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ATLAS Neuro PR_Y2

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most common cause of primary headache?

a)

Migraine

b)

Tension-type headache

c)

Psychological causes

d)

Idiopathic

2.

Most important element in the diagnosis of brain tumors.

a)

Routine laboratory tests are required.

b)

Neuroimaging is the only test necessary to diagnose brain tumors.

c)

Additional tests such as cerebral angiogram, EEG, or LP may be helpful.

d)

Two of the above.

e)

All of the above.

3.

All of the following are pain-producing structures of the brain, except for?

a)

Scalp

b)

Meningeal arteries

c)

Brain parenchyma

d)

Falx cerebri

e)

Dural sinuses

4.

Which of the following is an established risk factor for development of primary CNS tumors?

a)

Exposure to ionizing radiation

b)

Immunosuppression

c)

Exposure to environmental risk factors

d)

Two of the above.

e)

All of the above.

5.

Which of the following neurologic reflex PE is performed to check primarily S1 nerve root?

a)

Brachioradialis Reflex

b)

Triceps Reflex

c)

Knee Jerk Reflex

d)

Achilles Reflex

6.

This motor manifestation of PD decreases the speed and coordination of facial muscles. What could it be?

a)

Athetosis

b)

Hypophonia

c)

Rigidity

d)

Hypomimia

7.

Patient MF presents diplopia and impaired downgaze. His doctor is considering atypical parkinsonism as his diagnosis. What could that be?

a)

Dementia with Lewy bodies

b)

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

c)

Multiple System Atrophy

d)

Corticobasal Degeneration

8.

A Familial Tumor Syndrome presenting with hemangioblastomas in the cerebellum & retina; cysts involving the pancreas, liver & kidneys; renal carcinomas, & pheochromocytomas.

a)

Neurofibromatoses

b)

Schwannomatosis

c)

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease

d)

Tuberous Sclerosis Complex

9.

Which is not a characteristic of febrile seizures?

a)

Long post-ictal period

b)

Lasts for less than 15 mins

c)

May or may not recur within 24 hrs

d)

Increased risk due to family history of febrile seizures

10.

Most frequent cancer that metastasizes to the nervous system, specifically the leptomeninges.

a)

Sarcoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Breast

d)

Lung

e)

Melanoma

11.

Least common cause of secondary headache.

a)

Systemic infection

b)

Brain tumor

c)

Head injury

d)

Vascular disorders

12.

Chemotherapeutic agent that blocks VEGF.

a)

Atezoizumab

b)

Bevacizumab

c)

Carmustine

d)

Dexamethasone

13.

Which of the following belong/s to the most common group of primary brain tumors?

a)

Astrocytomas

b)

Oligodendrogliomas

c)

Ependymomas

d)

All of the above.

e)

None of the above.

14.

Most common accompanying symptom of migraine.

a)

Photophobia

b)

Lightheadedness

c)

Nausea

d)

Visual disturbance

15.

Which of the following muscle tone disorders is described as the sudden change in tone and the inability to relax the muscles at the onset of cognitive impairment?

a)

Paratonia

b)

Spasticity

c)

Flaccidity

d)

Rigidity

16.

Type of brain herniation with accompanying secondary hemorrhagic lesions in the midbrain & pons, termed Duret hemorrhage

a)

Subfalcine herniation

b)

Tonsillar herniation

c)

Transtentorial herniation

d)

Cingulate herniation

17.

Type of herniation that is life-threatening, causing brainstem compression.

a)

Subfalcine herniation

b)

Tonsillar herniation

c)

Transtentorial herniation

d)

Cingulate herniation

18.

Not true about seizures.

a)

Common in metastatic brain tumors

b)

All seizures arising from brain tumors have a focal onset

c)

Presents in 90% of patients with low-grade glioma

d)

None of the above. All are true.

19.

The triad symptoms for acute meningitis does not include which of the ff:

a)

Fever

b)

Kernig sign

c)

Headache

d)

Nuchal rigidity

20.

This type of secondary headache presents with stiff neck & fever.

a)

Brain tumor

b)

Intracranial hemorrhage

c)

Meningitis

d)

Temporal arteritis

21.

Most common cause of early onset meningitis in children:

a)

E. coli

b)

Group B Streptococcus (GBS)

c)

Striamonositogenesis

d)

Pseudomonas

e)

None of the above

22.

