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Bio Q1 Final

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The pH scale is a range from:
a)
1-7
b)
0-14
c)
1-5
d)
1-20
2.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
3.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
4.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

5.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

6.

Water has a neutral pH because

a)

it has more H+ ions than OH-

b)

it has more OH- ions than H+

c)

it does not produce any ions

d)

it has an equal amount of H+ and OH- in solution

7.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if H ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
8.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
9.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
10.

Bright Red pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

11.

Dark blue pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

12.
A  pH and a pOH will add up to:
a)
0
b)
7
c)
14
d)
1.0 x 10-14
13.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the Hydronium (H+) concentration?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

14.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the pH?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

15.

According to the video, H+ and H3O+ are symbols essentially representing the same idea.

a)

True

b)

False

16.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
17.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
18.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
19.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
20.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
21.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

22.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

23.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
24.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
25.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

26.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

28.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

29.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

30.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
31.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
32.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 
33.

Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies (volume)?

a)

mL

b)

grams

c)

cm3

d)

Both mL and cm3

34.

Density =

a)

Mass x Volume

b)

Volume x Mass

c)

Mass / Volume

d)

Volume / Mass

35.
What is the density of water?
a)
1 mL
b)
1 gram
c)
1 g/cm3
d)
All of the above
36.

When a metal mailbox is rusting because of the weather, the rust is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

magnetism

d)

texture

37.

When a hammer breaks a large rock into smaller pieces, the broken rock is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

solubility

d)

density

38.

Properties of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the basic nature of the matter.

a)

Chemical properties

b)

property

c)

matter

d)

Physical properties

39.

A property of matter that can only be observed by changing the basic nature of the matter (e.g. combustibility)

a)

physical property

b)

physical change

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical property

40.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
41.
Which of the following is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Quark
42.
What carries no charge 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Electrons
c)
Protons
43.

Which is the smallest particle of an atom?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

neutron

44.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
45.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
46.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

47.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
48.

After mixing two substances you notice some bubbling has occurred. What can you infer about this interaction?

a)

It's a chemical reaction

b)

It's a physical reaction

c)

It's a magical reaction

d)

It's a physical change

49.

When moving a metal bar next to some iron shavings you notice that the iron shavings stick to the metal bar. This is an example of what property of matter?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Electricity

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Plasma

50.

Electricity was summarized in class by the _________ of electrons.

a)

Flow

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Field

51.

Light, electricity and magnetism are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following statements is an observation. (Checkboxes mean there may be more than 1 correct answer)

a)

The light got brighter

b)

The light is powered by electricity

c)

The electrons are flowing through the light bulb.

d)

The light got dimmer

53.
This organelle acts like a gatekeeper, allowing some materials to pass through it, but not others. 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
54.
This organelle is a gel-like fluid that takes up most of the space inside the cell. 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Vacuole
d)
Golgi Body
55.
Some viruses attack cells by inserting their own DNA into the host cell's DNA. Why might it be simpler for these viruses to attack prokaryotic cells than eukaryotic cells?
a)
prokaryotic cells have less DNA than do eukaryotic cells.
b)
Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.
c)
The cell wall in prokaryotic cells is a less effective barrier.
d)
The rapid growth of prokaryotic cells generates more viruses.
56.
Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
a)
storing genetic information
b)
recycling waste products of the cell
c)
providing a protective barrier
d)
processing and storing proteins
57.
The graph shows the number of mitochondria in breast muscles of different birds. Which statement best explains these data?
a)
The number of mitochondria in chickens would be higher if they could fly.
b)
The chicken breast muscle requires the greatest amount of energy per cell.
c)
The energy requirement of pigeon breast muscle is low.
d)
Duck breast muscle require the least amount of energy.
58.
What makes up the cell membrane?
a)
Lipid Monolayer
b)
Lipid Bilayer
c)
Protiens
d)
Carbohydrate Chains
59.
What structure is responsible for making proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Ribosome
60.
Besides the cytoplasm, where else do we find ribosomes?
a)
Vacoule
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Lysosome
61.
What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a)
to make energy
b)
modify and transport proteins made by the ribosomes on it
c)
store water and other vital molecules
d)
to make new membranes and neutralize toxins
62.
Membrane packages that carry molecules around the cell or out of the cell.
a)
Golgi Apparatus
b)
Vacuole
c)
Lysosome
d)
Vesicles
63.
Vesicle filled with digestive enzymes that break down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins into monomers. Recycle damaged or unused organelles.
a)
ER
b)
Lysosome
c)
Vacuole
d)
Mitochondria
64.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
65.
Which of the following is directly involved in the transportation of materials inside/within the cell?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Vacuole
c)
Lysosome
d)
Mitochondria
66.
Some cells, such as human nerve and muscle cells, contain many more mitochondria than do other cells, such as skin cells.  Why do some cells have more mitochondria than others?
a)
The cells use more energy
b)
The cells store more nutrients
c)
The cells degrade more proteins
d)
The cells divide more frequently
67.
Bacteria, protist, animal and plant cells all have a _______
a)
cell membrane
b)
nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
cell wall
68.
What is the difference between rough and smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
69.

