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IPI102 - Microeconomics (Mid-term exam)

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 2hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The decrease in total surplus that results from a market distortion, such as a tax, is called disequilibrium.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Suppose the Thai government decided to imposed a tax on the sellers of cigarettes. Due to the tax, consumers buy fewer cigarettes and producers sell fewer cigarettes resulting in a loss of producer surplus and a gain in consumer surplus called tax revenue.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

When a good is taxed, only buyers are made worse off, because sellers pass along the tax to buyers in the form of higher prices.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

If the labor supply curve is highly inelastic, a tax on labor does not greatly distort market outcomes.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Because many cigarette smokers consider cigarettes to be a necessity, the sellers are likely to bear a smaller share of the tax burden than the buyers.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

When world price of product is lower than domestic price, domestic country become the buyer (importer) of the product from the world.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

When Tanzania allows trade and becomes an exporter of coconuts, price paid by domestic consumers decreases and consumers are better off.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

When countries import the goods from the world, trade raises the economic wellbeing of a nation where gains from producer surplus exceeded the losses from consumer surplus.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Tariff distorts incentives and pushes the allocation of scarce resources away from the optimum leading to inefficiencies from dead weight loss.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Infant industry argument and transfer of technological advances are arguments for trade.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When the nation of Aissur allows trade and becomes an importer of fruits from the world,

a)

price received by domestic producers decreases and producers are worse off.

b)

price paid by domestic consumers increases and consumers are worse off.

c)

price paid by domestic consumers decreases and consumers are better off.

d)

losses of domestic consumers exceed the gains of producers of the good.

12.

Which of the following is not an argument for trade?

a)

Trade restrictions can be useful when we bargain with our trading partners.

b)

Trade increases variety of goods coming from different countries.

c)

Trade gives firms access to larger world markets and allows them to realize economies of scale

d)

Opening up trade fosters competition and gives the invisible hand a better chance to work

13.

3. Country Bossawana is an importer of energy drinks but recently government decided to impose an import tariff on energy drink products to induce domestic production. The area of government revenue is represented by area __________, and total welfare __________.

a)

H + I + J + K ; – H – K

b)

b. I + J ; – H – K

c)

C+ H + I + J + K ; - H – K

d)

I + J ; +H + K

14.

Country Bara is an exporter of exotic quilts with the situation of the market as in the following graph. After trade

a)

Bara’s welfare worsen due loss from trade of G area

b)

Bara’s welfare improved due gains from trade of G area

c)

Bara’s welfare worsen due loss from trade of B + D + G area

d)

Bara’s welfare improved due gains from trade of B + D + G area

15.

Country Mais is an exporter of eggs to the world. Referring to the graph below, the price after trade is __________ causing consumer surplus to ___________ producer surplus to _________.

a)

$5 ; increase by B + E area ; decrease by B + E + G

b)

$7 ; reduce by B + E area ; increase by B + E + G

c)

$5 ; reduce by B + E + G area ; increase by B + E

d)

$7 ; reduce by B + E + G area ; increase by B + E

16.

To economists, a good environmental policy begins by acknowledging ______.

a)

the value of the Coase theorem.

b)

that people face trade-offs.

c)

that trade can make everyone better off.

d)

the distortion created by corrective taxes.

17.

This graph shows the market for pollution permits. The equilibrium permit price is ________

a)

$100.

b)

$400.

c)

$200.

d)

$50.

18.

This graph represents the automotive industry. Without government intervention, the equilibrium quantity is ______. The socially optimal quantity is ______. Government can internalized the externality by ________.

a)

42 units; 35 units ; increasing tax

b)

35 units; 42 units; increasing tax

c)

42 units; 35 units ; increasing subsidy

d)

35 units; 42 units ; increasing subsidy

19.

Government tries to measure the benefit of increasing education. The socially-optimal quantity of output in this market is ___________ and government can internalized the externality by ___________ .

a)

6 units; government tax

b)

6 units; government subsidy

c)

10 units; government tax

d)

10 units; government subsidy

20.