Meningitis causes an increase in intracranial pressure. In response to this, a physiological response called Cushing reflex occurs. How is this physiological response manifested?

a)

Widened pulse pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea

b)

Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, hypertension

c)

Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations

d)

Widened pulse pressure, tachycardia, irregular respirations

23.

Who among the following patients will most likely have a recurrence of febrile seizure?

a)

2 y/o female with 12-hr fever. Current temp: 38C

b)

2 y/o male with 24-hr fever. Current temp: 38C

c)

8 month-old male with 12-hr fever. Current temp: 38C

d)

8 month-old male with 24-hr fever. Current temp: 38C

24.

The mutation of the HTT gene leads to an abnormal expansion of polyglutamine in the HTT protein. What trinucleotide repeats is the case?

a)

CAG

b)

CAT

c)

CCG

d)

CGT

e)

CGC

25.

Medulloblastoma, a malignant embryonal tumor, occurs exclusively in the cerebellum. The classic subtype forms what structures microscopically?

a)

Homer Wright rosettes

b)

Perivascular pseudorosettes

c)

Psammoma bodies

d)

Rosenthal fibers

26.

Neuroimaging techniques recommended for a relatively healthy pediatric patient after his first febrile seizure:

a)

CT Scan

b)

MRI

c)

EEG

d)

Two of the options.

e)

None of the options.

27.

Which antibiotic should not be given to neonates due to risk of kernicterus?

a)

Cefexime

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Rifampin

d)

Diazepam

28.

Probable prognosis of febrile seizure patients includes:

a)

Low morbidity and mortality

b)

Increased risk in learning difficulties

c)

High chance of seizure recurrence

d)

Outgrown by age 3

29.

Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

a)

Berry aneurysm

b)

Saccular aneurysm

c)

Arteriovenous malformation

d)

Head trauma

30.

The CSF flows through all ventricles. To get to the fourth ventricle from the third ventricle, it has to flow in which of the ff. structures:

a)

Cerebral aqueduct

b)

Subarachnoid space

c)

Interventricular foramina

d)

Median aperture

e)

Lateral aperture

31.

Toxicity of glucocorticoids, except:

a)

Somnolence

b)

Weight gain

c)

DM

d)

Personality change

e)

None. All are true.

32.

Which of the following correctly describes seizures:

a)

Can happen even without convulsions

b)

Frequently happens in children during school time

c)

Occurs in resting period

d)

Two of the options

e)

All of the options.

33.

Which shows a correct relationship of protein to neurodegenerative disease?

a)

α-synuclein: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

b)

tau: Corticobasal degeneration

c)

FUS: Progressive supranuclear palsy

d)

TPD-43: Multiple system atrophy

e)

tau: Spinal bulbar muscle atrophy

34.

What poses risk/s for Alzheimer’s Disease?

a)

increased homocysteine levels

b)

presence of APOE e4 allele

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Only two of the options

e)

All of the above

35.

A patient who is having difficulty speaking, eyes does not respond to speech and pain, and limbs remain flaccid has a Glasgow score of 5 is categorized as:

a)

Best response

b)

Mild Head Injury

c)

Comatosed

d)

Unresponsive

36.

A patient reported experiencing brief shock-like muscular contractions. He also informed you that he was awake and conscious during the seizure. What type of generalized seizure was experienced by the patient?

a)

Tonic

b)

Clonic

c)

Myoclonic

d)

Atonic

37.

Which of the following may describe grand mal seizures:

a)

Sustained muscle contraction

b)

Repetitive muscle contractions

c)

May occur even without loss of postural control

d)

Two of the options.

e)

All of the options.

38.

What innervates the triceps reflex?

a)

C5-C6

b)

C7-C8

c)

C5-C7

d)

C4-C6

39.

Seizure may be caused by a variety of factors and these causes may also differ per age group. Which of the ff. causes of seizure is observed at any age group?

a)

Cerebrovascular disease

b)

Brain tumor

c)

Metabolic disturbances

d)

CNS infection

40.

What is the core feature of Parkinson’s Disease?

a)

Tremor

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Rigidity

d)

Micrographia

41.