Which organelle is labeled C, and stores DNA?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cell membrane

c)

cell wall

d)

nucleus

70.

Which organelle is an energy-releasing structure that creates energy in cells?

a)

A, mitochondria

b)

B, golgi apparatus

c)

C, nucleus

d)

D, endoplasmic reticulum

71.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
72.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

73.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

74.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

75.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
76.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
77.

What does tRNA stand for?

a)

transition RNA

b)

transcription RNA

c)

transfer RNA

d)

translation RNA

78.

mRNA is read into amino acids during what process?

a)

transcription

b)

transfer

c)

translation

d)

transition

79.

Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration (Kreb's Cycle and Electron Transport Chain) occurs in the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

vacuoles

80.

Cellular Respiration's goal is to

a)

make water

b)

make ATP

c)

make glucose

d)

make oxygen

81.

What type of respiration requires oxygen?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

82.

Where does Glycolysis occur inside the cell? (first step in the overall process)

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Nucleus

83.

What are the products (what is released) of cellular respiration? (Mark all of them!)

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

e)

ATP (energy)

84.

Which stage of the cellular respiration process produces the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Acetyl CoA

c)

Kreb's Cycle

d)

Electron Transport Chain

85.

What's the chemical formula for glucose?

a)

6C6H12O6

b)

C12H6O12

c)

C6H12O6

d)

CHO

86.

Which molecule is the product of Glycolysis and the reactant of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

pyruvic acid

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

oxygen

87.

Which molecule is the product of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

oxygen

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

88.

What is formed at the end of the Electron Transport Chain by the combination of its reactant and hydrogen?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

glucose

89.

The Electron Transport Chain is a series of chemical reactions in which energy is transferred to form a large amount of what molecule?

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

pyruvate

d)

ATP

90.
This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen is present.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
light-independent reaction
c)
cellular respiration
d)
light-dependent reaction
91.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
92.
The energy in ATP is stored 
a)
in the bond between the second and third phosphate
b)
in the bond between the first and second phosphate
c)
in the bond between the adenosine and the first phosphate
d)
I like turtles
93.
What is the function of ATP in living things?
a)
provides energy for cells
b)
stores genetic information
c)
provides structure in the nucleus
94.
What does the "TP" in ATP stand for?
a)
2 phosphates
b)
tri (3) phosphates
c)
Two proteins
d)
tri (3) proteins
95.

Energy-requiring process that moves material across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient.

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

osmosis

96.

Hydrophobic

a)

Mixes well with water

b)

Does not mix with water

97.

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Endocytosis

98.

the movement of substances across a cell membrane without the use of energy by the cell

a)

Active transport

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Passive transport

99.

some substances, but not all, can pass directly through the cell membrane by passive or active transport

a)

semipermeable

b)

plasma

c)

cell

d)

turgid

100.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
101.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
102.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
103.
It forms a boundary between the inside of the cell and the outside of the cell. 
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Lipid Cleric Layer
c)
Membrane Gate
d)
Protein Receptors 
104.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
105.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
106.
Part of the plasma membrane responsible for cell recognition... 
a)
C
b)
E
c)
B
d)
D
107.
Cell membrane is made up of 
a)
Polar heads, non-polar tails
b)
Non-polar heads, polar tails
c)
Polar heads, polar tails
d)
Non-polar heads, non-polar tails
108.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
109.

True or False. The Krebs Cycle takes place within the mitochondrial matrix.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

True or False. The electron transport chain for both the mitochondria and the chloroplast occur on membranes.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

What is the function of the intermembrane space of the mitochondria?

a)

space where H+ ions accumulate quickly for ATP synthesis

b)

space where electrons accumulate for ATP synthesis

c)

to increase the surface area to volume ratio for ATP production

112.

Letter F is which structure of the mitochondria?

a)

inner membrane

b)

outer membrane

c)

cristae

d)

matrix

113.
A/An ____________is the smallest unit of life.
a)
atom
b)
stimulus
c)
cell
d)
DNA
114.

Select from the following the most basic requirements for life to form from non-living matter:

a)

Water

b)

Nutrients

c)

Energy

d)

Oxygen

115.

An organism from Kansas may struggle to survive in an Arctic climate due to what fundamental property of life?

a)

Environmental adaptations

b)

It's too cold

c)

There isn't enough sunlight

d)

Water isn't available

116.

Organisms being well adapted to their environment is a result of what?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Environmental adaptations

d)

Artificial Selection

117.