A tax on a good with a negative externality can internalize the externality by

a)

subtracting the external cost from the social cost so the market accounts for the private cost.

b)

adding the external cost to the private cost so the market accounts for the social cost.

c)

subtracting the social cost from the private cost so the market accounts for the external cost.

d)

adding the social cost to the private cost so the market accounts for the external cost.

21.

When the government auctions off the right to emit a specific quantity of pollution, a market is created for_____

a)

Coase's theorem.

b)

patents.

c)

tradable pollution permits.

d)

corrective taxes.

22.

A good is excludable if one person's use diminishes other peoples' use.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Cable TV and national defense is an example of goods excludable and not rival in consumption.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Both public goods and common resources are not excludable, but only public goods are not rival in consumption.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

National defense is often used as an example of a public good because providing it to one person does not generally diminish the nation's ability to provide it to another.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Free riding is least likely to occur with common resources.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Suppose that the government has found that a resource that is nonexcludable but rival in consumption is being overused. Which of the following represents all of the solutions that the government could likely use to successfully reduce the overuse of this resource?

a)

Taxing, setting quantity restrictions on, and encouraging voluntary reductions in the use of the resource

b)

Taxing the use of the resource

c)

Taxing or setting quantity restrictions on the use of the resource or selling the resource to a private entity

d)

Taxing or setting quantity restrictions on the use of the resource

28.

A community soccer field that anyone can currently use at any time has become degraded from overuse. Which of the following solutions would be an example of the community solving the problem by taxing the use of a common resource?

a)

Posting signs requesting that the field not be used in the rain

b)

Requiring that games be held only every second day

c)

Charging a fee for use of the soccer field, and letting the fee restrict how much it was used.

d)

Leasing the soccer field on a long-term basis to a youth soccer association, which could set use for the field and would be responsible for maintenance.

29.

Suppose that the town of Winterville is considering hiring an additional lifeguard. The expected benefit is estimated to be worth $2 for each of Winterville's 12,000 residents. The town should hire the lifeguard

a)

if the cost of the new lifeguard is less than $24,000.

b)

if the cost of the new lifeguard is greater than $24,000.

c)

at any cost because any reduction in risk of drowning is priceless.

d)

under no circumstances because the costs exceed the benefits.

30.

If a company released the patents on some of its inventions, allowing anyone to use them without charge, the patented knowledge would go from being

a)

a public good to a common resource.

b)

a common resource to a private good.

c)

a club good to a public good.

d)

a private good to a club good.

31.

Which of the following is a reason why government agencies subsidize basic research?

a)

unpatentable research receives too little resources from the private market.

b)

the social benefit of additional knowledge is perceived to be less than the cost of the subsidies.

c)

the government wants to attract the brightest researchers away from private research firms.

d)

the patents on basic research is a source of revenue for government agencies.

32.

If it were built to protect the whole world, an asteroid collision protection system would be an example of a ......

a)

global good.

b)

public good.

c)

common resource.

d)

club good.

33.

What is the term for a price control that legally established maximum price that can be charged for a good?

a)

Tariff

b)

Price ceiling

c)

Equilibrium price

d)

Price floor

34.

Consider the market for apples, where the graph below shows the supply and demand for apples. The current equilibrium market price and quantity are $4 per kg. and 500 units respectively.


Suppose the government decides to impose a price floor of $3 on the market for apples. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

There would be a shortage of apples in the market.

b)

There would be a surplus of apples in the market.

c)

There would be no effect on the equilibrium price and quantity.

d)

All of the above are incorrect.

35.

Consider the market for apples, where the graph below shows the supply and demand for apples. The current equilibrium market price and quantity are $4 per kg. and 500 units respectively.