Which of the following factors poses the highest risk of occurrence of a subsequent epilepsy after a febrile seizure?

a)

Family history of epilepsy

b)

Neurodevelopmental abnormalities

c)

Fever less than an hour before febrile seizure

d)

Simple febrile seizure

42.

The primary feature of Huntington’s disease is the degeneration of neurons in the:

a)

Putamen

b)

Caudate

c)

Cerebral Cortex

d)

Only two of the options

e)

All of the above

43.

Visual field deficit is a symptom of?

a)

High-grade glioma

b)

Low-grade glioma

c)

Meningioma

d)

Metastatic brain tumor

44.

The accumulation of α-synuclein protein in the substantia nigra is secondary to the following genetic predisposition except:

a)

APOE4 mutation

b)

LRRK2 mutation

c)

SNCA mutation

d)

PINK1 mutation

45.

Of the following causes of Dementia, which is considered to be a reversible cause?

a)

Leukoencephalitis

b)

Normal-pressure hydrocephalus

c)

Frontotemporal Dementia

d)

Dementia with Lewy Bodies

46.

Which cholinesterase inhibitor used in AD is a competitive inhibitor?

a)

Donepezil

b)

Rivastigmine

c)

Galantamine

d)

Tacrine

47.

The following are features of AD, EXCEPT:

a)

Neuritic plaques

b)

Neurofibrillary tangles

c)

Granulovacuolar degeneration of hippocampal pyramidal cells

d)

Neuronal loss in Nucleus Basalis of Myenert

e)

None of the above.

48.

Chemotherapy that blocks a protein, decreasing blood supply to the tumor and slowing tumor growth.

a)

Antiangiogenic agent

b)

Targeted therapy

c)

Nitrosoureas

d)

Immunomodulator

49.

The autosomal dominant form of the disease is linked to which gene that lead/s to the increased generation of beta-amyloid by interfering with the processing of gamma-secretase?

a)

APP

b)

PSEN1

c)

PSEN2

d)

Only two of the options

e)

All of the above

50.

All of the following is true about Alzheimer’s Disease except:

a)

Loss of episodic memory comes first before progressive dementia

b)

Low educational attainment is a risk factor

c)

It is an autosomal recessive inheritance

d)

Aluminum, mercury, and viruses are some of the environmental factors.

e)

None of the above.

51.

An 80-year-old patient presents concerns with his memory. The patient reports having difficulty remembering to do various daily tasks. He has been going to the same church for over 50 years and is troubled by the fact he got lost driving back home after church twice now. Which of the following is true regarding the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

a)

Most patients develop symptoms by age 50

b)

Neuritic plaques are specific for this disease

c)

Patients with Down syndrome are at higher risk for this disease

d)

Neuritic plaques are most commonly seen in the occipital lobe

52.

Which of the following drugs are given together with Levodopa to prevent the action of aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase?

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Entacapone

c)

Carbidopa

d)

Selegiline

53.

What is considered to be the prodrome of Alzheimer's Disease?

a)

Mild cognitive impairment interfering daily activities

b)

Increased tau and reduced amyloidꞵ42

c)

Memory loss

d)

Presence of Apoε4 gene

54.

Tyrosine is the precursor of what neurotransmitter/s?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Only two of the options

e)

All of the above

55.

This centrally acting cholinergic drug is given to PD patients with severe tremor. What is it?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Benztropine

c)

Stalevo

d)

Sinemet

56.

What drug should be used to inhibit the central decarboxylase?

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Entacapone

c)

Carbidopa

d)

Selegiline

e)

None of the above

57.

All of the following is true about Parkinson’s Disease except:

a)

Aging dopamine cells switch from sodium to calcium pacing.

b)

The major input region is the striatum which is GABAergic to the thalamus and brainstem.

c)

Dopamine denervation reduces the activation of cortical systems.

d)

Non-dopaminergic degeneration precedes the onset of its motor features.

e)

None of the above

58.

What blocks the central metabolism of dopamine?

a)

Selegiline

b)

Rasagiline

c)

LabanLeni

d)

Only two of the options

e)

All of the above

59.

Which neurodegenerative disease forms pick bodies due to tau protein aggregation in neurons?

a)

Prion Disease

b)

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

c)

Frontotemporal lobe degeneration

d)

Huntington Disease