensitive to vancomycin?

a)

Prevotella sp.

b)

Bacteroides sp.

c)

Fusobacterium sp.

d)

Porphyromonas sp.

17.

What is the gram stain of an organism that is nagler test positive ,and reverse camp positive?

a)

Gram negative bacilli

b)

Gram positive bacilli

c)

Gram positive bacilli (large)

d)

Gram negative coccobacilli

18.

Nutritionally variant Streptococci require what ingredient not found in most conventional media?

a)

Naladixic acid

b)

NAD

c)

egg

d)

Vitamin B6

19.

Bacitracin, PYR, CAMP factor, and hippurate are tests most likely performed on a(n)____________Streptococcus.

a)

Alpha hemolytic

b)

Beta hemolytic

c)

nonhemolytic

d)

gamma hemolytic

20.

SPS susceptibility may be used to differentiate species with this gram stain:

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative coccobacilli

c)

Gram positive bacilli

d)

Gram negative cocci

21.

The test that can differentiate P. mirabilis from P. vulgaris is:

a)

PYR

b)

Indole

c)

Oxidase

d)

Lysine Decarboxylase

22.

The most common form of gonococcal infection in neonates is:

a)

Impetigo

b)

Urethritis

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Pharyngitis

23.

Bacteria that grow at temperatures as high as 50-55 Celsius are known as:

a)

Psychrophiles

b)

Cryophil

c)

Mesophiles

d)

Thermophiles

24.

A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is:

a)

Safranin

b)

Grams decolorizer

c)

Crystal violet

d)

Grams iodine

25.

One test used to differentiate S. aureus from S. lugdenensis is:

a)

PYR

b)

Catalase

c)

Novobiocin

d)

Bacitracin

26.

What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces complete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?

a)

Beta

b)

Alpha

c)

Gamma

d)

Kappa

27.

Which of the following specimens requires a gram stain?

a)

Vaginal-rectal for Grp.B Streptococcus

b)

Skin Swab

c)

urine

d)

stool

28.

Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance?

a)

Plasmid

b)

Pilus

c)

Capsule

d)

Plasma membrane

29.

The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the:

a)

Safranin

b)

Crystal violet

c)

Grams decolorizer

d)

Grams iodine

30.

What is the maximum length of time that un-preserved urine can be refrigerated before processing?

a)

2 Hours

b)

4 Hours

c)

8 Hours

d)

24 Hours

31.

Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to UTI’s?

a)

E. coli

b)

Pseudomonas

c)

Klebsiella

d)

Haemophilus

32.

An organism described as oxidase positive, Alk/NC on TSI media, and produces a bright bluish green pigment on MH.

a)

Ralstonia pickettii

b)

Burkholderia mallei

c)

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

d)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

33.

The Gram stain from a Sputum sample shows abundant PMN's and no Squamous epithelial cells how should you proceed ?

a)

Reject

b)

Process

c)

re-make gram stain

d)

re-examine slide

34.

What ingredient must be present in the medium used to test for indole production?

a)

Sodium thiosulfate

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Diacetyl

d)

Phenylalanine

35.

Salmonella differs from Shigella in which of the following properties?

a)

oxidase

b)

indole

c)

motility

d)

lysine decarboxylase

36.

Which of the following media components would be considered Selective/Inhibitory ?

a)

Crystal violet

b)

Glucose

c)

IsoVitalex

d)

Vitamin K

37.

Looking at the following picture, what two characteristics best describe this organism?

a)

beta hemolytic, optochin susceptible

b)

alpha hemolytic, bile solubility negative

c)

gamma hemolytic, optochin resistant

d)

alpha hemolytic, bile solubility positive

38.

Which of the following media's is considered enriched?

a)

Chocolate

b)

Thayer-Martin (TM)

c)

Laked Kanamycin Vancomycin (LKV)

d)

Bile esculin

39.

What type of Hemolysis is being displayed in the picture below?

a)

α

b)

γ

c)

β

d)

Ω

40.

Which test is being displayed in the picture below?

a)

Oxidase

b)

PYR

c)

Indole

d)

Catalase

41.

How would you interpret the TSI results: Alkaline slant/Acid butt?

a)

Glucose, lactose and/ or sucrose fermented.

b)

Glucose, lactose and/ or sucrose fermented.

c)

Glucose only fermented.

d)

Glucose , lactose and/or sucrose not fermented.

42.

MacConkey agar showing bacterial growth as colorless colonies, what can you know about the bacteria growing?

a)

Gram-positive lactose fermenter

b)

Gram-negative non-lactose fermenter

c)

Gram-negative lactose fermenter

d)

Gram-positive non-lactose fermenter

43.

Which organism is the most commonly isolated as VRE?

a)

Enterococcus faecalis

b)

Enterococcus gallinarium

c)

Enterococcus faecium

d)

Enterococcus avium

44.

Which terms describes an organism that requires an atmosphere containing CO2 for growth?

a)

capnophile

b)

anaerobe

c)

aerobe

d)

microaerophilic

45.

The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) result recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined as the:

a)

maximum concentration of antimicrobial that should be used .

b)

lowest antimicrobial concentration that inhibits visible bacterial growth.

c)

minimum concentration of antimicrobial that should be used.

d)

highest antimicrobial concentration that inhibits visible bacterial growth.

46.

When measuring zones of inhibition on translucent media _______ light should be used.

a)

transmitted

b)

UV

c)

reflected

d)

Fluorescent

47.

The Breakpoint is the highest plasma concentration of the drug that can safely be achieved in the patient .

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following species of Candida produces the characteristic thick walled chlamydospores

a)

C. albicans 

b)

C. tropicalis

c)

C. krusei

d)

C. parakru

49.

You receive a swab from a decubitus ulcer how do you proceed with the specimen?

a)

Process

b)

Reject

c)

Centrifuge

d)

Refrigerate

50.

What is the antibiotic of choice for Anaerobic infections?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Linezolid

51.

The fluorochrome stain used to study a fungus is:

a)

Auramine rhodamine

b)

Acridine orange

c)

Calcofluor white

d)

Methylene Blue

52.

Dermatophytes are fungi which:

a)

Produce morphologically identical macroconidia in all genra

b)

Live in superficial keratinized areas of the body: skin, hair and nails

c)

Require complex media for growth

d)

Cause systemic infections

53.

Which organism may be difficult to isolate in culture due to autolysis?

a)

Streptococcus sanguis

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Streptococcus anginosus

d)

Streptococcus agalactiae

54.

Which of the following would be considered a Bioterror organism?

a)

Neisseria meningitidis

b)

Burkholderia cepacia

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Francisella tularensis

55.

Another test that could identify an organism that is resistant to Kanamycin, Vancomycin and Colistin is:

a)

Indole

b)

Growth on 20% bile

c)

Catalase

d)

reverse camp