If instead the government imposes a price floor higher than $4, which of the following statements is true?

a)

There would be a shortage of apples in the market.

b)

There would be a surplus of apples in the market.

c)

There would be no effect on the equilibrium price and quantity.

d)

All of the above are incorrect.

36.

The supply-demand graph show here includes areas of surplus labeled with the letter.


What area(s) in this graph represent consumer surplus at the equilibrium price (P*) and equilibrium quantity (Q*)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

A+B

d)

A+B+C+E

37.

The supply-demand graph show here includes areas of surplus labeled with the letter.


What area(s) in this graph represent producer surplus at the equilibrium price (P*) and equilibrium quantity (Q*)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

A+B

d)

A+B+C+E

38.

A tax on a good causes the equilibrium quantity to fall, whether the tax is imposed on buyers or sellers.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The tax burden is related to the price elasticity of supply and demand.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

An allocation of resources is always efficient if consumer surplus is greater than producer surplus.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

An allocation of resources is always efficient if producer surplus is greater than consumer surplus.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Both perfectly competitive markets and central planner are usually good ways to allocate resources efficiently.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What is the term for a price control that legally established minimum price that can be charged for a good?

a)

Tariff

b)

Price ceiling

c)

Equilibrium price

d)

Price floor

44.

The graph shown represents a market in which a per unit tax has been imposed. Before tax, the equilibrium market price and quantity are $10 and 500 units respectively. What is the dollar amount of the tax, and who has the tax been imposed on?

a)

$1.5 on buyers.

b)

$1.5 on seller.

c)

$0.5 on buyers.

d)

$1 on seller.

45.

The difference between the maximum amount a person is willing to pay for a good and its current market price is known as.......

a)

producer surplus.

b)

profit.

c)

consumer surplus.

d)

total surplus.

46.

The difference between the amount the amount a seller is paid for a good and the seller’s cost is known as.............

a)

producer surplus.

b)

profit.

c)

consumer surplus.

d)

total surplus.

47.

The supply-demand graph show here includes areas of surplus labeled with the letter.


What area(s) in this graph represent total surplus at the equilibrium price (P*) and equilibrium quantity (Q*)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

A+B

d)

A+B+C+E

48.

Binding price ceilings and shortages may lead to inefficiency in the form of the black market.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

In order to ensure higher wages and a good standard of living for the workers, government may use price ceiling policy by setting minimum wage.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

When a per unit tax is imposed on a market, the price that buyers pay will always increase by the amount of the tax.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Market efficiency means the goods are being produced by the sellers with lowest cost and consumed by the buyers who value them most highly.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

A competitive market is the most efficient way to distribute goods and services. Government should not intervene eventhough market failure occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

When a person goes to the job market, he has three choices of job offer; the first job offers a salary of 40,000 baht, the second one offer 30,000 baht, and the third one offers 20,000 baht. Assuming that other factors are equal if this person chooses the job with the highest salary, how much is his opportunity cost of going for this choice?

a)

30,000 baht

b)

20,000 baht

c)

40,000 baht

d)

50,000 baht

54.

What constitute the basic functions of the economy?

a)

Determine the kind of goods and services to produce

b)

Determine the resources that are to be allocated to produce goods and services

c)

Divide goods and services among those who are to enjoy them

d)

All of the answers here are correct

55.

An economy that allocates resources through the decentralized decisions of many firms and individuals as they interact in markets for goods and services is called …………

a)

market economy

b)

socialist economy

c)

communist economy

d)

welfare economy

56.

Adam Smith once mentioned that households and firms are guided by an “invisible hand” in their transactions. What is most likely to define the invisible hand in Adam Smith’s idea?

a)

Hands of God.

b)

Government’s economic policy.

c)

Price mechanism

d)

Foreign company

57.

A graph that shows the combinations of output that the economy can produce given the available factors of production and the available production technology is called …………….

a)

circular-flow diagram

b)

production possibilities frontier

c)

profitability frontier

d)

production function

58.