The texture of soil depends on

a)

How much water it can retain

b)

Particle size

c)

Soil color

d)

Soil mass

118.
What type of soil would be best for a man-made pond, where the goal is to have as little leakage of water as possible?
a)
mostly clay
b)
mostly silt
c)
mostly sand
d)
equal amounts of clay, silt, and sand
119.

What is made up of equal parts of clay, sand, and silt is called

a)

foam

b)

loam

c)

soil

d)

sand

120.

Which particle is the most porous and allows for the most water to travel between them?

a)

silt

b)

sand

c)

clay

d)

loam

121.

Which of the following is not a primary nutrient required for plant growth?

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Potassium

d)

Nitrogen

122.

· What do the three numbers found on a fertilizer label represent?

a)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium found in the bag

b)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium found in the bag

c)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus found in the bag

d)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Iron, Manganese, Potassium found in the bag

123.

When you hear the word "potash", what element does it refer to?

a)

Phosphorus

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Potassium

d)

Iron

124.

A soil analysis shows that there is 3% sand, 30% silt and 40% clay; what can you add to the soil after it's tilled to help it hold water in the most efficient way?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Potash

125.

Which of the following can be controlled to help an organism thrive?

a)

Light

b)

pH

c)

Temperature

d)

Soil texture

e)

Moisture

126.

A plant is struggling in an acidic soil, what can you do to help it out?

a)

Increase the pH

b)

Decrease the pH

c)

Add sand to the soil

d)

Increase Nitrogen

127.

Understanding soil texture is important for what requirement of life?

a)

Water

b)

Energy

c)

Nutrients

d)

Respiration

128.

Understanding the NPK analysis of soil is important for what requirement of life?

a)

Water

b)

Energy

c)

Nutrients

d)

Phosphorus

129.

You discover that the soil is very hard to work with and is nearly as hard as a brick in the summer; this implies that is has to much of what soil particle?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Biomass

130.

What form of energy is likely to have helped produce the earliest life forms?

a)

Solar (Sunlight)

b)

Nuclear (Radioactive)

c)

Geothermal (Volcanic)

d)

Wind (Mechanical)

131.

The earliest life forms were able to undergo photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

If you eat a cheeseburger, the energy you get ultimately comes from what source?

a)

The cow

b)

The cheese

c)

The sun

d)

The earth

133.

Soil contains nutrients for life, all types of life, but you don't want mold which prefers soil that stays wet for long periods of time. When growing indoor plants, what can you add to soil to promote better drainage?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Sun

134.

Mitosis is the stage of the cell cycle during which ____.

a)

the cell's nucleus divides into two new nuclei.

b)

the cell divides into two new cells.

c)

the cell's DNA is replicated.

d)

the cell's cytoplasm divides.

135.

During what stage of the cell cycle does replication occur?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

prophase

d)

mitosis

136.

What happens during cytokinesis of an animal cell?

a)

Each organelle divides into two parts.

b)

A new round of mitosis begins.

c)

Two new daughter cells are formed.

d)

A cell plate forms.

137.

Chromatids are...

a)

identical daughter cells.

b)

doubled rods of condensed chromatin.

c)

pigments that absorb the energy in sunlight.

d)

identical strands of chromosomes.

138.

Cycle of growth and division that cells undergo is...

a)

replication

b)

the cell cycle.

c)

interphase.

d)

mitosis.

139.

At the end of prophase, each of the following happens except

a)

tighter coiling of the chromosomes.

b)

breaking down of the nuclear envelope

c)

disappearing of the nucleolus.

d)

chromosomes line up in the middle.

140.

The longest phase of the cell cycle is...

a)

prophase

b)

interphase

c)

metaphase

d)

mitosis

141.

What type of cells undergo mitosis?

a)

germ cells

b)

sperm cells

c)

somatic cells

d)

egg cells

142.

The structures that become tightly packed during cell division and contain DNA are

a)

centromeres

b)

centrioles

c)

chromosomes

d)

spindle fibers

143.

Stage in mitosis in which chromosomes replicate themselves.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

144.

Cell elongates and chromosomes move toward the poles during

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

145.

Two new daughter cells are formed and visible during

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

146.

Which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up the middle?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

147.

Which stage of mitosis is visible here?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

148.

Which stage is visible?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

149.

Identify the stage.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

150.

What happens during cytokinesis?

a)

nuclear division

b)

DNA replicates

c)

cell grows

d)

cytoplasm divides

151.

What is the end result of Mitosis/cytokinesis?

a)

two genetically different daughter cells

b)

four identical daughter cells

c)

two identical daughter cells

d)

four genetically different daughter cells

152.

Cancer cells...

a)

divide too frequently

b)

are uncontrolled

c)

can metastasize (move) to other locations

d)

all of these.

153.

Which type of cell division results in 4 daughter cells

a)

Interphase

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cytokinesis

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