What of the following is not the cause of market failures?

a)

Incomplete information

b)

Asymmetric information

c)

Government’s market intervention

d)

Market power

59.

Economists believe that people always face tradeoffs. That is, to get one thing, we usually have to give up another thing.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Rational economic actors always compare the costs and benefits of alternative choices when making decision.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Market is always a perfect means to coordinate demand and supply, because it is based on price mechanism and thus it has no failure.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Economists generally agree that the government has to get involved in the economy, basically to prevent or remedy the market failures.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

In economics, the belief that “trade can make every country better off” is based on the notion that no country is sufficient in itself, meaning that no country can produce all goods and services at the same level of productivity.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The Phillips Curve thesis illustrates that when inflation decreases, unemployment tends to decreases accordingly.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

If there are many buyers and many sellers so that each has a negligible impact on the market price, the market is said to be ………………

a)

a competitive market

b)

a monopolistic market

c)

an oligopolistic market

d)

a semi-monopolistic market

66.

What is correct about an oligopolistic market?

a)

A market with only one seller.

b)

A market with many sellers each offering similar products

c)

A market with only a few sellers each one offering slightly different products

d)

No correct answer

67.

What is CORRECT about demand?

a)

It consists of the buyer’s purchasing power and bargaining power

b)

It consist of the buyer’s purchasing power and willingness to pay

c)

It consists of the buyer’s willingness to bargain and to choose the best product/service

d)

It is assumed to increase with the price of a product/service

68.

A situation in which supply and demand have been brought into balance is called ………………..

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Equality

c)

Market efficiency

d)

Market optimality

69.

What is likely to happen if the price of the good is set below market equilibrium price?

a)

Surplus of the good

b)

Shortage of the good

c)

New market equilibrium

d)

Sellers of the good will increase their supply

70.

What is likely to happen if the price of the good is set above market equilibrium price?

a)

Surplus of the good

b)

Shortage of the good

c)

New market equilibrium

d)

Buyers of the good will increase their purchase

71.

The demand curve shows the relationship between price and quantity demanded.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The law of demand claims that, other things equal, the quantity demanded of a good falls when the price of the good falls.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The law of supply claims that, other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good rises when the price of the good falls.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Exogenous variables can be understood as external factors that affect a shift in demand curve resulting in a change in the relationship between price and quantity demanded.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

What is the price elasticity of market demand for ice cream given that:

- The price of ice cream increases from 2 USD to 3 USD

- The quantity demanded for decreases 20 to 10

a)

about 0.60

b)

about 1.67

c)

about 3.50

d)

about 2.50

76.

What does the graph show?

a)

Demand elasticity > 1

b)

Demand elasticity = 1

c)

Demand elasticity < 1

d)

Demand elasticity = 0

77.

What is the price elasticity of demand for this graph?

a)

2

b)

0.5

c)

1.5

d)

2.5

78.

Suppose that a demand curve for good A is inelastic and the price of good A increases, what will likely to happen to the total revenue in a market for good A?

a)

An increase in total revenue

b)

A decrease in total revenue

c)

No change in total revenue

d)

It is impossible to determine because there is no relationship between elasticity of demand and total revenue

79.

What is the price elasticity of supply for this graph?

a)

1

b)

0.5

c)

2

d)

2.5

80.

What does this graph show?

a)

Price elasticity of supply < 1

b)

Price elasticity of supply > 1

c)

Price elasticity of supply < 0

d)

Price elasticity of supply = 1

81.

Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how much the quantity demanded of a good responds to a change in the price of that good. It can be calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

The good with close substitutes tend to have more price elasticity of demand that with the good with no substitutes.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

In the long term, the price elasticity of demand for oil tends to be more elastic than in the short term.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

If the price elasticity of demand is less than one, then a small increase in price of the good will lead to a large decrease in the quantity demanded for that good.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

When the cost of transaction is borne by the society more than that is borne by transaction parties, we call it positive externalities.

a)

True

b)

False